WorksheetsISD1-P4
Total questions: 159
Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
from the same individual
a)
Autoantigen
b)
Alloantigen
c)
Heteroantigen
d)
Heterophile antigens
2.
different individual but same specie
a)
Autoantigen
b)
Alloantigen
c)
Heteroantigen
d)
Heterophile antigens
3.
from different specie
a)
Autoantigen
b)
Alloantigen
c)
Heteroantigen
d)
Heterophile antigens
4.
antigens found in unrelated plants and animals; cross react with antibody of another
a)
Autoantigen
b)
Alloantigen
c)
Heteroantigen
d)
Heterophile antigens
5.
from same individual
a)
Autograft
b)
Isograft
c)
Allograft
d)
Xenograft
6.
Heterograft
a)
Autograft
b)
Isograft
c)
Allograft
d)
Xenograft
7.
Which of the following is a good immunogen?
a)
Albumin
b)
CRP
c)
Pyoverdin
d)
Hemocyanin
8.
Which of the following is an excellent immunogen?
a)
Albumin
b)
CRP
c)
Pyoverdin
d)
Hemocyanin
9.
most immunogenic
a)
Protein
b)
Polysaccharides
c)
Electrolytes
d)
Lipids and nucleic acids
10.
second most immunogenic
a)
Protein
b)
Polysaccharides
c)
Electrolytes
d)
Lipids and nucleic acids
11.
least or non-immunogenic
a)
Protein
b)
Polysaccharides
c)
Electrolytes
d)
Lipids and nucleic acids
12.
–from different but identical individual
a)
Autograft
b)
Isograft
c)
Allograft
d)
Xenograft
13.
– from different non-identical individual but same specie
a)
Autograft
b)
Isograft
c)
Allograft
d)
Xenograft
14.
different specie
a)
Autograft
b)
Isograft
c)
Allograft
d)
Xenograft
15.
Tissue damage occur within minutes
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
16.
Tissue damage occur within 2-5 days
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
17.
Tissue damage occur within Several days or few weeks
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
18.
Humoral
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
19.
possible antibody mediated cytotoxicity
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
20.
Immune complex disorder Complex formation with soluble antigens
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
21.
Caused by immunopathologic mechanisms related to circumstances necessitating transplantation
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
22.
Caused by disturbance of host/graft tolerance
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
23.
Caused by Developments of allogeneic reaction to donor antigens
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
24.
Caused by Previous sensitization to donor antigens
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
25.
Caused by Preformed cytotoxic antibodies to donor antigens
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
26.
Cell-mediated
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
27.
Tissue damage occur within Later than 3 months
a)
Hyperacute
b)
Accelerated
c)
Acute
d)
Chronic
e)
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ
28.
Most immunogenic organ
a)
Kidney
b)
Bone Marrow
c)
Liver
d)
Cornea
29.
Least immunogenic organ
a)
Kidney
b)
Bone Marrow
c)
Liver
d)
Cornea
30.
▪ Substances added to vaccines and less immunogenic cells
a)
Adjuvants
b)
Aluminum salts
c)
Oil in water emulsion
d)
Microparticle
31.
When this substance is added to a vaccine, it helps enhance its effectivity as it can enhance cell-mediated immunity, humoral immunity, and the macrophage phagocytic system
a)
Adjuvants
b)
Aluminum salts
c)
Oil in water emulsion
d)
Microparticle
32.
Capable of fusing with APCs to facilitate antigen presentation
a)
Adjuvants
b)
Aluminum salts
c)
Oil in water emulsion
d)
Microparticle
33.
Stimulate the immune response by inducing release of chemokines and enhancing antigen uptake and migration of APCs
a)
Adjuvants
b)
Aluminum salts
c)
Oil in water emulsion
d)
Microparticle
34.
Preferentially stimulates Th2 responses
a)
Adjuvants
b)
Aluminum salts
c)
Oil in water emulsion
d)
Microparticle
35.
Which of the following is the most commonly used adjuvant?
a)
Freund's complete adjuvant
b)
Alum
c)
MF59
d)
AS03
36.
Which of the following is already obsolete and associated with granuloma?
a)
Freund's complete adjuvant
b)
Alum
c)
MF59
d)
AS03
37.
Major function is to bring or present antigens in the body to the surface cells for recognition of T cells
a)
MHC
b)
HLA
c)
TLR
d)
IL
38.
Genes that control expression of large group of proteins
a)
MHC
b)
HLA
c)
TLR
d)
IL
39.
It regulates the immune response and plays a role in graft rejection It regulates the immune response and plays a role in graft rejection
a)
MHC
b)
HLA
c)
TLR
d)
IL
40.
Genes coding for MHC molecules in humans is found in the short arm of chromosome 6
a)
MHC
b)
HLA
c)
TLR
d)
IL
41.
What is the gene location for the production of MHC?
a)
Long arm of chromosome 2
b)
Short arm of chromosome 2
c)
Long arm of chromosome 6
d)
Short arm of chromosome 6
42.
Presents antigen to CD8
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
43.
Presents antigen to CD4
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
44.
Found on B cells, Antigen presenting cells
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
45.
Chain structure is composed of Alpha chain, Beta chain
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
46.
HLA-DP, DQ, DR are all examples of?
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
47.
Minor MHC antigens
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
48.
It involves complement components C2, C4, Factor B TNF
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
49.
HLA-A, B, C are all examples of?
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
50.
Which of the following classes is highest on lymphocytes and myeloid cells?
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
51.
Which of the following classes is s low or undetected on liver hepatocytes, neural cells, muscle cells, and sperm?
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
52.
Which of the following structures is not found on the surface?
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
53.
Chain structure is composed of Alpha chain, B2 microglobulin
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
54.
MHC class I presents antigen to CD8 via which pathway?
a)
endogenous pathway
b)
exogenous pathway
c)
both
d)
neither
55.
During tissue or organ transplant, which of the following must match?
a)
Rh
b)
ABO
c)
HLA
d)
Other blood group
56.
During organ or tissue transplantation, siblings have a ___ chance of matched HLA
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
57.
During organ or tissue transplantation, parents have a ___ chance of matched HLA
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
58.
MHC class II presents antigen to CD4 via which pathway?
a)
endogenous pathway
b)
exogenous pathway
c)
both
d)
neither
59.
Ankylosing spondylitis
a)
HLA B27
b)
HLA DR2, DR3
c)
HLA DR3, HLA DR4
d)
HLA DR4
e)
HLA B8
60.
SLE
a)
HLA B27
b)
HLA DR2, DR3
c)
HLA DR3, HLA DR4
d)
HLA DR4
e)
HLA B8
61.
Diabetes mellitus (DQ8, DQ2)
a)
HLA B27
b)
HLA DR2, DR3
c)
HLA DR3, HLA DR4
d)
HLA DR4
e)
HLA B8
62.
– Rheumatoid arthritis
a)
HLA B27
b)
HLA DR2, DR3
c)
HLA DR3, HLA DR4
d)
HLA DR4
e)
HLA B8
63.
Graves' disease
a)
HLA B27
b)
HLA DR2, DR3
c)
HLA DR3, HLA DR4
d)
HLA DR4
e)
HLA B8
64.
Sjogren
a)
HLA B27
b)
HLA DR2, DR3
c)
HLA DR3, HLA DR4
d)
HLA DR4
e)
HLA B8
65.
Celiac disease (DQ2, DQ8)
a)
HLA B27
b)
HLA DR2, DR3
c)
HLA DR3, HLA DR4
d)
HLA DR4
e)
HLA B8
66.
Addison’s
a)
HLA B27
b)
HLA DR2, DR3
c)
HLA DR3, HLA DR4
d)
HLA DR4
e)
HLA B8
67.
Myasthenia gravis
a)
HLA B27
b)
HLA DR2, DR3
c)
HLA DR3, HLA DR4
d)
HLA DR4
e)
HLA B8
68.
Multiple sclerosis
a)
HLA B27
b)
HLA DR3
c)
HLA DR3, HLA DR4
d)
HLA DR4
e)
HLA B8
69.
T and B lymphocytes
a)
HLA Class I typing
b)
HLA Class II typing
c)
HLA Class III typing
d)
HLA Class IV typing
70.
B lymphocytes only
a)
HLA Class I typing
b)
HLA Class II typing
c)
HLA Class III typing
d)
HLA Class IV typing
71.
What is the principle of HLA genotyping?
a)
ELISA
b)
IF
c)
Electrophoresis
d)
PCR
72.
In HLA genotyping, is it necessary for cells to be viable in order to obtain DNA?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Toni fowler
73.
Lymphotoxicity testing or complement dependent cell cytotoxicity is a test for which of the following MHC classes?
a)
MHC Class I
b)
MHC Class II
c)
MHC Class III
74.
Which of the following have the following expected results:
Dead cells: Positive, cells are able to take up the dye from tryphan blue
Live cells: Negative, colorless
a)
Lymphotoxicity testing or Complement Dependent Cell Cytotoxicity
b)
Class II
c)
Cellular method
d)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
e)
Restricted Fragment Length Polymorphism
75.
Which of the following involves using nylon wool to separate B cells from T cells further?
a)
Lymphotoxicity testing or Complement Dependent Cell Cytotoxicity
b)
Class II
c)
Cellular method
d)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
e)
Restricted Fragment Length Polymorphism
76.
▪ Mixed lymphocyte reaction
a)
Lymphotoxicity testing or Complement Dependent Cell Cytotoxicity
b)
Class II
c)
Cellular method
d)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
e)
Restricted Fragment Length Polymorphism
77.
Mitomycin C-treated or irradiated donor lymphocytes + live recipient lymphocytes = increased proliferation of patient lymphocyte
a)
Lymphotoxicity testing or Complement Dependent Cell Cytotoxicity
b)
Class II
c)
Cellular method
d)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
e)
Restricted Fragment Length Polymorphism
78.
▪ Results are reported as counts per minute, stimulation index, or % relative response
a)
Lymphotoxicity testing or Complement Dependent Cell Cytotoxicity
b)
Class II
c)
Cellular method
d)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
e)
Restricted Fragment Length Polymorphism
79.
The preferred test for HLA antigens
a)
Lymphotoxicity testing or Complement Dependent Cell Cytotoxicity
b)
Class II
c)
Cellular method
d)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
e)
Restricted Fragment Length Polymorphism
80.
s the ability of an individual organism to distinguish its own tissue from those of another
a)
Autorecognition
b)
Allorecognition
c)
Xenorecognition
d)
Isorecognition
81.
Substances produced in response to antigenic stimulation that are capable of specific interaction with provoking immunogen
a)
Antigen
b)
Antibody
c)
Complement
d)
Interleukin
82.
Functions: ✓ Cell cytotoxicity ✓ Agglutination ✓ Neutralization ✓ Opsonization
a)
Antigen
b)
Antibody
c)
Complement
d)
Interleukin
83.
Considered to be the humoral branch of immune system
a)
Antigen
b)
Antibody
c)
Complement
d)
Interleukin
84.
Postulated that certain cells had specific surface receptors for antigen that were present before the contact with antigen occurred
a)
Ehrlich’s side chain theory
b)
Template theory
c)
Clonal selection
85.
Once antigen is introduced, it would select the cell with proper receptors, combination takes place, and then, receptors would break off and enter the circulation as antibody molecules
a)
Ehrlich’s side chain theory
b)
Template theory
c)
Clonal selection
86.
Antibody producing cells are capable of synthesizing a generalized type of antibody, and when contact with an antigen occurs, the antigen serves as a mold or template and alters protein synthesis so that antibody with a specific fit is made
a)
Ehrlich’s side chain theory
b)
Template theory
c)
Clonal selection
87.
Key premise is than individual lymphocytes are genetically preprogrammed to produce one type of immunoglobulin, and that a specific antigen finds or selects those particular cells capable of responding to it, causing it to proliferate
a)
Ehrlich’s side chain theory
b)
Template theory
c)
Clonal selection
88.
Which of the following theories is the most accepted theory?
a)
Ehrlich’s side chain theory
b)
Template theory
c)
Clonal selection
89.
Basic structure was elucidated in the 1950s and 1960s by the efforts of two men:
a)
Louis Pasteur and Daddy Rob
b)
Antoine van Leeuwenhoek and Robert Koch
c)
Niels Jerne and Macfarlone
d)
Gerald Edelman and Rodney Porter
90.
Niels Jerne and Macfarlone independently supported which of the following theory?
a)
Ehrlich’s side chain theory
b)
Template theory
c)
Clonal selection
91.
Chromosome 2 or 22
a)
Light Chain
b)
Heavy Chain
92.
Kappa and Lambda
a)
Light Chain
b)
Heavy Chain
93.
Determines the immunoglobulin class
a)
Light Chain
b)
Heavy Chain
94.
Chromosome 14
a)
Light Chain
b)
Heavy Chain
95.
Constant regions of the H chain are unique to each class and give each Ig type its name: IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE
a)
Light Chain
b)
Heavy Chain
96.
located between CH1 and CH2, it has a high content of
a)
Hinge region
b)
Fc portion
c)
Fab region
d)
VL and HL
97.
Hinge region has a high content of
a)
Serine
b)
Threonine
c)
Proline
d)
Uracil
98.
Alfred Nisonoff’s work
a)
Cleavage with Pepsin
b)
Cleavage with Papain
99.
Separated into two fragments
a)
Cleavage with Pepsin
b)
Cleavage with Papain
100.
F(ab)2 + Fc’
a)
Cleavage with Pepsin
b)
Cleavage with Papain
101.
digested below hinge region
a)
Cleavage with Pepsin
b)
Cleavage with Papain
102.
2 Fab + 1 Fc
a)
Cleavage with Pepsin
b)
Cleavage with Papain
103.
divided above hinge region
a)
Cleavage with Pepsin
b)
Cleavage with Papain
104.
Separated into three fragments
a)
Cleavage with Pepsin
b)
Cleavage with Papain
105.
Porter’s work
a)
Cleavage with Pepsin
b)
Cleavage with Papain
106.
Both Kappa and Lambda are found in all five classes of Ig but only one type is present in a given molecule
a)
Light Chain
b)
Heavy Chain
107.
Serum half life of IgG
a)
1 to 3 days
b)
2 to 3 days
c)
5 days
d)
6 days
e)
23 days
108.
Serum half life of IgM
a)
1 to 3 days
b)
2 to 3 days
c)
5 days
d)
6 days
e)
23 days
109.
Serum half life of IgA
a)
1 to 3 days
b)
2 to 3 days
c)
5 days
d)
6 days
e)
23 days
110.
Serum half life of IgD
a)
1 to 3 days
b)
2 to 3 days
c)
5 days
d)
6 days
e)
23 days
111.
Serum half life of IgE
a)
1 to 3 days
b)
2 to 3 days
c)
5 days
d)
6 days
e)
23 days
112.
variation in constant heavy chain region
a)
Isotype
b)
Allotype
c)
Idiotype
113.
minor variations in constant region
a)
Isotype
b)
Allotype
c)
Idiotype
114.
variations in variable region of light chain and heavy chain
a)
Isotype
b)
Allotype
c)
Idiotype
115.
Predominant immunoglobulin in humans, longest half-life of any immunoglobulin class
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
116.
Produced during the secondary immune response
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
117.
Subclasses differ in the number and arrangement of disulfide bonds
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
118.
It provides immunity for the newborn, fixation of the complement, opsonization, neutralization of toxins and viruses, and participation in precipitation reactions
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
119.
Warm antibodies; 37 degree Celsius is its binding temperature
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
120.
▪ It is known as macroglobulin, most primitive
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
121.
▪ First class of antibody to be produced by developing B cells
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
122.
Best in complement fixation, participates in agglutination, opsonization, neutralization of toxins
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
123.
No memory cells
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
124.
pentamer form of IgM is found in...
a)
serum
b)
plasma
c)
saliva
d)
surface of B cells
e)
surface of T cells
125.
monomer form of IgM is found in...
a)
serum
b)
plasma
c)
saliva
d)
surface of B cells
e)
surface of T cells
126.
Cold antibodies
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
127.
Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions such as tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal fluid
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
128.
In secretions, it patrols mucosal surfaces and acts as a first line of defense by neutralizing toxins produced by microorganisms and helps prevent bacterial adherence to mucosal surfaces
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
129.
Secretory components of this antibody protects it from digestion by proteolytic enzymes and acts to facilitate its transport to mucosal surfaces
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
130.
It is primarily a cell membrane immunoglobulin found on the surface of B lymphocytes in association with IgM
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
131.
Most of this antibody is found on the surface of immunocompetent but unstimulated B lymphocytes
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
132.
Postulated to be an anti-idiotypic antibody
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
133.
Least abundant immunoglobulin in the serum
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
134.
It provides a striking example of the bifunctional nature of antibody molecules
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
135.
Role in response to parasites
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
136.
Binds to mast cells
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
137.
Present on B cells
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
138.
Has secretory component
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
139.
Triggers allergic response
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
140.
binds to the target cells
a)
Fc portion
b)
Hinge portion
c)
Fab portion
d)
Light chain
e)
Heavy chain
141.
binds the allergen
a)
Fc portion
b)
Hinge portion
c)
Fab portion
d)
Light chain
e)
Heavy chain
142.
It binds strongly to a receptor on basophils and mast cells and together with an antigen, mediates the release of histamine and heparin from these cells
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
143.
It has the ability to attach to human skin (homocytotropic) and to initiate aspects of the allergic reaction (reaginic)
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
144.
Heat-labile antibody
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
145.
Sensitive to enzymatic degradatio
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
146.
For immunoregulation
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
147.
It is associated with anaphylaxis, anti-inflammatory agent
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
148.
Which of the following subclasses of IgA is a monomer?
a)
IgA1
b)
IgA2
149.
Which of the following subclasses of IgA is found in serum?
a)
IgA1
b)
IgA2
150.
Which of the following subclasses of IgA is a dimer?
a)
IgA1
b)
IgA2
151.
Which of the following subclasses of IgA is found in secretions?
a)
IgA1
b)
IgA2
152.
Pentamer form is found in the serum, whereas the monomer form occurs on the surface of B cells
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
153.
Number of antigen binding sites of IgM in the Fab portion
a)
5
b)
10
c)
15
d)
25
154.
It is known as Primary Response Antibody
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
155.
▪ First to appear in phylogeny and the last to leave in senescence
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgD
e)
IgE
156.
Which of the following IgG subclasses is the most efficient in crossing the placenta?
a)
IgG1
b)
IgG2
c)
IgG3
d)
IgG4
157.
Which of the following IgG subclasses cannot cross the placenta?
a)
IgG1
b)
IgG2
c)
IgG3
d)
IgG4
158.
Which of the following IgG subclasses is effective in complement activation?
a)
IgG1
b)
IgG2
c)
IgG3
d)
IgG4
159.
Which of the following IgG subclasses cannot activate the complement?
a)
IgG1
b)
IgG2
c)
IgG3
d)
IgG4
100 %