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BUSLAW (RCC: Tl to Tlll)

Total questions: 195

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

These are the characteristics of a corporation except:

a)

artificial being

b)

created by operation of law

c)

having the right of succession

d)

powers, attributes and properties expressly authorized by law

e)

created by agreement of the parties

2.

These are the conditions needed in the doctrine of piercing the corporate veil, except:

a)

Complete Control

b)

Commit Fraud

c)

Proximate Cause of Injury

d)

Lawful Corporate Purpose

3.

Which of the following best describes the doctrine of piercing the corporate veil?

a)

It allows shareholders to freely transfer their shares without restriction.

b)

It disregards the separate juridical personality of a corporation to hold shareholders personally liable.

c)

It grants perpetual succession to a corporation.

d)

It permits a corporation to enter into contracts in its own name.

4.

No part of their income is distributable as dividends to its members, trustees or officers subject to the provisions on dissolution.

a)

Non-stock corporations

b)

Stock Corporations

c)

Partnerships

5.

One with capital stock divided into shares and are authorized to distribute allotment of its surplus profits by way of dividends

a)

Non-stock corporations

b)

Stock Corporations

c)

Partnerships

6.

A CORPORATION IS ENTITLED TO THE AWARD OF MORAL DAMAGES

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

7.

Statement 1: A corporation is not entitled to moral damages. Moral damages may be awarded in recompense for physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety, besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, and similar injury.

Statement 2: A corporation being an artificial person existing only in contemplation of the law has No Feelings. It has No Emotions and No Senses. It cannot thus experience mental anguish and physical suffering.
Statement 3: A corporation may have a good reputation which is besmirched may also be a ground for the award of moral damages.
Statement 4: There are instances when moral damages may be awarded. A provision authorizes the recovery of moral damages in cases of libel, slander and any other form of defamation.
Statement 4: A corporation is not entitled to moral damages at all, in any circumstances.

a)

Only statement 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

b)

Only statement 3 and 4 are correct.

c)

Only statement 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

d)

All statements are correct.

8.

SEC. 3. Classes of Corporations.

a)

stock and nonstock corporations

b)

private and public corporation

c)

domestic and foreign corporation

d)

close and open corporation

9.

Under Section 4 of the Revised Corporation Code, which of the following is TRUE about corporations created by special laws or charters?

a)

They are formed by simply filing Articles of Incorporation with the SEC.

b)

They derive their corporate existence directly from special laws or legislative charters.

c)

They are the same as ordinary private corporations created under the Corporation Code.

d)

They cannot be created by Congress or special statutes.

10.

Corporations created by special laws or charters shall be governed primarily by the provisions of the special law or charter creating them or applicable to them, supplemented by the provisions of this Code, insofar as they are applicable.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

11.

Who are referred to as corporators under Sec. 5 of the Revised Corporation Code?

a)

Only the incorporators of a corporation

b)

Those who compose a corporation, either as stockholders or members

c)

Only the stockholders in a stock corporation

d)

Only the members in a nonstock corporation

12.

Who are considered incorporators under Sec. 5?

a)

Any person who buys shares in the corporation

b)

All stockholders or members of a corporation

c)

Those mentioned in the Articles of Incorporation as originally forming the corporation and who signed it

d)

All future members of a nonstock corporation

13.

In a stock corporation, corporators are called:

a)

Incorporators

b)

Stockholders or shareholders

c)

Members

d)

Trustees

14.

In a nonstock corporation, corporators are referred to as:

a)

Trustees

b)

Directors

c)

Members

d)

Incorporators only

15.

Which of the following correctly distinguishes corporators from incorporators?

a)

Corporators are always the original signatories, while incorporators may join later.

b)

Incorporators compose the corporation permanently, while corporators may withdraw anytime.

c)

Corporators are all stockholders or members, while incorporators are the original ones who signed the Articles of Incorporation.

d)

Corporators and incorporators are exactly the same with no distinction.

16.

Which document must incorporators sign to be recognized as such under the law?

a)

By-laws

b)

Articles of Incorporation

c)

Corporate Minutes

d)

Treasurer’s Affidavit

17.

Can incorporators also be considered corporators?

a)

No, because they are different groups.

b)

Yes, because incorporators are also stockholders or members of the corporation.

c)

No, because only members are corporators.

d)

Only if they are elected as directors.

18.

In a newly formed corporation, who are specifically recognized as the original corporators?

a)

The Board of Directors elected by the stockholders

b)

The incorporators who signed the Articles of Incorporation

c)

The future stockholders who will buy shares later

d)

The corporate officers appointed after registration

19.

Where must the classification of shares and their rights, privileges, or restrictions be indicated?

a)

In the by-laws

b)

In the Treasurer’s affidavit

c)

In the Articles of Incorporation

d)

In the General Information Sheet

20.

According to Sec. 6, what must also be stated about shares, if applicable?

a)

Their minimum selling price

b)

Their stated par value

c)

Their voting percentage

d)

Their book value

21.

What is the general rule about the equality of shares?

a)

Preferred shares are always superior to common shares.

b)

Each share shall be equal in all respects to every other share.

c)

Only voting shares are considered equal.

d)

Non-par value shares are not equal to par value shares.

22.

Which type of share usually gives holders voting rights and entitlement to dividends?

a)

Redeemable shares

b)

Preferred shares

c)

Common shares

d)

Treasury shares

23.

Which type of share usually gives holders preferential rights to dividends and liquidation proceeds?

a)

Common shares

b)

Non-voting shares

c)

Preferred shares

d)

Founders’ shares

24.

What kind of shares may be deprived of voting rights except in certain matters provided by law?

a)

Preferred or redeemable shares

b)

Common shares only

c)

Treasury shares

d)

Convertible shares

25.

What is the significance of stating the par value of a share?

a)

It determines the market price of the share.

b)

It is the minimum issue price of the share.

c)

It guarantees a fixed dividend rate.

d)

It is equal to the book value of the share.

26.

What happens if the Articles of Incorporation do not provide any classification of shares?

a)

The corporation cannot issue any shares.

b)

All shares are presumed to be of one class, equal in rights and privileges.

c)

Only preferred shares may be issued.

d)

The Board of Directors decides the classifications later.

27.

Statement 1: Shares of capital stock issued without par value shall be deemed fully paid and nonassessable and the holder of such shares shall not be liable to the corporation or to its creditors
Statement 2: No-par value shares must be issued for a consideration of at least Five pesos,

Statement 3: The entire consideration received by the corporation for its no-par value shares shall be treated as capital and shall not be available for distribution as dividends.

a)

Only statement 1 is correct

b)

Statement 1 and 2 are both correct

c)

All statements are correct

d)

All statements are incorrect

28.

What special feature may founders’ shares be given under Sec. 7?

a)

The right to fixed dividends

b)

Rights and privileges not enjoyed by other stockholders

c)

The power to issue new shares

d)

Automatic exemption from taxes

29.

Founders’ shares may be granted the exclusive right to vote and be voted for in the election of directors, but only for how long?

a)

1 year from incorporation

b)

3 years from incorporation

c)

5 years from incorporation

d)

10 years from incorporation

30.

Which law prohibits foreigners from exercising control in corporations holding land, natural resources, or public utilities, affecting the grant of founders’ shares?

a)

Corporation Code of 1980

b)

Anti-Dummy Law (C.A. No. 108)

c)

Securities Regulation Code

d)

Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act

31.

What are treasury shares?

a)

Shares that are authorized but not yet issued

b)

Shares issued and fully paid but later reacquired by the issuing corporation

c)

Shares that have never been subscribed

d)

Shares issued to the government

32.

What is the status of voting rights of treasury shares?

a)

They carry full voting rights.

b)

They have limited voting rights.

c)

They have no voting rights while in the treasury.

d)

They may vote only on dissolution.

33.

Do treasury shares have dividend rights?

a)

Yes, always.

b)

Only when declared by the Board.

c)

No, they have no dividend rights while in the treasury.

d)

Yes, but only cash dividends.

34.

What happens to treasury shares once reissued by the corporation?

a)

They regain all rights of outstanding shares.

b)

They remain without voting and dividend rights.

c)

They become permanently canceled.

d)

They convert into preferred shares.

35.

What is the maximum number of incorporators allowed under Sec. 10 of the RCC?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

36.

According to SEC. 10, who may be incorporators of a corporation?

a)

Only natural persons

b)

Only natural persons of legal age

c)

Any person, partnership, association, or corporation

d)

Only stockholders

37.

Incorporators who are natural persons must be:

a)

At least 18 years old

b)

Of legal age

c)

At least 21 years old

d)

Filipino citizens only

38.

If a corporation has only one stockholder, what type of corporation is it considered?

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Partnership

c)

One Person Corporation (OPC)

d)

Close corporation

39.

Under Sec. 11, what is the default corporate term for corporations under the RCC?

a)

25 years

b)

50 years

c)

Perpetual existence

d)

99 years

40.

For corporations created before the effectivity of the RCC, what happens to their corporate term?

a)

It automatically expires after 25 years.

b)

It remains fixed as stated in their Articles of Incorporation unless they elect perpetual existence.

c)

They automatically gain perpetual existence unless they notify the SEC to retain their specific term.

d)

They must apply for renewal after 50 years.

41.

Any change in corporate term that is unfavorable to some stockholders gives rise to what right?

a)

Pre-emptive right

b)

Appraisal right

c)

Subscription right

d)

Redemption right

42.

When can a corporation extend its corporate term?

a)

At any time after incorporation

b)

Not earlier than 3 years before expiry date unless justified

c)

Only after the term has expired

d)

Only with court approval

43.

When does the extension of the corporate term take effect?

a)

Immediately after SEC approval

b)

On the day of stockholders’ approval

c)

On the day following the original or subsequent expiry date

d)

On the day of amendment of Articles of Incorporation

44.

If a corporation elects to shorten its corporate term, what must it do?

a)

File a notice to creditors only

b)

Amend its Articles of Incorporation

c)

Secure approval of the SEC alone

d)

Apply for liquidation immediately

45.

What is the general rule on minimum capital stock under Sec. 12 of the RCC?

a)

₱5,000 is required as minimum capital.

b)

₱25,000 is required as minimum capital.

c)

No minimum capital stock is required.

d)

₱1,000 is required as minimum capital.

46.

When is a stock corporation required to have a minimum capital stock?

Statement 1: Always, regardless of the nature of the business
Statement 2: Only if specified under special law
Statement 3: Only when approved by the SEC
Statement 4: Only if organized by foreign investors

a)

Only Statement 1 is correct

b)

Statement 2, 3, and 4 are correct

c)

Only Statement 2 is correct

d)

Only Statement 3 is correct

e)

Only Statement 4 is correct

47.

Which of the following must always appear in the Articles of Incorporation?

a)

Corporate seal

b)

Name of the corporation

c)

Corporate logo

d)

Business permits

48.

If a corporation states multiple purposes, what must the articles of incorporation indicate?

a)

All purposes are equal

b)

Only the secondary purposes

c)

The primary purpose and the secondary purposes

d)

No distinction is needed

49.

Where must the principal office of the corporation be located?

a)

Anywhere in the world

b)

Within Metro Manila only

c)

Within the Philippines

d)

In the incorporator’s residence

50.

If perpetual existence is not elected, what must be stated in the Articles of Incorporation?

a)

The reason for non-perpetual existence

b)

The exact corporate term

c)

The incorporators’ life span

d)

A dissolution plan

51.

Which of the following are included in SEC. 13. Contents of the Articles of Incorporation.
Content 1: The name of the corporation; The specific purpose or purposes for which the corporation is being formed; The place where the principal office of the corporation is to be located; The term for which the corporation is to exist.

Content 2: The names, nationalities, and residence addresses of the incorporators; The number of directors; The names, nationalities, and residence addresses of persons
Content 3: The amount of its authorized capital stock; number of shares into which it is divided; the par value of each, names, nationalities, and residence addresses of the original subscribers

Content 4: The amount of its capital; the names, nationalities, and residence addresses of the contributors; amount contributed by each

a)

Contents 1, 2 and 3

b)

Contents 1, 2 and 4

c)

Contents 1, 3, and 4

d)

All Contents are included

52.

For stock corporations, the Articles must state the authorized capital stock and:

a)

The number of employees to be hired

b)

The market value of shares

c)

The par value, subscribers, and their subscriptions

d)

Only the incorporators’ net worth

53.

For non-stock corporations, what must be indicated in the Articles of Incorporation?

a)

List of investors

b)

Amount of capital, contributors, and their contributions

c)

Names of prospective members only

d)

Annual membership dues

54.

What is the maximum number of directors that can be stated in the Articles of Incorporation?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

Unlimited

55.

For trustees in a non-stock corporation, the Articles may provide:

a)

No more than 15

b)

Any number, more than 15 allowed

c)

Exactly 12 only

d)

Not more than 20

56.

What optional provision stated in SEC. 13 that may be included in the Articles of Incorporation under Sec. 181?

a)

Arbitration agreement

b)

Anti-dummy clause

c)

Foreign investment guarantee

d)

Corporate merger plan

57.

Who prescribes the form of Articles of Incorporation if not the Corporation Code?

a)

The incorporators

b)

The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)

c)

A special law

d)

The Department of Justice

58.

A corporation cannot use a name which is

a)

Identical or deceptively or confusingly similar to that of any existing corporation or to any other name protected by law

b)

Patently deceptive, confusing or contrary to law

c)

Both are correct

d)

Both are incorrect

59.

The maximum amount fixed in the articles to be subscribed and paid-in or secured to be paid by the subscribers.

a)

Authorized capital

b)

Subscribed capital stock

c)

Paid-up capital stock

60.

The total number of shares and its total value for which there are contracts for their acquisition or subscription.

a)

Authorized capital

b)

Subscribed capital stock

c)

Paid-up capital stock

61.

The actual amount or value which has been actually contributed or paid to the corporation in consideration of the subscriptions made thereon.

a)

Authorized capital

b)

Subscribed capital stock

c)

Paid-up capital stock

62.

Who has the authority to approve amendments to the Articles of Incorporation in a stock corporation?

a)

The corporate secretary alone

b)

A majority of the board and 2/3 of stockholders

c)

All corporators

d)

The SEC without corporate approval

63.

In a nonstock corporation, who must approve amendments to the Articles of Incorporation?

a)

Majority of incorporators and half of the members

b)

Majority of trustees and 2/3 of members

c)

2/3 of trustees only

d)

All members unanimously

64.

What must be done to clearly indicate amendments in the Articles of Incorporation?

a)

Highlight them with color

b)

Underscore the changes made

c)

Place them in footnotes

d)

Write them on a separate sheet

65.

Who must certify the amended Articles of Incorporation under oath?

a)

Corporate secretary and all stockholders

b)

Corporate secretary and majority of directors/trustees

c)

Treasurer and president

d)

Chairman and auditor

66.

When do amendments take effect?

a)

Immediately after board approval

b)

After notarization by the corporate secretary

c)

Upon SEC approval, or after 6 months if not acted upon (without fault of corporation)

d)

Only after ratification by all incorporators

67.

What must the amended Articles of Incorporation contain?

a)

Only the amendments made

b)

Only the original provisions

c)

Both the original and amended provisions

d)

A summary prepared by incorporators

68.

If the SEC does not act on the amendment filing within 6 months without fault of the corporation, the amendment shall:

a)

Be considered disapproved

b)

Take effect automatically from the date of filing

c)

Expire and require refiling

d)

Need court approval

69.

One ground for disapproval of the Articles of Incorporation is when:

a)

The incorporators are foreigners

b)

The Articles are not substantially in accordance with the prescribed form

c)

The corporate logo is missing

d)

The incorporators reside abroad

70.

If the purpose of the corporation is patently unconstitutional, illegal, or immoral, what may the SEC do?

a)

Approve with conditions

b)

Disapprove the Articles of Incorporation

c)

Approve after amendment of bylaws

d)

Forward it to Congress

71.

False certification concerning which aspect is a ground for disapproval?

a)

Corporate by-laws

b)

Amount of capital stock subscribed and/or paid

c)

Corporate term

d)

Principal office address

72.

No Articles of Incorporation of banks, pawnshops, and similar institutions shall be approved unless:

a)

They have a minimum ₱10 million capital

b)

Accompanied by a favorable recommendation from the appropriate government agency

c)

Approved by Congress

d)

Approved by the local mayor

73.

Which of the following is a ground for disallowing a corporate name?

a)

The name is already reserved or registered for another corporation

b)

The name is in English

c)

The name contains the word “company”

d)

The name uses punctuation marks

74.

A corporate name is NOT considered distinguishable even if it contains:

a)

A unique invented word

b)

Punctuations or abbreviations

c)

A completely different phrase

d)

A distinctive trademark

75.

Which of the following words does NOT make a corporate name distinguishable?

a)

Corporation

b)

Incorporated

c)

Limited Liability

d)

All of the above

76.

If a corporation fails to comply with the SEC’s order to change its name, it may be held:

a)

Administratively, civilly, and/or criminally liable

b)

Only civilly liable

c)

Only administratively liable

d)

Only criminally liable

77.

The SEC may also impose what penalty if a corporation refuses to change its unlawful name?

a)

Tax penalties from the BIR

b)

Revocation of the corporation’s registration

c)

Suspension of by-laws

d)

Reduction of authorized capital stock

78.

What is the first step a person or group of persons must do to incorporate?

a)

Draft by-laws

b)

Submit the intended corporate name for SEC verification

c)

Pay taxes to BIR

d)

Open a corporate bank account

79.

When does a private corporation under the Code commence its corporate existence?

a)

Upon drafting its by-laws

b)

Upon SEC verification of the corporate name

c)

From the date the SEC issues the certificate of incorporation under its official seal

d)

When incorporators sign the Articles of Incorporation

80.

The issuance of a certificate of incorporation signifies:

a)

Approval of corporate by-laws only

b)

The corporation gains juridical personality

c)

Endorsement by the Department of Trade and Industry

d)

Automatic listing in the stock exchange

81.

Who constitutes the body corporate once the certificate of incorporation is issued?

a)

The board of directors only

b)

The incorporators, stockholders/members, and their successors

c)

The SEC examiners

d)

The corporate secretary and treasurer

82.

The corporate existence continues for the period stated in the Articles of Incorporation unless:

a)

It is extended or dissolved earlier in accordance with law

b)

The incorporators voluntarily resign

c)

The corporation runs out of funds

d)

The SEC changes the period on its own

83.

Certificate of incorporation is the official document marks the legal “birth” of a corporation. What must the SEC verify before issuing the certificate of incorporation?

a)

That the corporation has filed tax returns

b)

That documents and information are fully compliant with the Code and other laws

c)

That the incorporators are all residents of Metro Manila

d)

That the corporation already has elected officers

84.

The period of corporate existence begins:

a)

On the date the incorporators signed the Articles of Incorporation

b)

On the date the corporation elects its first directors

c)

On the date stated in the certificate of incorporation issued by the SEC

d)

On the date the Treasurer deposits the capital

85.

What protects a corporation claiming in good faith under this Code?

a)

It can never be dissolved

b)

Its due incorporation and corporate powers cannot be collaterally questioned in a private suit

c)

It is exempt from paying taxes

d)

Its directors are immune from liability

86.

Who may inquire into the existence of a de facto corporation?

a)

Any stockholder

b)

The SEC

c)

The Solicitor General through a quo warranto proceeding

d)

Any private creditor

87.

A corporation that attempted in good faith to incorporate but failed to fully comply with requirements is called:

a)

De jure corporation

b)

De facto corporation

c)

Illegal association

d)

Partnership

88.

one w/c has complied w/ all the legal requirements for its establishment

a)

De jure corporation

b)

De facto corporation

c)

Illegal association

d)

Partnership

89.

The term “collateral inquiry” means:

a)

Examination in the course of an unrelated private suit

b)

Investigation done by the SEC

c)

Tax audit conducted by the BIR

d)

Corporate due diligence

90.

A de facto corporation:

a)

Has no legal personality at all

b)

Has limited recognition of its corporate existence until validly questioned

c)

Can never enter into contracts

d)

Exists only if approved by the Solicitor General

91.

Which of the following is TRUE?

a)

Private individuals can file a quo warranto case against a de facto corporation

b)

Only the Solicitor General may file a quo warranto case questioning corporate existence

c)

The SEC automatically dissolves de facto corporations

d)

A de facto corporation is not recognized in law at all

92.

What is the main legal effect of being a de facto corporation?

a)

It operates with corporate powers despite defects in incorporation until properly questioned

b)

It is automatically dissolved by law

c)

It cannot be sued in court

d)

Its contracts are always void

93.

If an ostensible (fake) corporation is sued, can it use lack of corporate personality as a defense?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only with SEC approval

d)

Only in tort cases

94.

Who bears liability when people knowingly pretend to be a corporation?

a)

Only the incorporators

b)

Only directors

c)

All persons acting as such

d)

The government, because of their strict rules

95.

What happens if someone contracts with an ostensible (fake) corporation?

a)

The contract is automatically void

b)

The other party cannot resist performance by claiming no corporation existed

c)

The other party may rescind the contract anytime

d)

The contract needs SEC ratification

96.

Which is TRUE about Corporation by Estoppel?

a)

It enjoys full corporate rights without SEC registration

b)

It protects innocent third parties dealing with a fake corporation

c)

It makes all debts disappear if discovered

d)

It exempts incorporators from liability

97.

Corporation by Estoppel applies when:

a)

There is good faith but incomplete incorporation

b)

There is knowledge of lack of corporate authority, but persons act as a corporation

c)

The SEC grants temporary approval

d)

The corporation is dissolved

98.

What doctrine prevents individuals from denying the corporate existence after dealing with an ostensible corporation?

a)

Ultra vires doctrine

b)

Doctrine of limited liability

c)

Estoppel

d)

Trust fund doctrine

99.

Which statement BEST describes the purpose of Sec. 20 Corporation by Estoppel?

a)

To punish stockholders for negligence

b)

To protect the SEC from fraudulent corporations

c)

To prevent people from escaping liability by pretending to be a corporation

d)

To exempt promoters from liability

100.

Under SEC. 21. Effects of Non-Use of Corporate Charter and Continuous Inoperation. If a corporation does not organize and commence business within five (5) years from incorporation, what happens?

a)

It is placed under delinquent status

b)

Its certificate of incorporation is deemed revoked

c)

It pays a penalty only

d)

It automatically converts to a non-stock corporation

101.

If a corporation has started operations but later remains inoperative for 5 consecutive years, what can the SEC do?

a)

Automatically dissolve it

b)

Place it under delinquent status

c)

Convert it into a partnership

d)

Reduce its corporate term

102.

How long does a corporation under delinquent status have to resume operations and comply with SEC requirements?

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

2 years

d)

5 years

103.

Before revoking or suspending a certificate of incorporation of companies under special regulatory jurisdiction, the SEC must:

a)

Notify only the stockholders

b)

Notify and coordinate with the appropriate regulatory agency

c)

Get approval from the president of the corporation

d)

Publish in the newspaper only

104.

Who exercises the corporate powers of a corporation under Sec. 22?

a)

Stockholders

b)

Incorporators

c)

The Board of Directors or Trustees

d)

The Commission

105.

For how long are directors elected in a stock corporation?

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

2 years

d)

3 years

106.

For how long may trustees in a nonstock corporation be elected?

a)

Not exceeding 1 year

b)

Not exceeding 2 years

c)

Not exceeding 3 years

d)

No fixed term

107.

When does a director or trustee’s term effectively end?

a)

On election day

b)

On the expiration of their stated term

c)

Only when their successor is elected and qualified

d)

Automatically after 12 months

108.

A director who ceases to own at least one share of stock shall:

a)

Remain director until term expires

b)

Automatically cease to be a director

c)

Be suspended until shares are reacquired

d)

Be allowed to serve as trustee instead

109.

A trustee who ceases to be a member of a nonstock corporation shall:

a)

Still complete his term

b)

Be suspended until reinstated

c)

Cease to be a trustee

d)

Be converted to honorary trustee

110.

At least what percentage of the board must be independent directors in corporations vested with public interest?

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

111.

Under R.A. 8799, which corporations are included under Section 17.2 that require independent directors?

a)

Corporations with assets of at least ₱50,000,000 and 200+ shareholders

b)

Small sole proprietorships

c)

Cooperatives

d)

Partnerships

112.

Which is NOT a factor the Commission may consider in determining other corporations vested with public interest?

a)

Extent of minority ownership

b)

Type of financial products offered

c)

Nature of business operations

d)

Number of incorporators

113.

An independent director must be:

a)

Related to the president

b)

Independent of management

c)

A major stockholder

d)

Part of the incorporators

114.

Independent directors are elected by:

a)

Incorporators

b)

Board of Directors

c)

Shareholders present or entitled to vote in absentia

d)

SEC appointees

115.

What is the required quorum for the election of directors in stock corporations?

a)

25% of outstanding capital stock

b)

50% of outstanding capital stock

c)

Majority of outstanding capital stock

d)

Two-thirds of outstanding capital stock

116.

In nonstock corporations, what constitutes a quorum for electing trustees?

a)

One-fourth of members

b)

Majority of members entitled to vote

c)

Two-thirds of members

d)

All members present

117.

Stockholders or members may vote through remote communication or in absentia if:

a)

Expressly prohibited in bylaws

b)

Allowed in the bylaws or approved by majority of the board

c)

SEC automatically authorizes it

d)

Only if all stockholders agree

118.

A stockholder voting in absentia or via remote communication is considered:

a)

Absent

b)

Only partially counted

c)

Present for purposes of quorum

d)

Disqualified from voting

119.

If requested by any voting stockholder, the election of directors must be by:

a)

Proxy only

b)

Voice vote

c)

Ballot

d)

Show of hands

120.

A stockholder entitled to vote may vote:

a)

Only one vote regardless of shares owned

b)

As many votes as there are directors, according to shares owned

c)

Only in proportion to paid-up shares

d)

Only in absentia

121.

Which method of voting is allowed in stock corporations?

a)

Straight voting

b)

Cumulative voting

c)

Distribution of votes among candidates

d)

All of the above

122.

What is the limit of votes a stockholder may cast?

a)

Unlimited

b)

Shares owned × Number of directors to be elected

c)

One vote per share regardless of directors

d)

Determined by SEC

123.

Can delinquent stock be voted?

a)

Yes, if partially paid

b)

Yes, but only with board approval

c)

No, delinquent stock cannot be voted

d)

Yes, but limited to half its value

124.

In nonstock corporations, how may members cast votes?

a)

Cumulative voting

b)

As many votes as there are trustees, but not more than one per candidate

c)

One vote regardless of trustees

d)

Only by proxy

125.

When must directors formally organize and elect corporate officers?

a)

Before incorporation

b)

Immediately after their election

c)

One month after incorporation

d)

At the end of the fiscal year

126.

The treasurer of a corporation must be:

a)

A stockholder only

b)

A director

c)

A resident

d)

A foreigner

127.

In corporations vested with public interest, what additional officer must be elected?

a)

Auditor

b)

Compliance officer

c)

Vice-president

d)

Managing director

128.

The corporate secretary must be:

a)

A lawyer

b)

A stockholder

c)

A citizen and resident of the Philippines

d)

A director

129.

Can one person hold two or more positions in a corporation?

a)

Yes, always without restriction

b)

No, only one position per person

c)

Yes, but not both president and secretary or president and treasurer

d)

Only if the SEC approves

130.

Which of the following position combinations is prohibited unless otherwise allowed by the Code?

a)

President and Compliance Officer

b)

President and Treasurer

c)

Treasurer and Secretary

d)

Vice-president and Treasurer

131.

Within how many days after the election of directors, trustees, and officers must the report be submitted to the Commission?

a)

7 days

b)

15 days

c)

30 days

d)

60 days

132.

Who is primarily responsible for submitting the report of election to the Commission?

a)

The president

b)

The treasurer

c)

The secretary

d)

The stockholders

133.

When reporting the non-holding of elections, a new date must be specified. What is the maximum allowable period for the new election date?

a)

15 days

b)

30 days

c)

45 days

d)

60 days

134.

If a director, trustee, or officer dies, resigns, or ceases to hold office, within how many days must the fact be reported to the Commission?

a)

3 days

b)

7 days

c)

15 days

d)

30 days

135.

A person shall be disqualified from being a director, trustee, or officer if convicted by final judgment of an offense punishable by imprisonment for more than:

a)

3 years

b)

5 years

c)

6 years

d)

10

136.

Aside from the Revised Corporation Code, conviction under which law also leads to disqualification?

a)

Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act

b)

Securities Regulation Code (RA 8799)

c)

National Internal Revenue Code

d)

Intellectual Property Code

137.

Within how many years prior to election or appointment must the disqualifying acts have occurred?

a)

2 years

b)

3 years

c)

5 years

d)

10 years

138.

A person found administratively liable for any offense involving __________ shall be disqualified.

a)

Breach of trust

b)

Fraudulent acts

c)

Breach of contract

d)

Negligence

139.

A person may be disqualified if found guilty of similar misconduct by:

a)

A barangay tribunal

b)

A municipal court

c)

A foreign court or regulatory authority

d)

The BIR

140.

Question 1: Can the Commission or other regulatory agencies impose additional qualifications or disqualifications?

Question 2: Which agency may also impose sanctions affecting qualifications under this section?

a)

Answer 1: No, only courts can do so
Answer 2: Department of Justice

b)

Answer 1: Yes, for promotion of good corporate governance
Answer 2: Philippine Competition Commission

c)

Answer 1: No, unless Congress passes a law
Answer 2: Department of Justice

d)

Answer 1: Only the SEC Chairman can impose
Answer 2: Department of Finance

141.

How many votes are required to remove a director in a stock corporation?

a)

Majority (50% + 1) of outstanding capital stock

b)

Two-thirds (2/3) of outstanding capital stock

c)

Three-fourths (3/4) of outstanding capital stock

d)

Unanimous vote of stockholders

142.

In a nonstock corporation, how many votes are required to remove a trustee?

a)

Simple majority of members

b)

Two-thirds (2/3) of members entitled to vote

c)

75% of members

d)

Unanimous consent of all members

143.

Removal of directors or trustees can occur:

a)

Only at a regular meeting

b)

Only at a special meeting

c)

Either at a regular or special meeting

d)

Only by SEC order

144.

Prior notice of the intention to propose removal must be given to:

a)

The SEC only

b)

All directors or trustees

c)

Stockholders or members of the corporation

d)

The president and secretary only

145.

Removal of directors or trustees may be:

a)

Only with cause

b)

Only without cause

c)

With or without cause

d)

Only by SEC order

146.

Removal without cause cannot be used to:

a)

Penalize the president

b)

Deprive minority stockholders or members of representation rights

c)

Change the board composition

d)

Remove independent directors

147.

The Commission may order the removal of a director or trustee:

a)

Only after a stockholder petition

b)

Motu proprio or upon verified complaint

c)

Only after a court order

d)

Only at the end of the term

148.

Removal of a director elected despite disqualification is:

a)

Without prejudice to other sanctions on the board

b)

Effective only after 6 months

c)

Limited to stock corporations

d)

Automatically requires new elections

149.

The notice of a special meeting for removal must include:

a)

Only the time and place of the meeting

b)

Only the reason for removal

c)

Both the time and place of the meeting and the intention to propose removal

d)

Only the names of directors to be removed

150.

How is a vacancy in the board of directors or trustees (other than by removal or term expiration) filled?

a)

By appointment of the president

b)

By vote of at least a majority of remaining directors or trustees if quorum exists

c)

Automatically by the SEC

d)

By the secretary of the corporation

151.

If the remaining directors do not constitute a quorum, how is the vacancy filled?

a)

By the SEC

b)

By stockholders or members in a regular or special meeting

c)

Automatically by the president

d)

By court appointment

152.

When a vacancy arises due to term expiration, the election must be held:

a)

Within 30 days after term expiration

b)

On the day of expiration at a meeting called for that purpose

c)

Only at the next annual meeting

d)

Any time the board decides

153.

If a vacancy results from removal by stockholders or members, when may the election be held?

a)

Any time within 90 days

b)

Only at the next annual meeting

c)

On the same day of the meeting authorizing the removal, if stated in the notice

d)

By unanimous board approval

154.

In other cases of vacancy, the election must be held no later than:

a)

30 days

b)

45 days

c)

60 days

d)

90 days

155.

A director or trustee elected to fill a vacancy serves:

a)

A full new term

b)

Only the unexpired term of the predecessor

c)

Until the next SEC audit

d)

Until a special meeting is held

156.

When an emergency prevents a quorum, how may the vacancy be temporarily filled?

a)

By the president alone

b)

By unanimous vote of remaining directors or trustees from among the officers

c)

Automatically by the SEC

d)

By majority vote of stockholders

157.

The term of the emergency director or trustee ends:

a)

After 30 days automatically

b)

Upon termination of the emergency or election of a replacement, whichever comes first

c)

Only upon SEC approval

d)

After a majority vote of directors

158.

Within how many days must the corporation notify the Commission of the creation of an emergency board?

a)

1 day

b)

3 days

c)

7 days

d)

15 days

159.

A directorship or trusteeship created due to an increase in the number of directors or trustees is filled by:

a)

Board appointment only

b)

SEC order

c)

Election at a regular or special meeting of stockholders or members

d)

Court intervention

160.

A vacancy occurs not due to removal or expiration, and the remaining directors constitute a quorum. Who fills the vacancy?

a)

Stockholders at a special meeting

b)

Majority of remaining directors

c)

SEC-appointed director

d)

Corporate secretary

161.

In the absence of a provision in the bylaws fixing compensation, directors or trustees:

a)

May receive unlimited compensation

b)

Shall not receive any compensation except for reasonable per diems

c)

Automatically receive a fixed salary

d)

Can decide their own compensation

162.

Who can grant and approve compensation for directors or trustees?

a)

The president alone

b)

Stockholders representing at least a majority of outstanding capital stock or majority of members

c)

The board of directors

d)

The SEC

163.

The total yearly compensation of directors or trustees shall not exceed:

a)

5% of net income before tax

b)

10% of net income before tax

c)

15% of net income before tax

d)

20% of net income before tax

164.

Directors or trustees may:

a)

Participate in determining their own compensation

b)

Not participate in determining their own per diems or compensation

c)

Decide compensation for the entire board

d)

Approve compensation retroactively

165.

Corporations vested with public interest must:

a)

Submit an annual report of director compensation to the SEC only

b)

Submit an annual report of director compensation to shareholders and the Commission

c)

Publish director compensation in newspapers

d)

Report compensation only if requested by shareholders

166.

Directors or trustees who vote for or assent to patently unlawful acts of the corporation are:

a)

Not liable if majority approved

b)

Liable jointly and severally for all resulting damages

c)

Only liable to the SEC

d)

Only liable if shareholders sue

167.

Liability of directors or trustees may arise from:

a)

Gross negligence

b)

Bad faith in directing corporate affairs

c)

Acquiring personal or pecuniary interest in conflict with their duty

d)

All of the above

168.

A director, trustee, or officer shall not acquire any interest:

a)

Only if the board approves

b)

That is adverse to the corporation in respect of matters reposed in them in confidence

c)

Only if stockholders are informed

d)

If the SEC gives permission

169.

If a director, trustee, or officer acquires an interest adverse to the corporation in breach of confidence, they:

a)

Must pay a fine to the SEC only

b)

Shall be liable as a trustee and must account for profits that would have accrued to the corporation

c)

Can keep the profits if approved by other directors

d)

Are automatically removed from office

170.

Who may suffer damages due to the unlawful acts or gross negligence of directors or trustees?

a)

Only the corporation

b)

Only stockholders or members

c)

The corporation, stockholders or members, and other persons

d)

Only the SEC

171.

A contract between the corporation and one of its directors, trustees, or officers is:

a)

Always valid

b)

Voidable at the option of the corporation unless conditions are met

c)

Automatically ratified by the board

d)

Only valid if approved by the SEC

172.

Which of the following is a condition for the contract to be valid?

a)

The director’s presence in the meeting was necessary to constitute a quorum

b)

The director’s vote was necessary for approval

c)

The contract is fair and reasonable under the circumstances

d)

None of the above

173.

In corporations vested with public interest, material contracts must be approved by:

a)

Simple majority of the board

b)

Two-thirds (2/3) of the entire board, with a majority of independent directors voting to approve

c)

Only the president and treasurer

d)

Stockholders exclusively

174.

In case of a contract with an officer, it must be:

a)

Automatically valid

b)

Previously authorized by the board of directors

c)

Approved by stockholders only

d)

Signed by the SEC

175.

If the first three conditions (quorum, vote, fairness) are not present, the contract may be:

a)

Null and void

b)

Ratified by two-thirds (2/3) of stockholders or members at a meeting called for the purpose

c)

Approved by the president alone

d)

Automatically valid after 30 days

176.

Full disclosure of the adverse interest of directors or trustees must be made:

a)

Only to the board

b)

At the stockholders’ or members’ meeting for ratification

c)

Only to the SEC

d)

It is not required

177.

Relatives of directors or trustees whose dealings with the corporation are covered include:

a)

Only spouses

b)

Up to the fourth civil degree of consanguinity or affinity

c)

Only children and parents

d)

Only siblings

178.

A contract between two corporations with interlocking directors is:

a)

Automatically invalid

b)

Valid unless there is fraud and provided it is fair and reasonable

c)

Only valid with SEC approval

d)

Voidable by stockholders of either corporation

179.

When does a contract between corporations with interlocking directors become subject to Sec. 31?

a)

When both interests are nominal

b)

When the interest in one corporation is substantial and in the other is merely nominal

c)

When stockholders approve it

d)

When stockholders approve it

180.

What is considered a substantial interest for interlocking directors?

a)

Stockholding exceeding 10% of outstanding capital stock

b)

Stockholding exceeding 20% of outstanding capital stock

c)

Stockholding exceeding 50% of outstanding capital stock

d)

Any stockholding at all

181.

Contracts between corporations with interlocking directors may be invalidated solely on the ground of:

a)

Interlocking directors

b)

Nominal interest

c)

Substantial interest

d)

Fraud

182.

The fairness and reasonableness of a contract between corporations with interlocking directors:

a)

Is irrelevant

b)

Must be evaluated under the circumstances

c)

Can be waived if directors approve

d)

Requires SEC approval in all cases

183.

A director who acquires a business opportunity that should belong to the corporation:

a)

Can keep the profits if it was a personal risk

b)

Must account for and refund all profits to the corporation

c)

May keep the profits with board approval only

d)

Is immune if shareholders are unaware

184.

Profits obtained by a director to the prejudice of the corporation can be retained if:

a)

The director acted alone

b)

Ratified by a vote of stockholders owning or representing at least two-thirds (2/3) of outstanding capital stock

c)

The SEC approves it

d)

The director invested personal funds

185.

SEC. 33. Disloyalty of a Director. – Where a director, by virtue of such office, acquires a business opportunity which should belong to the corporation, thereby obtaining profits to the prejudice of such corporation, the director must account for and refund to the latter all such profits, unless the act has been ratified by a vote of the stockholders owning or representing at least two thirds (2/3) of the outstanding capital stock.
This provision applies even if:

a)

The corporation initially approved the venture

b)

The director risked personal funds in the venture

c)

The director informed the board in advance

d)

The director holds a minority share

186.

SEC. 33. Disloyalty of a Director. – Where a director, by virtue of such office, acquires a business opportunity which should belong to the corporation, thereby obtaining profits to the prejudice of such corporation, the director must account for and refund to the latter all such profits, unless the act has been ratified by a vote of the stockholders owning or representing at least two thirds (2/3) of the outstanding capital stock.
The primary purpose of this section is to:

a)

Encourage directors to invest personally

b)

Prevent directors from usurping corporate opportunities

c)

Allow directors to take risks freely

d)

Give the board discretion over personal ventures

187.

SEC. 33. Disloyalty of a Director. – Where a director, by virtue of such office, acquires a business opportunity which should belong to the corporation, thereby obtaining profits to the prejudice of such corporation, the director must account for and refund to the latter all such profits, unless the act has been ratified by a vote of the stockholders owning or representing at least two thirds (2/3) of the outstanding capital stock.
Ratification by stockholders requires approval of:

a)

Simple majority

b)

Two-thirds (2/3) of the outstanding capital stock

c)

The board of directors only

d)

Any interested stockholder

188.

The board may create an executive committee if:

a)

The SEC approves

b)

The bylaws so provide

c)

A majority of stockholders approve

d)

There is a quorum of directors

189.

The executive committee must be composed of at least:

a)

Two directors

b)

Three directors

c)

Four directors

d)

Five directors

190.

The executive committee may act on matters within the competence of the board except:

a)

Routine administrative matters

b)

Approval of actions requiring shareholders’ approval

c)

Supervision of delegated projects

d)

Recommendations on corporate policy

191.

Which of the following is not within the powers of the executive committee?

a)

Filling of vacancies in the board

b)

Oversight of day-to-day operations

c)

Monitoring delegated projects

d)

Implementing board-approved policies

192.

The executive committee may not amend or repeal:

a)

Bylaws

b)

Any resolution of the board which by its express terms is not amendable or repeatable

c)

Routine operational policies

d)

Delegated project approvals

193.

The board may create special committees that are:

a)

Only temporary

b)

Only permanent

c)

Temporary or permanent, with term, composition, powers, and compensation determined by the board

d)

Advisory only

194.

The executive committee may not approve:

a)

Distribution of cash dividends to shareholders

b)

Implementation of delegated projects

c)

Day-to-day management tasks

d)

Oversight of corporate functions

195.

Decisions of the executive committee are made by:

a)

Unanimous vote only

b)

Simple majority of all its members

c)

Board approval after every decision

d)

Approval of stockholders