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EMS103 CHAP 37-41

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the best course of action for the EMT to take when caring for a patient with an AICD who goes into cardiac arrest?

a)

No action beyond transport is required because the patient already has an implanted defibrillator.

b)

CPR should be started, but the AED should not be used while on-scene or transporting the patient.

c)

The AED should be applied and used, but CPR should not be started while on-scene or transporting the patient.

d)

CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient.

2.

Which of the following is not a role of dialysis in a renal failure patient?

a)

Stimulate blood cell production

b)

Filter and detoxify the blood

c)

Remove waste from the body

d)

Remove fluid from the body

3.

Chloe was born with a cardiac problem that she will have to manage the rest of her life. This disease is considered to be:

a)

genetic.

b)

autoimmune.

c)

congenital.

d)

acquired.

4.

At which of the following locations is an EMT likely to encounter a patient using an advanced medical device?

a)

Nursing home

b)

Private residence

c)

Specialty care facilities

d)

All of the above

5.

While on the scene of an emergency call involving a patient who is dependent upon a medical device for survival, the EMT can ask which of the following individuals about the specifics of the device?

a)

Patient

b)

Patient's home health aide or nurse

c)

Patient's family

d)

All of the above

6.

Bariatrics is defined as the branch of medicine that deals with the cause, prevention, and treatment of which of the following diseases?

a)

Obesity

b)

Sleep apnea

c)

Diabetes

d)

Blindness

7.

Which of the following best describes a disease such as deafness?

a)

Acquired disease

b)

Congenital disease

c)

Either a congenital or acquired disease

d)

Neither a congenital nor acquired disease

8.

Which of the following is the correct position to use when transporting a patient who has a tracheostomy tube?

a)

Head slightly elevated

b)

Prone

c)

Supine

d)

Shock position

9.

You are on the scene of a home ventilator patient whose ventilator has experienced a mechanical failure. The patient is conscious and you have taken over the function of the ventilator with a bag-valve mask. As an EMT, you should verify the patient's comfort level for which of the following?

a)

Ventilation volume

b)

Ventilation rate

c)

Ventilation pressure

d)

All of the above

10.

Obesity increases the risk for which of the following health problems?

a)

Type 2 diabetes

b)

Liver disease

c)

Respiratory problems

d)

All of the above

11.

A patient uses a home ventilator connected to his tracheostomy tube to breathe. Which of the following is the correct procedure to use when moving this patient to the ambulance?

a)

Do nothing; there is no need to ventilate the patient between the house and the ambulance.

b)

Ventilate the patient with mouth-to-mask ventilations at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.

c)

Ventilate the patient's tracheostomy tube via a connected bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.

d)

Ventilate the patient's nose and mouth with a bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.

12.

Which of the following refers to a condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living?

a)

Disability

b)

Terminal

c)

Handicapped

d)

Disabled

13.

Which of the following serious health problems is related to homelessness?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Heart disease

d)

Liver disease

14.

Which of the following statements is true regarding abuse and neglect of adults and elders with special needs?

a)

Sexual abuse is never seen among elder patients with special needs.

b)

The signs of abuse and neglect in adult and elder patients are easy to spot.

c)

Signs of hunger and malnourishment are common signs of neglect.

d)

Caregivers rarely interfere with assessment, treatment, or transport of patients.

15.

Which of the following is a characteristic of child abusers of special need patients?

a)

They usually want the child's injuries treated.

b)

Alcohol and drug abuse are uncommon.

c)

They usually identify with the child's pain and suffering.

d)

They may be inappropriately unconcerned about the child.

16.

Which of the following is true in regard to touching a patient who is being shocked with an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)?

a)

The EMT will feel the shock, but it is not very painful.

b)

It depends on the AICD model as to whether or not the EMT can feel the shock.

c)

The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient.

d)

The EMT will feel the shock, and it is very dangerous to the EMT.

17.

Which of the following best describes the origins of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

a)

Congenital disease

b)

Acquired disease

c)

Either a congenital or acquired disease

d)

Neither a congenital nor acquired disease

18.

You are transporting a resident of a nursing home to the hospital for a complaint of abdominal pain that has lasted for 3 days. During your assessment, you note a tube protruding from the patient's nose, which is connected to a bag of milky-white fluid. This tube is known as a(n):

a)

J-tube

b)

Nasogastric tube

c)

Endotracheal tube

d)

Gastric tube

19.

During transport, where should the catheter bag be after loading the patient and stretcher into the ambulance if the patient has an indwelling urinary catheter?

a)

Lower than the patient, but not on the floor

b)

In the patient's lap, but not higher than his heart

c)

On the ambulance floor

d)

Hanging from the ceiling of the ambulance or IV pole higher than the patient

20.

Which of the following situations are frequently problematic for patients who have tracheostomy tubes?

a)

Air embolism

b)

Tracheal tears

c)

Mucus buildup

d)

Tube malplacement

21.

Regarding the use of emergency sirens, which of the following is false?

a)

The sound of the siren may increase the patient's anxiety.

b)

Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise.

c)

EMTs should assume that other drivers cannot hear the siren.

d)

Dense shrubbery may block the sound of the siren.

22.

Regarding ambulance warning devices, which of the following statements is not true?

a)

The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately.

b)

In most states it is illegal to drive at night with only one headlight.

c)

Four-way flashers should not be used as emergency lights.

d)

It is a good idea for the light package of the ambulance to combine several types of lights.

23.

A patient-carrying device should have at least _______ straps to hold the patient securely.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

24.

Which of the following contributes most significantly to the occurrence of ambulance crashes?

a)

Size of the vehicle

b)

Speed of the vehicle

c)

Time of day

d)

Weather conditions

25.

Tests have shown that _______ ambulance operators tend to speed up by 10 to 15 miles per hour when the siren is sounding.

a)

Inexperienced

b)

Privately employed

c)

Experienced

d)

All

26.

While staffing an emergency services dispatch center, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) receives a call from someone who is very upset and screaming that her friend was just shot. Which of the following does the EMD need to do in this situation?

a)

Provide the caller with information about local hospitals.

b)

Determine the location of the shooter.

c)

Ask the caller for her phone number.

d)

Notify the victim’s family of the incident.

27.

When arriving as the first unit at the location of a motor vehicle collision on an interstate highway, you should position the ambulance so that:

a)

you are nearest to the command post for easy communications with the incident commander.

b)

it is at the bottom of the nearest on-ramp.

c)

it is between the damaged vehicles.

d)

the crash is blocked by traffic with your vehicle as a barrier.

28.

Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as driving:

a)

defensively.

b)

with due regard.

c)

with emergency privilege.

d)

as a public servant.

29.

Which phase of an ambulance call is characterized by receiving a report from the off-going shift and checking the functionality of equipment?

a)

Transferring the patient to the ambulance

b)

Terminating the call

c)

Preparing for the ambulance call

d)

Receiving and responding to a call

30.

The process of combining the patient and patient-carrying device into a unit ready for moving and transporting the patient is called:

a)

immobilizing.

b)

loading.

c)

packaging.

d)

wrapping.

31.

Which of the following operational reasons warrant the use of helicopter transport from the scene to a medical facility?

a)

The distance to the medical facility is 15 minutes away.

b)

The patient may go into shock shortly.

c)

The patient is located in a remote area.

d)

The patient is in cardiac arrest.

32.

Which of the following is the correct order of operations when transferring a stable patient from his or her house to the ambulance?

a)

Select the proper patient-carrying device, package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.

b)

Package the patient for transport, select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.

c)

Package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, select the proper patient-carrying device, and load the patient into the ambulance.

d)

Select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, package the patient for transport, and load the patient into the ambulance.

33.

When heading back to quarters, on what should you place your emphasis?

a)

Refueling the ambulance for the next call

b)

Returning safely

c)

Reorganizing the ambulance

d)

Documenting the call

34.

Full immobilization of a trauma patient, including placing a cervical collar and securing the patient to a backboard, should take place at which of the following points in time?

a)

After checking for cervical range of motion

b)

Before the primary assessment

c)

Before moving the patient to the ambulance

d)

En route to the hospital

35.

At which point should you complete your prehospital care report (PCR)?

a)

At the end of your shift

b)

En route to the hospital

c)

As soon as you are free from patient duties

d)

As soon as you arrive at the hospital

36.

Which of the following is optional equipment?

a)

Infant oxygen masks

b)

Disinfectant solution

c)

Lubricating jelly

d)

Flashlights

37.

The medical acronym EMD stands for which of the following?

a)

Emergency Medical Dispatcher

b)

Emergency Medical Doctor

c)

Emergency Medical Driver

d)

Emergency Medical Director

38.

You are at the scene of a vehicle collision and have found that there is one patient who is in stable condition. At this point, the call can be categorized as:

a)

a non-incident.

b)

triaged.

c)

an unfounded call.

d)

no longer a true emergency.

39.

Police escorts of ambulances driving at emergency status are typically discouraged because:

a)

drivers who pull over for the police officer often pull back in front of the ambulance.

b)

police officers are not accustomed to driving an ambulance.

c)

there is no guarantee that the police officer knows where the call is located.

d)

ambulances do not move as fast as police cruisers.

40.

Which of the following fluids is not checked by an EMT?

a)

Oil

b)

Transmission

c)

Coolant

d)

Hydraulic

41.

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #4 is a 13-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 8, pulse 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose.

a)

Priority 4, black tag

b)

Priority 3, green tag

c)

Priority 1, red tag

d)

Priority 2, yellow tag

42.

When several agencies work independently but cooperatively, rather than one agency exercising control over the others, this is called:

a)

ICS.

b)

NIMS.

c)

single incident command.

d)

unified command.

43.

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #5 is a 17-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 18, pulse 104, alert, crying, and wanting his mother; he is ambulatory.

a)

Priority 2, yellow tag

b)

Priority 4, black tag

c)

Priority 3, green tag

d)

Priority 1, red tag

44.

You are on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage officer, you have encountered a 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal stimuli, and he has an open airway, shallow rapid breathing, and a weak, rapid carotid pulse. What Priority would this patient be classified as for treatment and transport?

a)

Priority 4

b)

Priority 3

c)

Priority 1

d)

Priority 2

45.

Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-casualty incident who has no pulse is deemed a ________ patient.

a)

Priority 0

b)

Priority 1

c)

Priority 2

d)

Priority 3

46.

Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency?

a)

Rehabilitating the HAZMAT team

b)

Treating injured patients

c)

Staying in the cold zone

d)

Decontaminating injured victims

47.

Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-casualty incident who is alert and able to walk is deemed a ________ patient.

a)

Priority 0

b)

Priority 1

c)

Priority 2

d)

Priority 3

48.

Which of the following is not a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials?

a)

Disinfection

b)

Emulsification

c)

Deodorization

d)

Disposal

49.

Eduardo is an EMT for a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum. What is Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training?

a)

Hazardous Materials Technician

b)

Hazardous Materials Specialist

c)

First Responder Awareness

d)

First Responder Operations

50.

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #1 is a 16-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 28, pulse 132, and altered mental status with cool clammy skin.

a)

Priority 1, red tag

b)

Priority 3, green tag

c)

Priority 4, black tag

d)

Priority 2, yellow tag

51.

You are just leaving the scene of a multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding communication?

a)

Have dispatch relay your patient reports to the receiving facility.

b)

Allow the transportation supervisor to notify the receiving facility.

c)

Notify the receiving facility by radio of the nature of the patients' injuries.

d)

Notify the receiving hospital by cellular phone of the nature of the patients' injuries.

52.

You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do first?

a)

Identify all Priority 1 patients.

b)

Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building.

c)

Do a quick pulse check on all patients at the scene.

d)

Check the airway status of all patients who do not appear to be moving.

53.

Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident Command?

a)

The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene.

b)

Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations.

c)

Command is most effective when one person is responsible for no more than seven other people.

d)

None of the above

54.

When transporting patients from the scene of a mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving hospital?

a)

Incident commander

b)

Triage officer

c)

Transportation supervisor

d)

Transporting EMT

55.

To respond to a hazardous materials incident, the EMT should be trained at which level?

a)

Awareness

b)

Technician

c)

Operations

d)

Specialist

56.

You are on the scene of a riot following a decision in a controversial court case. A large group of people have set fire to vehicles, broken windows, and assaulted people in the area. Which of the following would be the best method of incident command?

a)

Single incident command by fire service

b)

Single incident command by law enforcement

c)

Single incident command by EMS

d)

Unified command by police, fire, and EMS

57.

Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the "safe or cold zone" in a hazardous materials incident?

a)

Upwind, uphill from the spill

b)

Downwind, downhill from the spill

c)

Upwind, on the same level as the spill

d)

Downwind, uphill from the spill

58.

________ is the response agency, established in Washington, DC, as a service of the Chemical Manufacturers Association that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material.

a)

CHEMTREC

b)

OSHA

c)

ERG

d)

EPA

59.

Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed to, and contaminated by, a hazardous material?

a)

Placing towels on the floor of the ambulance to soak up contaminated runoff water

b)

Wearing heavy cloth gloves

c)

Wearing a gown, mask, and goggles to prevent secondary contamination

d)

Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood pressure cuffs and backboards

60.

In which of the following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?

a)

Warm zone

b)

Hot zone

c)

Ground zero

d)

Cold zone

61.

When controlling the scene of an emergency involving damaged power poles and downed electrical wires, the EMT must remember to:

a)

Render the scene safe before entering the danger zone.

b)

Use double-thickness gloves to insulate the body from electrocution.

c)

Use nonconductive implements to make a safe path to victims.

d)

Request appropriate personnel to cut the power source.

62.

You are on the scene of a vehicle collision involving a downed power line. You are walking in an area you feel is a safe distance from the line and begin to feel a tingling sensation in your feet. Which of the following would be a proper method of ensuring your safety while exiting the area?

a)

Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and hop to a safe place on one foot.

b)

Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area.

c)

Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and quickly run to a safe location.

d)

Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area.

63.

Which of the following is not a phase of the extrication process?

a)

Terminating the rescue

b)

Gaining access to the patient

c)

Disentanglement

d)

Simplification

64.

Which of the following is the most common type of rescue across the United States?

a)

Farm rescue

b)

Hazardous materials response

c)

Water rescue

d)

Vehicle rescue

65.

On arrival at a vehicle collision, you observe a small fire in the engine compartment. A bystander is attempting to smother the fire with a jacket as you approach with an A-B-C extinguisher from your ambulance. Which of the following is the best method of extinguishing the fire?

a)

Sweep the nozzle of the extinguisher left and right using short bursts until you are out of extinguishing agent.

b)

Aim the nozzle to the side of the fire and, with a sweeping motion, push the fire at its base.

c)

Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out.

d)

Close the hood to contain the fire within the engine compartment.

66.

Which of the following steps of extrication comes before the other three steps?

a)

Preparing for the rescue

b)

Recognizing and managing hazards

c)

Gaining access to the patient

d)

Sizing up the situation

67.

Which of the following can serve as appropriate eye protection for an EMT on the scene of an extrication?

a)

Prescription eyeglasses

b)

Plastic face shield of the type used for Standard Precautions

c)

Face conforming goggles

d)

Shield of a Firefighter's helmet

68.

Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision?

a)

It is stable if the transmission is in 'Park' or the parking brake is on.

b)

It is stable if it is upright on all four wheels.

c)

It is stable if the ignition is turned off.

d)

It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel.

69.

Which of the following should be used to protect a patient during extrication?

a)

Plastic blanket

b)

Goggles

c)

Netting

d)

None of the above

70.

When disconnecting a battery cable to disrupt a vehicle's electrical system, the EMT should disconnect the:

a)

negative cable from the alternator.

b)

negative cable from the battery.

c)

positive cable from the battery.

d)

positive cable from the alternator.

71.

You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are utility wires down around the vehicle. The three occupants appear dazed and other responding units have not yet arrived. Which of the following is the best course of action?

a)

Encourage the occupants to exit the vehicle by jumping free of the vehicle before touching the ground.

b)

Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle.

c)

Cool the wires with large amounts of water to prevent a fire from starting.

d)

Push the wires out of the way with a long pry-bar in order to access the patients.

72.

Which of the following is the first concern when you are caring for a patient who has been in a vehicle collision?

a)

Preserving evidence, such as alcohol beverage bottles and vehicle positioning

b)

Treating life-threatening injuries

c)

Your own safety

d)

Helping law enforcement get the driver's name and insurance information

73.

If you are first on scene, what should you do first in determining where and how you should park your apparatus?

a)

Use apparatus to institute 'downstream blocking' of the scene to protect the work area.

b)

Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking.

c)

Immediately park in the same direction and in single file.

d)

Provide downstream blocking if you are driving one of the larger units.

74.

You are managing a patient who is being extricated from a vehicle by a rescue crew using hydraulic tools. Which of the following items should you use in order to protect your patient during the extrication process?

a)

Aluminized rescue blanket to protect the patient from sharp edges

b)

Wool blanket to protect the patient from broken glass

c)

Short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient

d)

Oxygen mask to prevent inhalation of noxious fumes

75.

When responding to an emergency located on an interstate highway in a medium-duty ambulance, the vehicle should be positioned:

a)

in a safe location in the emergency lane of the interstate.

b)

to one side of the damaged vehicles for easy egress.

c)

across as many lanes as possible to block oncoming traffic.

d)

in the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line.

76.

Stabilizing a vehicle is unnecessary when a vehicle is on its roof with:

a)

the trunk lid in contact with the ground.

b)

the front edge of the hood in contact with the ground.

c)

the vehicle horizontal and resting entirely on the roof.

d)

all roof supports collapsed.

77.

Which of the following describes vehicle glass that is designed to break into small pieces rather than shattering into sharp fragments?

a)

Alloy glass

b)

Tempered glass

c)

Leaded glass

d)

Plexiglas

78.

When extrication will involve cutting the roof off a vehicle, stabilization of the vehicle should include:

a)

deflating all tires by slashing them.

b)

deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems.

c)

placing wheel chocks on both sides of all wheels.

d)

placing chocks on both sides of at least two wheels.

79.

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision involving a small pickup truck that struck the rear of a moving tractor-trailer. The driver of the tractor-trailer is walking around and complains of neck pain. The driver of the pickup truck is conscious but cannot exit the vehicle because the door is stuck and the steering wheel is displaced onto his lap. The passenger of the pickup truck is sitting upright in the passenger seat, is unconscious, but has radial pulses. Access to the passenger is not obstructed. A fourth patient, who was sitting in the pickup truck bed, is found about 10 feet away and responds to commands appropriately. Assuming your ambulance is the only emergency vehicle on the scene currently, which of the following patients should be packaged for transport first by the next arriving ambulance?

a)

Pickup truck driver

b)

Passenger in the pickup truck's front seat

c)

Passenger ejected from the pickup truck bed

d)

Tractor trailer driver

80.

Which of the following is a reason that the vehicle doors are removed to extricate the patient rather than pulling the patient through an open window?

a)

To allow a patient with life-threatening injuries to be removed quickly

b)

To avoid being cut by glass

c)

To make the interior of the vehicle less accessible

d)

To avoid criticism from bystanders

81.

You are on an ambulance responding to a mass-casualty incident at a shopping mall on a warm Saturday afternoon. En route, you listen to the incident commander broadcast information to dispatch and all inbound units about 20 patients complaining of respiratory difficulty and a burning sensation in their eyes. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of:

a)

the type of event.

b)

the timing of the event.

c)

on-scene warning signs.

d)

the location of the call.

82.

You arrive on the scene of an unknown emergency. As you scan the surrounding area, you notice a large number of people wearing unique armbands and shouting anti-government comments though you are not aware of any public gathering scheduled for today. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of:

a)

the type of event.

b)

the timing of the event.

c)

on-scene warning signs.

d)

the location of the call.

83.

Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known as:

a)

viruses.

b)

toxins.

c)

bacteria.

d)

biologics.

84.

A type of harm that you may be exposed to as an EMT responding to a terrorist incident that is characterized by posttraumatic stress and survivor guilt is typically called:

a)

psychological harm.

b)

radiologic harm.

c)

etiologic harm.

d)

thermal harm.

85.

The most common fatal primary injury from a blast is:

a)

a liver laceration.

b)

a lung injury.

c)

an extremity fracture.

d)

an impaled object.

86.

Which of the following is not generally recognized as a form of terrorist incident?

a)

Harassment

b)

Explosion

c)

Biologic weapons

d)

Industrial sabotage

87.

Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist violence?

a)

Function of the target

b)

Occurrence on the anniversary of a significant or symbolic historical event

c)

Number of people present

d)

All of the above

88.

Which body system is most likely to be affected by exposure to radiologic material?

a)

Integumentary system

b)

Urinary system

c)

Central nervous system

d)

Respiratory system

89.

A terrorist incident may have features in common with which of the following types of incidents?

a)

Mass casualty

b)

Infectious disease

c)

Hazardous materials

d)

All of the above

90.

Which of the following types of radiation emits the most powerful rays?

a)

Beta

b)

Delta

c)

Gamma

d)

Alpha

91.

Which of the following is a consideration when responding to a terrorist incident?

a)

Crime scene considerations

b)

Presence of booby traps such as secondary explosive devices

c)

Presence of mass casualties

d)

All of the above

92.

Biologic warfare is most effective when the agent can gain access through which of the following routes?

a)

Gastrointestinal tract

b)

Skin

c)

Respiratory tract

d)

Blood

93.

You are on the scene of a blast from an incendiary device. You notice that several patients are walking around with minor injuries, but they do not respond when you ask the 'walking wounded' to follow you to a specific location for treatment. What should you do?

a)

Start checking vital signs and tagging each patient.

b)

Ignore them and start treating other patients.

c)

Use signs to give directions.

d)

Speak louder.

94.

Concerning the threat of nuclear devices used in terrorist attacks, which of the following is most likely to be used in such an attack?

a)

Improvised nuclear weapon

b)

Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research

c)

Radiologic dispersal device

d)

Military nuclear device

95.

Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the cells?

a)

Blister agents

b)

Nerve agents

c)

Cyanide

d)

All of the above

96.

The type of radiation that requires lead shielding for your protection is:

a)

gamma.

b)

delta.

c)

alpha.

d)

beta.

97.

The best way for a terrorist to weaponize and disseminate a chemical nerve agent to expose a large number of people would be to:

a)

throw a paper bag loaded with nerve agent onto a busy subway train.

b)

steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolize the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision.

c)

put it in a paper bag in a crowded mall and puncture the bag with a stick.

d)

throw a Molotov cocktail loaded with nerve agent into a windshield of a passenger bus.

98.

Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist attacks?

a)

High infectivity

b)

Low potency

c)

Instability

d)

Low virulence

99.

Which two types of terrorism does the Federal Bureau of Investigation define as occurring in the United States?

a)

Domestic and international

b)

Violence and intimidation

c)

Psychological and economic

d)

Chemical and biologic

100.

Which of the following is a common complication for patients with tracheostomy tubes during transport?

a)

Allergic reaction

b)

Broken bones

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Tube dislodgement