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Applied Biotechnology Quiz

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary objective of upstream processing (USP) in a typical bioprocess?

a)

To purify and isolate the desired product from the fermentation broth.

b)

To sterilize the equipment and culture media to prevent contamination.

c)

To modify the product into its final, marketable form (e.g., tablet, vial).

d)

To genetically engineer the microorganism for higher yield.

2.

Which of the following technique is used to identify probable antibiotic producer?

a)

Dilution plate technique

b)

Crowded plate method

c)

Auxographic method.

d)

Enrichment culture medium.

3.

In which phase of a microbial growth curve within a batch bioreactor is the production of a secondary metabolite (like an antibiotic) most likely to be highest?

a)

Lag Phase

b)

Exponential (Log) Phase

c)

Stationary Phase

d)

Death Phase

4.

Downstream Processing (DSP) is often considered the most expensive part of a bioprocess. What is a major reason for this?

a)

The high cost of the nutrients in the growth media.

b)

The high energy required to agitate large bioreactors.

c)

The need for multiple, complex steps to purify a often dilute product from a complex mixture.

d)

The long time required for the microorganisms to grow.

5.

Which of the following is an example of an indicator medium

a)

Nutrient agar

b)

MacConkey's agar

c)

Potato Dextrose agar

d)

MRS medium

6.

What is the primary function of the agitator (impeller) in a stirred-tank fermenter?

a)

To completely eliminate all foam formation.

b)

To maintain aseptic conditions by creating a positive pressure.

c)

To provide heat sterilization for the culture medium.

d)

To ensure efficient mixing and oxygen transfer throughout the broth.

7.

Strain improvement strategies are used for which of the following?

a)

Primary screening

b)

Secondary screening

c)

Optimization of process

d)

Noval strain

8.

A fermentation process is designed to produce a recombinant protein using E. coli. A key challenge the operators might face is:

a)

The organism growing too slowly due to a lack of complex nutrients.

b)

The formation of inclusion bodies within the cells.

c)

The product being degraded too quickly during the exponential growth phase.

d)

Excessive ethanol production inhibiting cell growth.

9.

Why is "oxygen transfer rate (OTR)" a critical parameter to monitor and control in an aerobic fermentation?

a)

Because oxygen is a highly toxic compound for most microorganisms.

b)

Because it is the primary energy source, replacing glucose in the metabolic pathway.

c)

Because oxygen solubility in water is very low, making it the limiting factor for cell growth and productivity.

d)

Because it directly determines the pH of the fermentation broth.

10.

Which of the following is a technique to maintain culture for industrial use?

a)

Sub culturing

b)

Refrigeration

c)

Lyophilization

d)

Use of liquid nitrogen

11.

Which of the following is a primary pollutant?

a)

Ozone (O₃)

b)

Sulfuric Acid (H₂SO₄)

c)

Carbon Monoxide (CO)

d)

PAN (Peroxyacyl nitrates)

12.

The phenomenon of Eutrophication is primarily caused by an excess of which pollutants?

a)

Heavy metals like lead and mercury

b)

Biodegradable organic waste

c)

Nutrients like nitrates and phosphates

d)

Oil and petroleum hydrocarbons

13.

What is the primary environmental concern associated with the release of Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)?

a)

Depletion of the Ozone Layer

b)

Acid Rain

c)

Global Warming

d)

Photochemical Smog

14.

BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) is a standard measure used for which of the following?

a)

To measure the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.

b)

To measure the rate at which a sample of water can consume oxygen through the chemical oxidation of inorganic matter.

c)

To measure the rate at which a sample of water can consume oxygen through the biological decomposition of organic matter.

d)

To measure the concentration of carbon dioxide emitted by industries.

15.

Which type of pollution is characterized by the presence of undesirable, unwanted, or excessive sound that can have adverse effects on human health and wildlife?

a)

Thermal Pollution

b)

Radioactive Pollution

c)

Noise Pollution

d)

Light Pollution

16.

What is the primary mode of action of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) as a biopesticide?

a)

It parasitizes the insect larvae, consuming them from the inside.

b)

It produces crystalline (Cry) proteins that bind to insect gut receptors, causing cell lysis and death.

c)

It acts as a repellent, keeping insects away from the treated crop.

d)

It competes with pathogenic fungi for space and nutrients on the leaf surface.

17.

Which of the following is a key advantage of using neem-based biopesticides?

a)

They provide immediate knockdown of all insect pests upon contact.

b)

They have a very broad-spectrum of activity, similar to synthetic pesticides.

c)

They exhibit multiple modes of action (antifeedant, repellent, growth regulator) and are biodegradable.

d)

They are highly systemic and are translocated to all parts of the plant, including the fruit.

18.

The fungus Trichoderma harzianum is widely used as a biopesticide primarily for controlling:

a)

Lepidopteran insect pests like caterpillars.

b)

Bacterial blights in plants.

c)

Soil-borne fungal plant pathogens.

d)

Weeds in agricultural fields.

19.

Which category of biopesticides includes products based on pheromones?

a)

Biochemical Pesticides

b)

Microbial Pesticides

c)

Plant-Incorporated Protectants (PIPs)

d)

Botanical Pesticides

20.

The presence of high levels of coliform bacteria in a water sample is primarily an indicator of:

a)

Hard water due to dissolved calcium and magnesium.

b)

Chemical pollution from industrial waste.

c)

Fecal contamination and the potential presence of pathogenic organisms.

d)

High nutrient load leading to eutrophication.

21.

Nephlometry and Turbidimetry are analytical techniques primarily used to measure:

a)

Acidity

b)

Turbidity

c)

Conductivity

d)

Heavy metal concentration

22.

A water sample with a pH of 4.5 would be classified as:

a)

Alkaline

b)

Neutral

c)

Acidic

d)

Hard

23.

Why is public awareness critical for effective water quality management?

a)

It allows the public to take over official monitoring responsibilities from the government.

b)

It reduces the overall cost of advanced water treatment technologies.

c)

It empowers communities to participate in protection, report issues, and adopt water-friendly practices.

d)

It is primarily for promoting the sale of home water testing kits.

24.

Which of the following is an example of a citizen science initiative for water quality awareness?

a)

Government agencies installing automated water monitoring stations.

b)

A community group being trained to measure stream turbidity and pH monthly.

c)

A company launching a new brand of bottled water.

d)

A university conducting confidential research on industrial effluent.

25.

What is a primary benefit of making water quality assessment data publicly available and easy to understand?

a)

It guarantees that all water bodies will immediately meet quality standards.

b)

It creates transparency, builds trust, and allows individuals to make informed decisions about water use.

c)

It eliminates the need for regulatory enforcement against polluters.

d)

It is only useful for scientists and researchers.

26.

An effective public awareness program on water quality should focus on:

a)

Using highly technical jargon to ensure scientific accuracy.

b)

Placing the sole responsibility for water protection on large industries.

c)

Clear messaging that connects individual actions to community water health.

d)

Avoiding discussion of problems to prevent public alarm.

27.

Reverse Osmosis (RO) is a treatment technology that is most effective at removing:

a)

Large suspended solids and silt.

b)

A very wide range of contaminants, including dissolved salts, ions, and organic molecules.

c)

Volatile organic compounds (VOCs) through aeration.

d)

Pathogenic bacteria through size exclusion alone.

28.

The primary purpose of adding activated carbon to water during the treatment process is to:

a)

Remove pathogenic bacteria and viruses through adsorption.

b)

Reduce color, odor, and remove organic contaminants through adsorption.

c)

Coagulate and flocculate suspended particles.

d)

Adjust the alkalinity of the water to stabilize pH.

29.

What is the main goal of the "post-chlorination" step in a conventional water treatment plant?

a)

To oxidize iron and manganese for easier removal.

b)

To provide a disinfectant residual that persists in the water distribution system.

c)

To aid in the coagulation process by adjusting water chemistry.

d)

To remove ammonia by forming chloramines.

30.

What is the primary goal of primary screening in microbiology?

a)

To genetically engineer the most promising microbial strain for higher yield.

b)

To identify and isolate a wide range of microbes that possess a desired property or produce a desired product.

c)

To optimize the fermentation conditions for a single, already isolated pure culture.

d)

To conduct a detailed biochemical and genetic analysis of a single microbial metabolite.