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Worksheets

III. A400M Airframe & AC System Lv 2 & 3 Pt I & 2

Total questions: 152

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main material of the Crew Entrance Door?

a)

Composite

b)

Titanium

c)

Steel

d)

Aluminum

2.

How are the Paratroop Doors (PTD) operated?

a)

They are mechanically operated.

b)

They are controlled electronically.

c)

They are opened by two electrical motors.

d)

They are hydraulically-operated.

3.

The Cargo Door is secured in the closed position by means of hydraulically-operated Cargo Door Down Latch/Lock Actuators (CDDLA) and in the open position by Cargo Door Up Latches (CDUL), how many CDDL and CDUL are there?

a)

Four CDDL and two CDUL

b)

Two CDDL and two CDUL

c)

Four CDDL and one CDUL

d)

Eight CDDL and four CDUL

4.

Which are the three metallic materials most commonly used in the A400M structure?

a)

Inconel, titanium and steel

b)

Aluminum, bronze and steel.

c)

Titanium, nickel and brass.

d)

Aluminum, titanium and steel.

5.

What flight control surfaces are attached to each wing?

a)

2 ailerons, 1 flap and 5 spoilers.

b)

1 aileron, 2 flaps and 5 spoilers.

c)

1 aileron, 1 flap and 4 spoilers.

d)

2 ailerons, 2 flaps, and 4 spoilers.

6.

What materials are primarily used in the construction of the wing Fixed Leading Edge (FLE) components?

a)

CFRP (Carbon Fiber Reinforced-Plastic) and aluminum.

b)

Steel and titanium.

c)

Rubber and aluminum.

d)

Wood and fabric.

7.

Which engine has a tapping from the High Pressure (HP) port duct to the Reservoir Pressurization Units (RPUs) to ensure hydraulic reservoir pressurization?

a)

Engine 1

b)

Engine 2

c)

Engine 3

d)

Engine 4

8.

What is the function of the Precooler heat Exchanger (PCE) in the Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS)?

a)

To provide ram air to the Engine Compressors.

b)

To increase the flow through the Engine Bleed Air System

c)

To achieve a suitable pressure for downstream user systems.

d)

To regulate the bleed air temperature.

9.

What divides the wing pneumatic manifold into Right Hand (RH) and Left Hand (LH) parts?

a)

High Pressure Ground Connector (HPGC).

b)

Cross Bleed Valve (XBV).

c)

Bleed Control Valve (BCV).

d)

High Pressure Shut Off Valve (HPSOV).

10.

Where are the On-board Oxygen Generation System (OBOGS) and On-board Inert Gas Generation System (OBIGGS) pre-conditioning subsystem components located?

a)

In the upper avionics bay.

b)

In the wing leading edges, close to the outboard engines.

c)

On the forward Wing-to-Fuselage Fairing (WFF).

d)

On the forward part of the sponsons.

11.

What are the four functions performed by the Bleed Air Leak Detection System (BALDS) to protect the aircraft against potential hot air leaks in the pneumatic system ducts?

a)

Detection, warning, reaction and leak location.

b)

Detection, warning, pre-condition and supply.

c)

Detection, temperature control, monitoring and isolation.

d)

Detection, reaction, pre-condition and bleed switching.

12.

What BITE systems are associated with ATA 36?

a)

PNU

b)

ENG

c)

APU

d)

NAV

13.

Where is the Air Control Panel located?

a)

On the forward central part of the overhead panel.

b)

On the rear central part of pedestal

c)

On the main instrument panel.

d)

On the Loadmaster Workstation (LMWS).

14.

How many Trim Air Pressure Regulating Valves (TAPRVs) and Trim Air Valves (TAV) are there in the Temperature Control System (TCS), as mentioned in the text?

a)

One TAPRV and two TAVs

b)

Two TAPRVs and two TAVs

c)

Two TAPRVs and five TAVs

d)

Five TAPRVs and one TAV

15.

Where is the air extracted by the Recirculation Fans directed to?

a)

To the Mixing Chamber.

b)

To the Outflow Valves to help in the Cabin Pressure Control.

c)

To the Cargo Floor Heating System.

d)

To the flight deck and the Loadmaster Workstation (LMWS).

16.

How does the Vacuum Cleaner System work?

a)

Through a hydraulic suction motor.

b)

By the difference between cabin and external pressures.

c)

By using a mechanical pump.

d)

Through an electrical vacuum motor.

17.

Where is the Avionics Extraction Fan (AEXF) located?

a)

In the forward Wing Fuselage Fairing (WFF)

b)

In the Rear Pressure Bulkhead.

c)

In the Nose fuselage floor area under the floor lining.

d)

In the top fuselage, close to the mixing chamber.

18.

In the Cabin Pressure Control Panel, when the Mode SEMI AUTO is selected, what can be set manually by the crew?

a)

Target Cabin altitude and vertical speed.

b)

Cabin pressure and temperature.

c)

Outflow Valve (OFV) positions.

d)

The GPS (Global Positioning system) coordinates.

19.

In accordance with the Minimum Equipment List (MEL), what is the permitted condition for flying with one Nacelle Anti Ice Pressure Regulating Valve (NAIPRV) deactivated?

a)

The affected NAIPRV must be deactivated in the open position

b)

The affected NAIPRV must be deactivated in the closed position

c)

All four NAIPRV must be deactivated in the open position

d)

All four NAIPRV must be deactivated in the closed position

20.

What do Icing Conditions Detectors (ICD) sense in the atmosphere surrounding the aircraft?

a)

Temperature of critical surfaces

b)

Airflow perturbation

c)

Water in the atmosphere

d)

Total air pressure

21.

Where does the hot engine bleed air come from for the Wing Anti Ice system?

a)

Pneumatic Air Distribution System (PADS)

b)

Air Conditioning Packs

c)

Air Distribution Temperature Control System

d)

Cabin Pressurization System

22.

How are the Wing Anti Ice Valves (WAIV) selected and actuated?

a)

Mechanically

b)

Hydraulically

c)

Electrically and pneumatically

d)

Manually

23.

Regarding the Cockpit Windows Anti-ice and defogging system, where is the heating film positioned for the lateral windows?

a)

On the external face of the glass ply

b)

The lateral windows have not any heating films.

c)

On both, internal and external faces.

d)

On the internal face of the outer glass ply.

24.

How many heating power levels are available for windshield ice protection?

a)

One, FULL heating level.

b)

Two, HALF and FULL heating levels.

c)

Three, LOW, MEDIUM and FULL heating levels.

d)

Four. HALF, FULL, SLOW and FAST heating levels.

25.

What action does the Anti Ice Control Unit (AICU) take in the event of an overheating condition on one window?

a)

Increases the power supply to the window

b)

Switches off the power supply to the window

c)

Activates another sensor

d)

Activates the backup heating film.

26.

Where can the oxygen cylinder assemblies be refilled from?

a)

Multiple external filling ports

b)

A single external filling port on the right-hand forward fuselage

c)

A single external filling port on the left-hand forward fuselage

d)

A single internal filling port on the Load Master Work Station (LMWS)

27.

What does the Oxygen Distribution Subsystem supply to the Full-Face Quick Donning Masks (FFQDMs)?

a)

Pure oxygen only from the oxygen cylinders.

b)

Oxygen Enriched Air (OEA) only from the OBOGS

c)

Both pure oxygen and Oxygen Enriched Air (OEA)

d)

Nitrogen Enriched Air (NEA)

28.

How many different regulator demand positions has a Full Face Quick Donning Mask (FFQDM)?

a)

Normal, 100% and EMERgency

b)

Normal, TEST and EMERgency

c)

Supply, TEST and FLOW

d)

EMERgency only

29.

What does the pressure value displayed on the external oxygen filling panel indicate?

a)

The highest pressure among the four cylinders.

b)

The lowest pressure among the four cylinders.

c)

The average pressure of the four cylinders.

d)

The instantaneous pressure in one of the four cylinders.

30.

During the Oxygen High Pressure Bottles Servicing, what is the required status of the aircraft's electrical power system?

a)

The electrical power system must be de-energized to avoid sparks during the replenishment.

b)

The electrical power system must be energized.

c)

The electrical power system must be in emergency mode.

d)

The electrical power system must be on auxiliary power.

31.

How many loops are there in the APU fire detection system, and how are they connected to the Fire Detection Unit (FDU) channels?

a)

Two loops, both connected to FDU channel A

b)

A single loop connected to FDU channel A

c)

Three loops, all connected to FDU channel B

d)

Two loops, one connected to FDU channel A and the other to channel B

32.

Which of the following actions occurs as a result of pushing the ENG FIRE pushbutton?

a)

Opening the X Bleed Valve (XBV).

b)

Disconnecting the air conditioning pack of the affected side.

c)

Opening the hydraulic Fire Shut Off Valve (FSOV).

d)

Providing power to the Variable Frequency Generator (VFG).

33.

What happens when you push and hold the Push to Test (PTT) button of the Temperature Compensated Pressure Switch (TCPS) in relation to the engine fire extinguishing bottle?

a)

The AGENT pushbuttons turn red

b)

The AGENT pushbuttons turn green

c)

The AGENT pushbuttons illuminate in amber

d)

The AGENT pushbuttons remain unchanged

34.

How is the water level in the forward water tank indicated?

a)

Using a digital display

b)

With a measuring rod

c)

Via four visual level indication glasses with integrated rotary flaps

d)

It is indicated in the Water System Display on the Load Master Work Station (LMWS)

35.

What is the purpose of the manually operated shut-off valve under the washbasins?

a)

To prevent drainage during normal operation

b)

To regulate water temperature

c)

To control water flow to the urinals

d)

To isolate the faucet from the water system during maintenance

36.

How can the forward water tank be filled?

a)

Only from the gravity filling port of the tank

b)

Only from the fill/drain port on the service panel

c)

Both from the gravity filling port and the fill/drain port on the service panel

d)

Automatically during operation

37.

How is the Forward Ditching Door (FDD) operated?

a)

It can be operated only from inside

b)

It can be operated only from outside

c)

It is a sliding door

d)

It can be operated from inside and outside the aircraft.

38.

How is the Ramp operated?

a)

By one hydraulic actuator.

b)

By two hydraulic actuators.

c)

By two electrical actuators.

d)

By a ramp electrical winch

39.

What is the main material of the Cargo Door torsion box, frames and skin?

a)

Composite

b)

Titanium

c)

Steel

d)

Aluminum

40.

The vapor barrier is a reinforced fuel resistant rubber seal, where is the Vapor Barrier located?

a)

On the upper surface of the Center Wing Box (CWB).

b)

Inside the fuel tanks.

c)

On the lower surface of the Center Wing Box (CWB).

d)

Around the engines.

41.

How are nacelle cowlings and doors protected to prevent galvanic corrosion of the aluminum components in contact with them?

a)

A layer of Tedlar is applied to the inner surfaces of the cowlings and doors.

b)

A glass ply layer is applied to the inner surfaces of the cowlings and doors.

c)

A bronze mesh is embedded within the material of the cowlings and doors.

d)

A quartz protection layer is applied to the outer surfaces of the cowlings and doors.

42.

How Is the lightning strike protection achieved for the aileron?

a)

Through the use of CFRP (Carbon Fibre Reinforced Plastic) actuator fairings.

b)

By a total metallic structure.

c)

Via the bronze mesh in the upper and lower panels.

d)

By using carbon fiber sandwich skin panels.

43.

What is the main purpose of Engine Bleed Air during flight?

a)

To provide hydraulic power to the aircraft.

b)

To cool the Variable Frequency Generator (VFG).

c)

To supply pressurized air to the Pneumatic Air Distribution System (PADS).

d)

To regulate engine temperature.

44.

What is the purpose of the Bleed Pressure Regulating Shut-Off Valve (BPRSOV) in the Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS)?

a)

To switch between the Low-Pressure Port and the High-Pressure Port.

b)

To regulate engine temperature.

c)

To supply pressurized fuel to the fuel spray nozzles.

d)

To control bleed air pressure.

45.

Which Engine Bleed Sources are connected to the Right Hand (RH) pneumatic manifold?

a)

EBAS 1, EBAS 2, APU Bleed and the High-Pressure Ground Unit (HPGU)

b)

EBAS 3, EBAS 4, APU Bleed and the High-Pressure Ground Unit (HPGU)

c)

EBAS 2 and EBAS 3.

d)

APU Bleed only

46.

Which of the following functions is NOT carried out by the Bleed Air Leak Detection System (BALDS)?

a)

Detection of overheat conditions.

b)

Warning the crew and other systems.

c)

Providing hot air for the aircraft's heating system.

d)

Locating the source of the leak for maintenance purposes.

47.

What potential issues can arise from Bleed Air Leakage Detection System (BALDS) Installation problems?

a)

Electrical malfunctions

b)

Structural damage from undetected vibrations.

c)

Hot air leakage not detected

d)

Engine Flame Out

48.

Regarding the Bleed Air Leakage Detection System (BALDS) sensors inspections, which one of the following it is NOT included in the required inspections to perform?

a)

Check sensor element alignment with the vent holes in the blanket and the duct.

b)

Check that sensor elements are installed with compensation loops.

c)

Check that sensor element connectors are properly lock wired

d)

Check that all sensors have the same length.

49.

What are the primary controls provided by the Air Control Panel for the Air Conditioning System?

a)

Temperature and humidity regulation.

b)

Control of the quantity of air flow and pack operation.

c)

Cabin Pressure Control.

d)

Cabin Altitude and Vertical Speed Regulation.

50.

What is the air flow rate for the "ECON (economic)" pack flow setting?

a)

100% of normal flow.

b)

127% of normal flow.

c)

85% of normal flow.

d)

72.5% of normal flow.

51.

In what situation would the Overboard Valve (OBV) be partially opened?

a)

On the ground

b)

To operate the vacuum cleaner.

c)

If the Avionics Extraction Fan (AEXF) fails in flight.

d)

To cool the Flight Deck at Low Level Flight.

52.

What is the primary purpose of the Avionics Extraction Fan (AEXF)?

a)

To cool the cargo hold floor.

b)

To extract warm air from the avionic racks.

c)

To provide mixed air to the mixing chamber

d)

To supply fresh air to the Flight Deck.

53.

How are the Outflow Valves (OFVs) driven in the Pressurization Subsystem in AUTO mode?

a)

Hydraulically.

b)

Mechanically.

c)

Electrically.

d)

Manually.

54.

Where are the Overpressure Relief Valve (ORV) and Negative Differential Pressure Relief Valve (NRV) located in the fuselage?

a)

In the Cockpit Floor.

b)

In the nose fuselage right hand skin

c)

In the Center Wing Box Rear Spar

d)

In the rear pressure bulkhead of the fuselage

55.

How long can the Wing Anti Ice System (WAIS) be operated on the ground with a Manual override facility for a system functionality check?

a)

The WAIS cannot be operated on the ground.

b)

There is not a time limitation.

c)

20 seconds maximum.

d)

30

56.

What happens automatically after the Wing Anti Ice Valve closes during the ground test?

a)

The valve is inhibited for 1 minute.

b)

The valve is inhibited for 30 minutes

c)

The valve remains closed until the next flight

d)

The valve remains open for an additional 30 minutes

57.

Where are the Icing Conditions Detectors (ICD) located on the aircraft?

a)

Lower part of the nose fuselage

b)

Upper part of the nose fuselage

c)

Wing surfaces

d)

Tail section

58.

What activates the Wing Anti Ice (WAI) system during 'Severe Icing' conditions?

a)

Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS)

b)

Anti Ice Control Unit 1 (AICU 1)

c)

Lagged distribution ducts

d)

Wing Anti-Ice Valve

59.

When is the Nacelle Anti Ice System (NAIS) limited in operation on the ground?

a)

When True Air Temperature is over 35 degrees C

b)

When True Air Temperature is below 0 degrees C

c)

The NAIS is NOT limited on the ground

d)

When all four engines are running

60.

What is the communication system between the Stationary Control Unit (SCU) and the Rotary Control Unit (RCU)?

a)

Fiber optic cables

b)

Ethernet cables

c)

Wireless communication

d)

Brush block and Slip Rings

61.

Regarding the Propeller De-Ice System (PDIS), which of the following is NOT a function of the Stationary Control Unit (SCU)?

a)

Heating time calculation

b)

Cycle control

c)

Electrical power transfer to the Rotary Control Unit (RCU)

d)

Ice detection

62.

How many fixed points receive therapeutic oxygen during MEDEVAC operations in the cargo hold?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

6

d)

2

63.

What is the position of the Oxygen Crew Shut Off Valve (CSOV) in normal operation?

a)

CSOV is OPEN in flight and CLOSE when the Aircraft is parked.

b)

CSOV is CLOSE in flight and CLOSE when the Aircraft is parked.

c)

CSOV is CLOSE in flight and OPEN when the Aircraft is parked.

d)

CSOV is OPEN in flight and OPEN when the Aircraft is parked.

64.

How many manual PAX MASKS deployment pushbuttons are there?

a)

There are TWO, one on the Oxygen Control Panel and another one on the Load Master Work Station (LMWS).

b)

There is only ONE on the Oxygen Control Panel.

c)

There are THREE, two on the cockpit panels and another one on the Load Master Work Station (LMWS).

d)

There are FOUR, two on the cockpit panels, one on the Load Master Work Station (LMWS) and another one in the Load Master Control Panel (LMCP).

65.

During the Oxygen High Pressure Bottles Servicing, what condition must be met for the CREW SUPPLY pushbutton switch?

a)

It should be turned on (ON legend).

b)

It should be released (OFF legend).

c)

It should be set to AUTO mode.

d)

It should be in standby mode.

66.

During the Oxygen High Pressure Bottles Servicing, what is the maximum allowed increase in pressure during filling to ensure safety?

a)

1000 psi per minute.

b)

10 psi per minute.

c)

3000 psi per minute.

d)

300 psi per minute.

67.

Where are the smoke detectors located in lavatories?

a)

On the floor near the lavatory door

b)

On the wall next to the sink

c)

On the ceiling near the air extraction duct

d)

Above the waste bin

68.

After pushing the APU FIRE pushbutton, why is it recommended to wait for 10 seconds before pushing the AGENT pushbutton?

a)

To inform the Load master and the traffic controller about the APU FIRE.

b)

To allow the APU to decrease the ventilating air flow inside its compartment.

c)

To prevent accidental discharges.

d)

To confirm that the fire is completely extinguished.

69.

Once 'ATA 26' is selected on the Central Maintenance System (CMS) on the Aircraft Multipurpose Access Terminal (AMAT), what systems are shown as available for access?

a)

Fire Detection System (FDS) and Fire Extinguishing System (FES)

b)

Engine Fire Detection System (EFDS) and APU Fire Detection System (AFDS)

c)

Fire Protection System (FPS) and Smoke Detection System (SDS)

d)

Avionics Smoke Protection System (ASDS) and Cargo Smoke Protection System (CSPS)

70.

What is the purpose of the vent line connected to the toilet waste tank?

a)

To fill the tank with water

b)

To release wastewater from the tank

c)

To evacuate unpleasant odors from the tank to outside of the aircraft

d)

To pressurize the waste tank

71.

How is the waste tank level of the Recirculating Toilet Module indicated?

a)

Using a floating indicating device

b)

With a measuring rod

c)

Via four visual level indication glasses with integrated rotary flaps

d)

It is indicated in the Waste System Display on the Load Master Work Station (LMWS)

72.

How can the aft water tank be filled?

a)

Only from the gravity filling port of the tank

b)

Only from the fill/drain port on the service panel

c)

Both from the gravity filling port and the fill/drain port on the service panel

d)

Automatically during operation

73.

The A400M has two hydraulic circuits, blue and yellow that in normal working conditions:

a)

Operate alternatively, blue or yellow, not at the same time

b)

Are fully independent, without fluid exchange

c)

Operate simultaneously, with fluid and pressure exchange

d)

Have the same total volume of hydraulic fluid

74.

Where Is it possible to check the value of yellow reservoir air pressure?

a)

At the System Display hydraulic page in the cockpit

b)

At the left and right ground service panel

c)

At the left ground service panel

d)

At the right ground service panel

75.

On the ECAM Hydraulic System Display Page, which of the following indication is NOT available?

a)

The Fluid Level Reservoir Quantity Indication

b)

The Hydraulic System Management Unit (HSMU) status.

c)

Hydraulic Fire Shut Off Valve Indication

d)

Hydraulic reservoir air pressure low.

76.

Where is the blue reservoir filling panel located?

a)

At the left aft side of the sponson

b)

At the right aft side of the sponson

c)

At the left forward side of the sponson

d)

At the right forward side of the sponson

77.

Which computer deactivates the hydraulic Engine Driven Pump (EDP) by a depressurization function?

a)

Hydraulic System Management Unit (HSMU)

b)

None. This function can only be activated in manual mode

c)

Flight Control Computers

d)

Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC)

78.

Where is the Blue Hydraulic System Management Unit (HSMU) located?

a)

1000 VU

b)

1100 VU

c)

1200 VU

d)

1300 VU

79.

From where is it possible to refill the hydraulic fluid?

a)

From the blue/yellow hydraulic sampling valves

b)

From the right hydraulic Ground Service Panel

c)

From the reservoir manual drain valve

d)

From the left hydraulic Ground Service Panel

80.

What is the flight control master computer priority order?

a)

PRIM 1, PRIM 2, PRIM 3, SEC

b)

PRIM 1, PRIM 3, PRIM 2, SEC

c)

SEC, PRIM 1, PRIM 2, PRIM 3

d)

PRIM 3, PRIM 2, PRIM 1, SEC

81.

In which of the following flight control laws is the flight envelope protection NOT available?

a)

Normal Law

b)

Alternate 1 Law

c)

Alternate 2 Law

d)

Direct Law

82.

Related to the Power Control Unit (PCU) flap extension/retraction system, which of the following sentences is true?

a)

If the blue hydraulic pressure is lost, the PCU does not drive the flaps.

b)

The PCU consists of two identical hydraulic motors coupled by a differential gearbox.

c)

If the yellow hydraulic pressure is lost, the PCU does not drive the flaps.

d)

If both blue and yellow hydraulic pressure is lost, one electrical motor drive the flaps.

83.

How is the Power Control Unit (PCU) flap extension/retraction system controlled and monitored?

a)

The High Lift Control Computer (HLCC) 1 controls the blue PCU hydraulic motor and the (HLCC) 2 controls the yellow PCU hydraulic motor

b)

The Hydraulic System Management Units control the PCU.

c)

The Flight Control Computers control the PCU.

d)

Both HLCCs control the entire PCU.

84.

To check the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer Actuator (THSA) gearbox oil level,

a)

the THSA must be in the upper position.

b)

the THSA must be in the lower position.

c)

the THSA must be in the zero position.

d)

the THSA position is not important.

85.

What is required before enabling spoiler number 1 extension in maintenance mode?

a)

Pressurize the hydraulic blue system.

b)

Depressurize the accumulator of the EBHA (Electrical Backup Hydraulic Actuator).

c)

Pressurize the hydraulic yellow system.

d)

Depressurize the parking brake accumulator.

86.

In normal extension/retraction landing gear actuation, what computer gets feedback from landing gear proximity sensors?

a)

Remote Data Concentrator (RDC)

b)

CPIOM-Gs

c)

CPIOM-Fs

d)

Integrated Remote Data Concentrator (IRDC).

87.

What is the landing gear position when the landing gear position indicators lights are off?

a)

Landing gear locked up.

b)

Landing gear locked down.

c)

Landing gear unlocked.

d)

Landing gear in

88.

What happens if the Anti-Skid toggle switch is selected to OFF? (MG620502020a)

a)

The Alternate braking mode is selected.

b)

The Anti-skid is not available and the emergency braking mode is active.

c)

The Ultimate braking mode is selected.

d)

The only effect is that Anti-skid is not available.

89.

Which of the following conditions is required to arm the autobrake system? (MG620502070a)

a)

Emergency braking mode selected.

b)

Two primary flight control computers (PRIMs) are available.

c)

Two accelerometers are available.

d)

The WoW (Weight On Wheels) signal is present.

90.

If the Parking Brake lever is ON,

a)

The normal braking pressure is limited

b)

The alternate braking mode is available

c)

The braking pedals are unavailable

d)

The emergency braking mode is available

91.

How is the kneeling automatic reset function initiated? (MG620702010a)

a)

After the Landing Gear is extended.

b)

After landing.

c)

When the aircraft descent from cruise level.

d)

When the crew members press the reset pushbutton.

92.

What is the use of the kneeling manual lock valve?

a)

To kneel the aircraft in manual mode.

b)

To prevent the kneeling chamber movement.

c)

To ease an individual wheel or brake replacement.

d)

To lock the current kneeling aircraft position.

93.

Is it possible to check if the Crew Entrance Door is fully closed, latched and locked? (MG520202010b)

a)

No, because the locking mechanism has not any indications.

b)

Yes, in this case the Outer Door Handle is flush with the outer door surface.

c)

Yes, if not, an aural alert will sound.

d)

No, the only information will come through cargo hold pressurization.

94.

How can people be sure that there is no differential pressure before opening the Crew Entrance Door? (MGS20203010a)

a)

The external indicator is flashing red.

b)

The internal indicator is flashing red.

c)

Both inner and outer indicator lights are not illuminated.

d)

The external indicator light is flashing red but the inner indicator light is switched off.

95.

Which mechanism or system assists in Paratrooper Door opening and closing? (MG520302010a)

a)

Hydraulic pressure.

b)

Gas charged shock absorber.

c)

Spring loaded cable.

d)

Counterbalance system.

96.

What is the function of the ramp floating pushbutton? (MG520502010b)

a)

To increase the opening/closing ramp speed.

b)

To decrease the opening/closing ramp speed.

c)

To disengage the hydraulic locking of the ramp.

d)

To close the ramp when the aircraft is floating over the water after ditching.

97.

When is it possible to open the Air Deflectors? (MGS20502010d)

a)

Only in flight.

b)

Only on ground.

c)

Whenever you want below maximum opening speed.

d)

As long as the cargo hold is not pressurized.

98.

Where is the crewmember 1 and 2 seats electrical power frequency converter located? (MG250202010a)

a)

In the Cockpit.

b)

In the lower avionics bay.

c)

1100 VU.

d)

1200 VU.

99.

What is the Multifunction Curtain main function? (MG250402010a)

a)

To isolate the Cargo Door and Ramp area from the Cargo Hold.

b)

To prevent paratroop door opening in flight.

c)

To improve the pallets aerial delivery missions.

d)

To isolate the avionic racks from the cargo hold.

100.

Which of the following Cargo Hold systems and configurations is used to transport Military Pallets (88" x 108")? (MG250402010c)

a)

Guide and Restraint System (GRS).

b)

ISO - Lock System.

c)

Central Guidance and Vertical Restraint {CGVR).

d)

Flat floor configuration.

101.

How many life rafts release handles are installed in the A400M? (MG250702010a)

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

102.

What is the total fuel quantity of the A400M without Cargo Hold Tanks installed? {MG580202010b)

a)

16000 liters

b)

92000 liters

c)

32000 liters

d)

64000 liters

103.

What are the two methods of Defuelling for maintenance? (MG580302010b)

a)

Automatic Defuel and Manual Defuel

b)

Jettison Defuel and Gravity Defuel

c)

Pressure Defuel and Suction Defuel

d)

Emergency Defuel and Normal Defuel

104.

Where is the Refuel Riser Drain Valve located?

a)

Rear LH (Left Hand) Sponson

b)

Forward of the RH (Right Hand) Sponson

c)

Aft of the Center Tank

d)

Within the wing-to-fuselage fairing

105.

How is the jettison system operation initiated?

a)

Manually, through a lever switch located in the Main Fuel Control Panel.

b)

Automatically, whenever the landing gear is extended and the current Gross Weight (GW) of the aircraft is

c)

Manually, by using two pushbuttons located in the overhead panel.

d)

Automatically, after having programmed it on the LMWS (Loadmaster Workstation).

106.

Which components provide the Center of Gravity computation and also provide the data interface with the Integrated Refuel Panel (IRP)?

a)

Tank Wall Processors (TWPs)

b)

CPIOM-Fs

c)

Discrete Data Concentrators (DDCs)

d)

Fuel Quantity Data Concentrators (FQDCs)

107.

What element receives directly the fuel probe in tank sensors signal?

a)

Fuel Quantity Data Concentrators (FQDCs)

b)

Tank Wall Processors

c)

Core Processing Input/Output Module-F1/F2 (CPIOM-F1/F2)

d)

Discrete Data Concentrator (DDC)

108.

Which of the following indications can NOT be seen on the F_UEL page of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring display)?

a)

Pressure in each fuel tank.

b)

Overflow detection warning.

c)

Fuel temperature in each tank.

d)

Position of the centre of gravity of the gross fuel weight.

109.

To enable fuel dispensing to a receiver aircraft, in which position must the fuel mode switch on the overhead panel be set?

a)

Receiver.

b)

GND.

c)

Normal.

d)

Tanker.

110.

How is fuel dispensed from the Cargo Hold Tanks?

a)

By one electrically driven pump installed on the bottom of the tank.

b)

By two hydraulically driven pumps installed on the bottom of the tank.

c)

By two electrically suction driven pumps installed at the top of the tank.

d)

By two electrically driven pumps installed on the bottom of the tank.

111.

Where is the diffuser of the Cargo Hold Tank located?

a)

It is located at the end of the refueling pipe, at the bottom of the tank.

b)

It is located at the end of the venting pipe, at the top of the tank.

c)

It is located at the end of the refueling pipe, at the top of the tank.

d)

It is located at the beginning of the venting pipe, at the bottom of the tank.

112.

Where is the Hose Jettison Unit commanded from?

a)

The Loadmasters Workstation.

b)

The flight deck.

c)

The external refuel panel.

d)

From the internal Hose Drum Unit.

113.

The hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized with compressed air in order to:

a)

Prevent fluid leaks in the hydraulic circuit

b)

Compensate the atmospheric low pressure at cruise altitude

c)

Prevent cavitation of the hydraulic pumps

d)

Help the hydraulic electrical pumps after taking off

114.

Can be the Electrical Motor Pumps used during the flight?

a)

No, never.

b)

Yes, always.

c)

Yes, but only when the Engine Driven Pumps fail.

d)

Yes, when the temperature is lower than 110°C.

115.

Where are the Engine Driven Pumps located?

a)

There is one located on the accessory gearbox of each engine

b)

Next to each hydraulic reservoir.

c)

In the leading edge of the left- and right-hand wings.

d)

In the fin for safety reasons.

116.

Reservoir Low Air Pressure Switch is activated at:

a)

1,1 bar

b)

1,5 bar

c)

1,7 bar

d)

2 bar

117.

The Bypass valve of the Heat Exchanger is fully closed at:

a)

60 degrees Celcius

b)

105 degrees Celcius

c)

70 degrees Celcius

d)

90 degrees Celcius

118.

Which of the following tasks are NOT performed by the Hydraulic System Management Unit (HSMU)?

a)

Fire Shut-Off Valves Closure and Opening

b)

Fluid Temperature Monitoring

c)

Reservoir Monitoring

d)

Control of the hydraulic overhead panel lights

119.

From what positions is it possible to check the reservoir quantity level indication?

a)

None. This indication is not relevant

b)

One. Only from Reservoir quantity indicator

c)

Two. From Reservoir sight glass and Hydraulic system display page

d)

Three. From Reservoir quantity indicator, Reservoir sight glass and Hydraulic system display page

120.

Where is the PRIM 3 located?

a)

1000 vu

b)

1100 VU

c)

1200 VU

d)

1300 VU

121.

The rudder is deflected by:

a)

Two Electrical Back-up Hydraulic Actuators (EBHA)

b)

One Electro Hydraulic Actuator (EHA)

c)

Two Electrical motors

d)

Two hydraulic motors

122.

The function of the BPS (Back-up Power Supply) units is:

a)

To generate emergency hydraulic power in case the two normal systems (blue and yellow) are lost.

b)

To switch flight controls operation from conventional servo controls to EHA (Electro Hydrostatic Actuators) in

c)

To convert hydraulic power into electrical power to ensure the BCM (Back-up Control Module) can command a sufficient number of control surfaces to enable a safe landing.

d)

To perform flight control law computations in case all the three PRIM and the SEC computers have failed at the same time.

123.

What is an effect of the Alternate Law?

a)

The flight control protections are either degraded or lost.

b)

The flight control protections are increased due to redundancy.

c)

The aircraft becomes easier to handle in certain situations.

d)

No effect for pilots.

124.

What is the function of the Pressure Off Brakes?

a)

The Pressure Off Brakes stop control surface movement and arrest the High Lift Sub-system in its current

b)

To prevent flap extension at excessive speeds.

c)

To stop the flap selector lever passing from zero to maximum extension in one movement.

d)

To stop control surface movement when there is a surge in hydraulic pressure.

125.

Is it possible to dispatch the aircraft with the spoilers in maintenance mode?

a)

Yes, but a warning notice must be placed in cockpit.

b)

No, because a master warning makes the crew aware of the situation.

c)

Yes, but the spoiler maintenance key is equipped with a red flag.

d)

No, because the spoiler maintenance key is designed in such a way that it cannot be removed when the maintenance mode is engaged.

126.

How are the Main Landing Gear Doors opened in emergency mode?

a)

By free fall.

b)

By blue hydraulic pressure.

c)

By yellow hydraulic pressure.

d)

By Electrical Back-up Mechanical Actuators (EBMAs).

127.

The main landing gear is equipped with fixed and movable structural elements. Which of the following is part of the fixed structure?

a)

Trailing arms.

b)

Shock absorbers.

c)

Longitudinal links.

d)

Retraction actuators.

128.

The Nose landing gear self centering system centers the nose landing gear wheels:

a)

when the shock absorber is retracted.

b)

when the shock absorber is fully extended.

c)

when the towing bar is installed.

d)

when there is a low yellow hydraulic pressure condition.

129.

During an emergency extension, one valve prevents the hydraulic supply pressure from going to the landing gear hydraulic components. What is this valve?

a)

Vent Valve.

b)

Cut out valve.

c)

Emergency valve.

d)

Supply valve.

130.

Which of the following braking modes uses always the maximum pressure available?

a)

Normal Brake.

b)

Alternate Brake.

c)

Emergency Brake.

d)

Parking Brake.

131.

What is the touchdown protection function?

a)

To prevent the brakes from being applied before the wheels are rotating.

b)

To disconnect the antiskid function when the runway is dry.

c)

To compare the aircraft speed with the ground speed.

d)

To calculate the maximum weight on wheels after touchdown when landing.

132.

What is required to open the forward nose landing gears doors?

a)

Pressurized the yellow hydraulic circuit and then operate the Ground Door Opening Handle

b)

Pressurized the blue hydraulic circuit and then operate the Ground Door Opening Handle

c)

Energize the aircraft and then operate the Ground Door Opening Handle

d)

Move the Ground Door Opening Handle and open by free fall

133.

How are the sponson step operated?

a)

By a hydraulic actuator.

b)

By an electrical motor.

c)

It is a non-moveable part.

d)

A mechanical manual handle.

134.

What reason could make the paratrooper door opening extremely heavy?

a)

Rollers blocked.

b)

Counterbalance system failure.

c)

2-stops failed.

d)

Seals degraded.

135.

In which of the following conditions can the ramp be opened in flight?

a)

When the airplane is pressurized.

b)

With the Hose Drum Unit (HOU) installed.

c)

At any aircraft speed within the flight envelope.

d)

With the paratroop doors open.

136.

What happens if the computer receives simultaneous command of ramp/cargo door movement from different control panels?

a)

The movement stops immediately.

b)

The Cockpit control has the priority.

c)

The Loadmaster Workstation (LWS) control has the priority.

d)

The Loadmaster Control Panel (LMCP) control has the priority.

137.

What element provides a separate power supply to the Residual Pressure Indicator Lights in case of main power supply loss?

a)

Ramp and Cargo Door Controller (RCDC).

b)

Autonomous Standby Power Supply Unit (ASPSU).

c)

Door Control Monitoring Unit (DCMU).

d)

Ram Air Turbine (RAT).

138.

Which electrical power is the galley oven supplied with?

a)

Only with 28 VDC

b)

Only with 115 VAC.

c)

With 28VDC and 115 VAC

d)

With 220 VAC

139.

What is the Protection Net function?

a)

To prevent birds from nesting in the aircraft.

b)

To isolate the Cargo Hold from the Cargo Door and Ramp area.

c)

Aircraft thermal isolation.

d)

To protect the Outflow Valves of Cabin Pressure Control System (CPCS) against blocking by objects.

140.

Which system is used to eject a drogue or extraction parachute into the aircraft slipstream in order to perform an aerial delivery mission?

a)

Central Guidance and Vertical Restraint (CGVR).

b)

Extraction Parachute Ejector System (EPES).

c)

Retrieval Winch.

d)

Cargo Crane

141.

What is the function of H-link tow plate?

a)

To cut the loads deployment line.

b)

To open the x-locks.

c)

To move sponson step.

d)

To retrieve paratroopers.

142.

How many Fuel 'Feed Tanks' is the A400M equipped with?

a)

4 (1 for each engine)

b)

5 (1 for each engine and 1 for the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit))

c)

2 (1 at each wing tip)

d)

Only 1

143.

How can the fuel transfer between tanks be carried out?

a)

Either manually by the flight crew or automatically by the Fuel Quantity Management System (FQMS)

b)

Only manually by the flight crew

c)

Only automatically by the Fuel Quantity Management System (FQMS)

d)

It is not possible to transfer fuel between different fuel tanks

144.

Regarding the Fuel ECAM (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring) SD (System Display) page, what is the indication of a Fuel Pump running with the fuel pressure below normal?

a)

An amber box with an amber 'X' indicated inside it

b)

A green box with an amber horizontal line inside it

c)

A green box with an amber vertical line inside it

d)

An amber box with an amber 'LO' indicated inside it

145.

What modes can be selected with the Fuel System Mode Rotary Selector?

a)

NORMAL, AUTO, TRANSFER

b)

NORMAL, GND, RECEIVER, TANKER

c)

GND, AIR, DEFUEL

d)

ON, OFF, AUTO

146.

Which pumps discharge the fuel after the jettison system is activated?

a)

Main feed pumps

b)

Transfer pumps

c)

Dispense pumps

d)

Standby pumps

147.

How many Tank Wall Processors (TWPs) are there within the Fuel Management System of the A400M?

a)

4

b)

9

c)

2

d)

14

148.

How many Fuel Characteristic Sensors are located in the wing tanks?

a)

1, in the centre tank

b)

3, centre tank and left and right transfer tanks

c)

5, centre, transfer tanks and feed tank No 2 and No 4

d)

7, all the fuel tanks

149.

How are the Cargo Hold Tank Dispense Pump switches represented (legend) in the Fuel Control Panel?

a)

Alternate (ALTN 5&6 and ALTN 7&8).

b)

Forward and Aft Cargo Hold Tanks (FWD CH TK 1&2, AFT CH TK 1&2)

c)

Alternate (ALTN 1&2 and ALTN 3&4).

d)

Forward and Aft Cargo Hold Tanks (CH TK 1&2, CH TK 3&4)

150.

What type of alert is given if the Dispense Pump is abnormally ON or abnormally OFF?

a)

This alert will be a level 2 caution and will be accompanied by a Master Caution light along with an aural chime.

b)

This alert will be a level 1 warning and will be accompanied by a Master Warning light along with a continuous

c)

This will be a level 3 caution with an alert description on the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring.

151.

How are the Cargo Hold Tanks refueled?

a)

By gravity when the aircraft is on the ground

b)

Via the aircraft center tank, either in flight or on the ground

c)

Via a branch pipe from the fuel riser pipe that works only when the aircraft is on the ground

d)

Via a branch pipe from the surge tanks

152.

What kind of valve is the Inward Vent Valve used to equalize the outside and inside pressure difference of the Dispense Equiment as a result of temperature or altitude changes?

a)

It is an electrical driven valve with a single motor actuator

b)

It is an electrical solenoid valve

c)

It is one-way mechanical valve

d)

It is an electrical driven valve with a dual motor actuator