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Networking and IP Addressing Quiz

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A company is assigned the network 192.168.50.0/24. The network administrator needs to create 8 equal subnets. What will be the new subnet mask and the number of usable hosts per subnet?

a)

/26, 62 hosts

b)

/27, 30 hosts

c)

/28, 14 hosts

d)

/29, 6 hosts

2.

You are given the IP address 172.16.10.130/25. Which of the following is the correct network ID and broadcast address?

a)

Network: 172.16.10.128, Broadcast: 172.16.10.255

b)

Network: 172.16.10.0, Broadcast: 172.16.10.127

c)

Network: 172.16.10.128, Broadcast: 172.16.10.191

d)

Network: 172.16.10.0, Broadcast: 172.16.10.255

3.

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a VLAN?

a)

To encrypt data between two devices

b)

To logically separate networks without additional physical switches

c)

To increase wireless bandwidth

d)

To replace the need for routing protocols

4.

Which of the following characteristics belong to UDP? (Select TWO)

a)

Connectionless communication

b)

Reliable delivery with acknowledgments

c)

Low overhead and faster performance

d)

Three-way handshake before data transfer

5.

Arrange the following DHCP steps in the correct order: DHCP Offer, DHCP Ack, DHCP Discover, DHCP Request

a)

3 → 1 → 4 → 2

b)

1 → 3 → 2 → 4

c)

3 → 4 → 1 → 2

d)

2 → 3 → 1 → 4

6.

Which of the following scenarios would be the best use of a DHCP reservation?

a)

Assigning IP addresses to mobile phones that change networks often

b)

Ensuring a network printer always receives the same IP address

c)

Preventing a group of addresses from being used by DHCP

d)

Allowing devices to self-assign IPs when no DHCP is available

7.

A technician notices a workstation has an IP address of 169.254.100.5. What does this most likely indicate?

a)

The device is using SLAAC for IPv6 addressing

b)

The device is configured with a static IP

c)

The device could not contact a DHCP server

d)

The device has duplicate IP detection enabled

8.

Which of the following statements are true about SLAAC? (Select TWO)

a)

It requires a DHCPv6 server to function

b)

It generates IPv6 addresses using EUI-64

c)

It supports Duplicate Address Detection (DAD)

d)

It provides DNS server information automatically

9.

Which of the following are advantages of using DHCPv6 compared to SLAAC?

a)

Centralized control of address assignments

b)

Simpler configuration with no need for servers

c)

Ability to assign additional configuration such as DNS

d)

Works only with IPv4 networks

10.

A user reports they cannot access the internet. You run ipconfig and see the workstation has an IP address of 169.254.55.22 with no default gateway listed. What is the most likely issue?

a)

The DNS server is unreachable

b)

The DHCP server did not assign an IP address

c)

The workstation has a duplicate IP conflict

d)

The NIC is disabled

11.

A Linux administrator runs ip addr on a server and notices the eth0 interface is down. Which command should they run to bring the interface online?

a)

ip addr add eth0 up

b)

ip link set eth0 up

c)

ip route add eth0 enable

d)

ifconfig eth0 -enable

12.

A technician is troubleshooting network connectivity. They suspect a static ARP entry is causing incorrect routing. Which command would remove all entries from the ARP cache?

a)

arp –a

b)

arp –d

c)

arp –s

d)

arp –flush

13.

You are configuring a new IPv6 host. The address begins with fe80::/10. Which of the following best describes this type of address?

a)

A globally routable IPv6 address

b)

A link-local address used for communication within a subnet

c)

A multicast address used for one-to-many communication

d)

A transition address for NAT64

14.

A technician attempts to ping a remote server. The response is “Destination host unreachable.” What does this most likely indicate?

a)

The remote host is powered off

b)

A routing or gateway issue is preventing communication

c)

The network cable is unplugged

d)

ICMP is blocked by a firewall on the server

15.

An organization is deploying IPv6 but must continue supporting IPv4-only applications. Which transition mechanism allows IPv6 packets to travel across an IPv4-only network?

a)

Dual Stack

b)

NAT64

c)

SLAAC

d)

Tunneling

16.

Your company runs both IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously during migration. Which method is being used?

a)

NAT64

b)

Dual Stack

c)

6to4 Tunneling

d)

SLAAC

17.

Which of the following is a key advantage of dynamic routing over static routing?

a)

Less memory usage on routers

b)

Greater administrative control of each route

c)

Adapts automatically to network changes

d)

No configuration required on any device

18.

Which of the following are common types of entries found in a routing table? (Select TWO)

a)

Directly connected routes

b)

Default routes

c)

VLAN membership routes

d)

DNS cache entries

19.

A small organization is using the RIP protocol. Which limitation makes RIP unsuitable for large networks?

a)

It only supports IPv6

b)

Maximum hop count of 15

c)

It does not use routing tables

d)

It requires proprietary Cisco hardware

20.

Which of the following best describes EIGRP?

a)

A link-state protocol that uses Dijkstra’s algorithm

b)

A legacy distance-vector protocol that only uses hop count

c)

A Cisco-proprietary protocol using multiple metrics like bandwidth and delay

d)

A gateway protocol used for routing between autonomous systems

21.

Which of the following are characteristics of OSPF? (Select TWO)

a)

Uses the shortest path first algorithm

b)

Limited to 15 hops

c)

More efficient in small, stable networks

d)

Supports complex topologies within an autonomous system

22.

Which statement best describes the role of Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)?

a)

It finds the shortest path within a single organization’s network

b)

It is a gateway protocol that exchanges routing information between autonomous systems

c)

It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol for IPv4 and IPv6 routing

d)

It only functions in small enterprise networks

23.

Which of the following are features of a stateful firewall compared to a stateless firewall? (Select TWO)

a)

Operates at the network layer only

b)

Tracks the state of active connections

c)

Filters only on IP addresses and port numbers

d)

Provides stronger protection for corporate environments

24.

How many bits are in an ipv4 address?

a)

16

b)

32

c)

64

d)

128

25.

What is the default subent mask for the Class C network?

a)

255.255.254.0

b)

255.255.252.0

c)

255.255.255.128

d)

255.255.255.0

26.
How many bits are in an IPV6 address?
a)
32
b)
64
c)
128
d)
256
27.

A technician is trying to request a new IP address to a customers computer through the command prompt. Which of the following commands should the technician use?

a)

ipconfig /flushdns

b)

ipconfig /renew

c)

ipconfig /all

d)

ipconfig /release

28.
The number of bits in each IPv4 octet is?
a)
128 bits
b)
48 bits
c)
8 bits
d)
32 bits
29.

Which class of IPv4 addressing has network addresses of 1-126?

a)
Class B
b)
Class C
c)
Class D
d)
Class A
30.

What is the purpose of subnetting?

a)

To divide a network into smaller networks

b)

To increase the number of available IP addresses

c)

To improve network performance

d)

To simplify network management