Free Printable frank science

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Worksheets

frank science

Total questions: 210

Worksheet time: 3hrs 40mins

Name

Class

Date

1.

What is the process where food goes through your body?

a)

Circulatory System

b)

Digestive System

c)

Brain System

d)

the cardiovascular system

2.

What are the parts of the Digestive System

a)

Lungs, Heart, Ribs, and Mouth

b)

Mouth, Esophagus, Stomach, Small Intestine, Large Intestine, and the Rectum

c)

The Brain, Heart, Lungs, Liver, Small Intestine

d)

Blood, White Blood Cell, Red Blood Cells, Heart, Blood Vessels, and the Lungs

3.

True or False: The Small Intestine is smaller than the Large Intestine

a)

Tue

b)

False

4.

The digestive system interacts with the _____________ system to bring nutrients to cells.

a)

nervous

b)

circulatory

c)

skeletal

d)

circulatory

5.

What is the propose of the mouth?

a)

Begins to break down food into smaller pieces and the saliva in the mouth starts the process of chemical digestion

b)

Transport tube that carries chewed food to the stomach.

c)

Continues the process of mechanical digestion and secrets gastric juices that continue the process of chemical digestion started in the mouth

d)

The organ where water from the food is absorbed into the bloodstream

6.

What is the propose of the Esophagus

a)

Begins to break down food into smaller pieces and the saliva in the mouth starts the process of chemical digestion

b)

Transport tube that carries chewed food to the stomach.

c)

Continues the process of mechanical digestion and secrets gastric juices that continue the process of chemical digestion started in the mouth

d)

The organ where water from the food is absorbed into the bloodstream

7.

What is the propose of the stomach

a)

Begins to break down food into smaller pieces and the saliva in the mouth starts the process of chemical digestion

b)

Transport tube that carries chewed food to the stomach.

c)

Continues the process of mechanical digestion and secrets gastric juices that continue the process of chemical digestion started in the mouth

d)

The organ where water from the food is absorbed into the bloodstream

8.

What is propose of the Small Intestine

a)

Begins to break down food into smaller pieces and the saliva in the mouth starts the process of chemical digestion

b)

Transport tube that carries chewed food to the stomach.

c)

Continues the process of mechanical digestion and secrets gastric juices that continue the process of chemical digestion started in the mouth

d)

The organ where water from the food is absorbed into the bloodstream

9.

What is the propose of the Large Intestine

a)

Begins to break down food into smaller pieces and the saliva in the mouth starts the process of chemical digestion

b)

The organ where water from the food is absorbed into the bloodstream; prepares the remaining undigested food for the elimination from the body

c)

The organ where water from the food is absorbed into the bloodstream

d)

Continues the process of mechanical digestion and secrets gastric juices that continue the process of chemical digestion started in the mouth

10.

How long is the Mouth

a)

11cm

b)

11in

c)

11mm

d)

11m

11.

How long is the Esophagus

a)

25cm

b)

25in

c)

25mm

d)

25m

12.

How long is the Stomach

a)

22cm

b)

22in

c)

22mm

d)

22m

13.

How long is the Small Intestine

a)

690in

b)

690cm

c)

690mm

d)

690m

14.

How long is the Large Intestine

a)

152cm

b)

152in

c)

152mm

d)

152m

15.

How long is the Rectum

a)

14cm

b)

14in

c)

14mm

d)

14m

16.

True or False: Secondary Organs touch the food

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What is the main function of the digestive system?

a)

Produce hormones

b)

Pump blood

c)

Break down food

d)

Deliver oxygen

18.

Where does digestion begin?

a)

Stomach

b)

Mouth

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

19.

What is the function of the small intestine?

a)

Absorb water

b)

Store waste

c)

Absorb nutrients

d)

Break down food mechanically

20.

Which organ produces bile?

a)

Stomach

b)

Pancreas

c)

Liver

d)

Gallbladder

21.

What does bile do?

a)

Emulsifies fats

b)

Breaks down proteins

c)

Absorbs glucose

d)

Lubricates food

22.

Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrates in the mouth?

a)

Pepsin

b)

Lipase

c)

Amylase

d)

Bile

23.

What structure connects the mouth to the stomach?

a)

Trachea

b)

Intestine

c)

Esophagus

d)

Larynx

24.

What is chyme?

a)

A digestive enzyme

b)

A type of bacteria

c)

A mass of food mixed with saliva

d)

A semi-liquid food mixture in the stomach

25.

Which structure increases surface area for absorption in the small intestine?

a)

Villi

b)

Rectum

c)

Bolus

d)

Bile

26.

What is the process of muscular contraction that moves food called?

a)

Respiration

b)

Secretion

c)

Peristalsis

d)

Circulation

27.

Which organ stores bile?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Kidney

28.

Which system works with the digestive system to transport nutrients?

a)

Nervous system

b)

Circulatory system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Skeletal system

29.

What part of the digestive tract removes water from undigested food?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Large intestine

c)

Rectum

d)

Pancreas

30.

What is the function of the pancreas in digestion?

a)

Produce bile

b)

Store glucose

c)

Produce digestive enzymes

d)

Absorb nutrients

31.

What is mechanical digestion?

a)

Chemical breakdown by enzymes

b)

Movement of food by muscle

c)

Physical breakdown of food

d)

Absorption of nutrients

32.

What organ temporarily stores food and begins protein digestion?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Esophagus

c)

Liver

d)

Stomach

33.

What is the term for food mixed with saliva and ready to be swallowed?

a)

Chyme

b)

Bolus

c)

Enzyme

d)

Villi

34.

How does the digestive system support the muscular system?

a)

Transports oxygen

b)

Provides energy from nutrients

c)

Sends nerve signals

d)

Stores waste

35.

Which of the following helps maintain digestive system health?

a)

Skipping meals

b)

High-fat diet

c)

Eating balanced meals

d)

Eating fast food regularly

36.

What happens if the digestive system fails to absorb nutrients?

a)

Stronger immune system

b)

Weight gain

c)

Nutrient deficiency

d)

Faster metabolism

37.

How does the nervous system help digestion?

a)

By filtering toxins

b)

By releasing bile

c)

By controlling muscle movements

d)

By absorbing nutrients

38.

Which body system eliminates solid waste from the digestive process?

a)

Urinary

b)

Digestive

c)

Endocrine

d)

Circulatory

39.

What system works with digestion to regulate water balance?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Respiratory

c)

Excretory/Urinary

d)

Endocrine

40.

What is the importance of understanding the digestive system?

a)

To memorize organ names

b)

To eat more

c)

To promote good health and nutrition

d)

To learn about animals

41.

Why is it important to understand how the digestive system works?

a)

To identify what causes heart disease

b)

To explain how the body absorbs and uses nutrients

c)

To improve muscular strength

d)

To measure blood pressure

42.

In the periodic table elements are arranged by

a)

atomic mass

b)

atomic number

c)

valence electrons

d)

number of isotopes

43.

Each row in the periodic table is called a

a)

group

b)

period

c)

cluster

d)

unit

44.

Each column in the periodic table is called a

a)

period

b)

group/family

c)

cluster

d)

unit

45.

Particles in an atom's nucleus that are neutral and have no charge are

a)

megatrons.

b)

electrons.

c)

neutrons.

d)

protons.

46.

A negatively charged particle that moves around the nucleus is a(n)

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

quark

47.

Which group/family of the periodic table is composed of inert (not reactive) gases? They are the ones boxed in in red in the picture.

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

halogens

d)

noble gases

48.

The atomic number of this pictured element is

a)

28

b)

58.6934

c)

Ni

d)

Nickel

49.

Elements which are shiny, conduct electricity and conduct heat are called

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

d)

ions

50.

Two or more different elements chemically bonded form a(n)

a)

element

b)

compound

c)

mixture

d)

solution

51.

What does the H stand for?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

atomic number

c)

atomic mass

d)

atomic explosion

52.

What does the 1.00794 stand for?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

atomic number

c)

atomic mass

d)

atomic explosion

53.

The blue elements are called

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

d)

noble gases

54.

The atoms along the staircase are called

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

d)

noble gases

55.

An isotope is the same element with a different number of...?

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

56.

How many valence electrons does Iodine have?

a)

6

b)

16

c)

7

d)

17

57.

An element's identity is determined by the number of

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

valence

58.

Elements in the same ________ are more chemically similar.

a)

group/family

b)

period

c)

club

d)

table

59.

The majority of elements on the periodic table are

a)

man made

b)

nonmetals

c)

metals

d)

gases

60.

Which of the following is NOT a property of metals?

a)

conductive

b)

malleable

c)

lustrous

d)

brittle

61.

What does the number of electrons in the outer level indicate about the element?

a)

how brittle the element is

b)

how malleable the element is

c)

how reactive the element is

d)

how ductile the element is

62.

If a material can easily be drawn into the shape of a wire, it is

a)

Ductile

b)

Magnetic

c)

Malleable

d)

Reactive

63.

How many valence electrons does sodium have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

64.

How many valence electrons does Carbon have?

a)

4

b)

12

c)

6

d)

14

65.

How many valence electrons does Phosphorus have?

a)

31

b)

5

c)

15

d)

4

66.

How many valence electrons does Krypton have?

a)

36

b)

18

c)

8

d)

4

67.

What does the octet rule tell us?

a)

All ions need 8 electrons

b)

The maximum total number of electrons is 8

c)

The outer shell needs 8 electrons to be full (with the exception of the first shell which needs 2 to be full)

d)

Non-metals have a strong pull on their electrons

68.

What does electronegativity measure?

a)

The pull on electrons

b)

The size of an atom

c)

Number of valence electrons

d)

The charge of an ion

69.

Which of these grouping of elements could have the characteristic of luster (shiny)?

a)

Metal

b)

Nonmetal

c)

metalloids

d)

Both metals and metalloids

70.

Which of these is a property of metals?

a)

It's malleable

b)

It can't conduct electricity

c)

They are used in food

d)

It's very brittle

71.

Brittle

a)

Metal

b)

Nonmetal

72.

Good conductor of heat

a)

Metal

b)

Nonmetal

73.

Which element is a metalloid?

a)

Titanium

b)

Selenium

c)

Potassium

d)

Polonium

74.

All of the following would classify an element as a metal except?

a)

Dull

b)

Luster

c)

Malleable

d)

Hard

75.

Iron is a good conductor, malleable and magnetic. What type of element is Iron?

a)

Metal

b)

Nonmetal

c)

Metalloid

d)

Pretty

76.

A student is given a sample of an unknown substance. He is asked to determine if it is classified as a metal, a metalloid, or a nonmetal. He discovered that the unknown element conducted some heat and electricity, had a shiny luster, and broke easily. This element is most likely a

a)

metal

b)

nonmetal

c)

metalloid

d)

cannot be determined

77.

Which table below correctly lists the properties of metals and nonmetals? *

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

78.

Which of the following is a property of a non-metal?

a)

Conducts electricity and heats well

b)

Can be hammered into thin sheets

c)

Is brittle and breaks easily

d)

Has a shiny, metallic luster

79.

A student tested the conductivity of four elements using an incomplete electrical circuit. When the element is placed in the circuit, the bulb lights up brightly, lights up dimly, or does not light up at all based on the element’s ability to conduct electricity. The table below shows the results of her investigation. Based on the results of the conductivity test, which element is classified as a metal?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Arsenic

c)

Krypton

d)

Copper

80.

Which of the following correctly lists the three main groups of elements from greatest conductivity to least conductivity?

a)

Nonmetals -metalloids-metals

b)

metals-nonmetals-metalloids

c)

metalloids-metals-nonmetals

d)

metals-metalloids-nonmetals

81.

The table shows the properties of four elements. Which element in the table is classified as a metal?

a)

Manganese

b)

Sulfur

c)

Silicon

d)

Neon

82.

John was observing the physical properties of elements in order to classify them as either a metal, nonmetal, or metalloid. The first element was dull, brittle, and did not conduct heat. What would its classification be?

a)

metal

b)

nonmetal

c)

metalloid

83.

´Elizabeth was examining elements and their physical properties. She described an element is her science journal as having no shine, an insulator, and very brittle. What would this element be a metal, nonmetal, or metalloid?

a)

metal

b)

nonmetal

c)

metalloid

84.

If a material can easily be drawn into the shape of a wire, it is

a)

Ductile

b)

Magnetic

c)

Malleable

d)

Reactive

85.

Having the ability to be drawn into a wire describes which property?

a)

Malleable

b)

Ductile

c)

Brittle

d)

Nonconductor

86.

Enzymes are an example of

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

87.

What is the purpose of an enzyme?

a)

give permission for the reaction

b)

raise activation energy

c)

speed up reactions

d)

control how many reactions occur

88.

In the diagram, what is letter A?

a)

product

b)

substrate

c)

enzyme-substrate complex

d)

active site

89.

In the diagram, what is letter D...

a)

active site

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

products

90.

In the diagram, what is letter B...

a)

active site

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

products

91.

In the diagram, what is letter C...

a)

active site

b)

enzymes

c)

substrate

d)

products

92.

In the diagram, what is letter E...

a)

active site

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

products

93.

Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme?

a)

15^oC

b)

40^oC

c)

30^oC

d)

35^oC

94.

At high temperatures enzyme activity declines because of:

a)

Denaturation

b)

Decreased Kinetic Motion

c)

Increased H-Bonding

d)

Dissociation of Ionic Compounds

95.

What is the name for the mechanism of enzyme activity?

a)

Lock and key

b)

jigsaw puzzle

c)

hammer and nail

d)

two hands pattern

96.

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?

a)

The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.

b)

The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8

c)

The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0

d)

The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .

97.

What makes an enzyme substrate specific?

a)

Size

b)

Shape

c)

Name

d)

Location it is found in

98.

What are the enzymes called when they are at low temperature?

a)

denatured

b)

Killed

c)

inactive

d)

normal

99.

The human body maintains a temperature of around 98.6 degrees at all times. Enzymes are involved in almost every chemical reaction in the body. Which of the following describes the connection between these two statements?

a)

Enzymes function best at a specific temperature.

b)

The body needs to be warm to prevent hypothermia.

c)

The body is kept relatively warm to prevent too much enzyme action.

d)

There is no connection between the two statements.

100.

Th pH scale ranges from . . .

a)

1 - 7

b)

7- 14

c)

1 -14

d)

1 - 15

101.

1 - 7 on the pH scale is called . . .

a)

Basic

b)

Acid

c)

Neutral

d)

Enzyme

102.

7 on the pH scale is called . . .

a)

Enzyme

b)

Basic

c)

Acid

d)

Neutral

103.

7 - 14 on the pH scale is called . . .

a)

Basic

b)

Neutral

c)

Enzyme

d)

Acid

104.

What is a biological catalyst?

a)

Substrate

b)

Enzyme

c)

Enzyme-Substrate Complex

d)

Active Site

105.

Why is shape important?

a)

Shape determines temperature

b)

Function determines speed

c)

Shape determines function

d)

Function determines pH level

106.

What is the process by which the body takes in and utilize food?

a)

Protein

b)

Vitamins

c)

Nutrition

d)

Water

107.

The energy needed by athletes is derived from two major classes of food

a)

Fat and oil, protein

b)

Vitamin and carbohydrates

c)

Carbohydrates and fat and oil

d)

Protein and vitamin

108.

Pathogens are microorganism that can cause

a)

Infection

b)

Diseases

c)

Sickness

d)

All of the above

109.

The class of food that provides resistance to disease is

a)

Water

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Vitamins

110.

Fruits are source of

a)

Fat and oil

b)

Vitamins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Proteins

111.

Pathogens are also known as

a)

Fungi

b)

Diseases

c)

Infection

d)

Microbes

112.

The organism responsible for malaria is

a)

Plasmodium

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacterium

d)

Fungus

113.

There are (a) major classes of food nutrients

114.

The two major groups of diseases are

(a)

115.

Which of the following is not an example of family trait

a)

Shape of nose

b)

Intelligence

c)

Albinism

d)

Colour of tongue

116.

Which of these nutrients cannot be digested?

a)

Fat

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Protein

d)

Fibre

117.

Which of the following is a fruit?

a)

Beets

b)

Carrot

c)

Potato

d)

Apple

118.

Which food group provides the body with energy?

a)

Vitamins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Fats

d)

Proteins

119.

Which nutrient is important for building and repairing body tissues?

a)

Vitamins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Fiber

d)

Protein

120.

Which vitamin is important for healthy vision?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin B

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin D

121.

Which mineral is important for strong bones and teeth?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Iron

c)

Calcium

d)

Magnesium

122.

Which eating habit is considered healthy?

a)

Eating excessive amounts of sugar

b)

Skipping meals

c)

Eating only junk food

d)

Consuming a balanced diet

123.

Which food group should be consumed in the smallest amount?

a)

Dairy products

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Fats and oils

124.

Which nutrient is important for carrying oxygen in the blood?

a)

calcium

b)

fiber

c)

iron

d)

vitamin C

125.

Which vitamin is important for a healthy immune system?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin C

126.

Which eating habit is considered unhealthy?

a)

Eating fruits and vegetables daily

b)

Eating a balanced diet

c)

Eating home-cooked meals

d)

Eating fast food regularly

127.

Which food label information should be checked for the amount of salt in a product?

a)

Protein

b)

Sodium

c)

Calories

d)

Fat

128.

Which food group should be consumed in the largest amount?

a)

meat and poultry

b)

fruits and vegetables

c)

grains

d)

dairy products

129.

Which of the following is a vegetable?

a)

Apple

b)

Broccoli

c)

Banana

d)

Orange

130.

Which nutrient is important for digestion?

a)

Protein

b)

Fiber

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Vitamins

131.

Which food group is important for muscle growth?

a)

Fruits and vegetables

b)

Grains

c)

Proteins

d)

Dairy products

132.

Which nutrient is most effective at keeping the body hydrated?

a)

Fats

b)

Proteins

c)

Water

d)

Minerals

133.

Which food group is a good source of dietary fiber?

a)

Meat and poultry

b)

Fruits and vegetables

c)

Dairy products

d)

Fats and oils

134.

Which of the following is not a healthy eating habit?

a)

Eating a variety of foods

b)

Drinking plenty of water

c)

Limiting intake of fats and sugar

d)

Eating large meals late at night

135.

The science or study of food and the ways in which the body uses food

a)

Nutrition

b)

Food

c)

Water

d)

Healthy Eating

136.

Which type of food is your favorite?

a)

Berries

b)

Cheesy Food

c)

Spicy Food

d)

Breakfast foods

137.

Which of the following is not a source of protein?

a)

Beans

b)

Eggs

c)

Chicken

d)

Apple

138.

What is a calorie?

a)

How we measure the energy in a food

b)

Unhealthy Food

c)

How much water we drink

d)

A sport

139.

calorie

a)

the rate at which the body uses energy

b)

a unit of measurement for energy provided by food

c)

a relatively low-calorie food that provides vitamins, minerals, and other healthful substances

d)

a condition in which the body takes in too much of some nutrient or too many calories

e)

a condition in which the body takes in too few nutrients for health and growth

140.

metabolism

a)

the rate at which the body uses energy

b)

a unit of measurement for energy provided by food

c)

a relatively low-calorie food that provides vitamins, minerals, and other healthful substances

d)

a condition in which the body takes in too much of some nutrient or too many calories

e)

a condition in which the body takes in too few nutrients for health and growth

141.

A calorie is the _____ needed to raise the temperature of a kilogram of water one degree _______

a)

fire, fairenheit

b)

vitamin,higher

c)

heat, Celsius

d)

food, lower

142.

A kilocalorie (kcal) is the same as:

a)

a gram of fat

b)

kilojoule

c)

a food calorie

d)

the calories found in a head of lettuce

143.

Calorie is a measure of

a)

Energy

b)

Weight

c)

Distance

d)

Volume

144.

Conversion Factor 1kcal = ___ cal

a)

10

b)

100

c)

1000

d)

1/1000

145.

Conversion Factor 1 cal = ____J

a)

10

1000

b)

1

c)

4.186

d)

4186

146.

Nutritionists know that a gram of protein contains ____ Calories, a gram of fat has _____ Calories, and a gram of

carbohydrate has _____ Calories.

a)

4 / 9 / 4

b)

9 / 4 / 9

c)

5 / 8 / 6

d)

5 / 8 / 6

147.

Which of the following is only found in a plant cell?

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

nucleus

d)

chloroplast

148.

Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane?

a)

keep cytoplasm and organelles inside of the cell

b)

keep viruses and bacteria out of cell

c)

regulate transport of material across the membrane

d)

manufacture ATP

149.

Which of the following organelles produces protein?

a)

smooth ER

b)

rough ER

c)

mitochondria

d)

nucleolus

150.

What is mitochondria's nickname?

a)

"package & transport"

b)

"garbage truck"

c)

"brain of cell"

d)

"powerhouse of cell"

151.

What does the nucleus contain?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

ATP

c)

RNA

d)

DNA

152.

Which organelle is known as the "garbage truck" of the cell?

a)

lysosome

b)

chloroplast

c)

vacuole

d)

Golgi apparatus

153.

What is cytoplasm?

a)

"jelly-like goo" organelles float in

b)

cell membrane

c)

"brain of cell"

d)

Golgi apparatus

154.

Which of the following does the nucleus do?

a)

produce ATP

b)

keep good things in and bead things out of the cell

c)

mitosis & meiosis

d)

produce proteins

155.

What is the energy source made by mitochondria?

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

c)

ABC

d)

ATP

156.

What is the vacuole mostly composed of in plants?

a)

protein

b)

lipids

c)

cytoplasm

d)

water

157.

Where in the cell would you find the nucleolus?

a)

attached to the rough ER

b)

in the nucleus

c)

floating in the cytoplasm

d)

attached to the smooth ER

158.

What do the rough ER and ribosomes produce?

a)

protein

b)

lipids

c)

ATP

d)

water

159.

Which of the following contains RNA?

a)

nucleus

b)

nucleolus

c)

smooth ER

d)

rough ER

160.

Which of the following surrounds all cells?

a)

DNA

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

cell wall

d)

cell membrane

161.

After being made, where would you find ribosomes?

a)

attached to the rough ER

b)

attached to the smooth ER

c)

in the lysososme

d)

in the chloroplast

162.

What does smooth ER produce?

a)

protein

b)

minerals

c)

water

d)

lipids

163.

Where are ribosomes made?

a)

nucleolus

b)

nucleus

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

chloroplast

164.

What is the basic unit of life?

a)

atom

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

cell

165.

Which organelle combines lipids & proteins and transports them out of the cell?

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

vacuole

c)

lysosome

d)

mitochondria

166.

6.- What are the three main parts of a seed?

a)

A) food store, seed coat, roots

b)

B) embryo, food store, roots

c)

C) embryo, food store, seed coat

167.

9.- What is germination?

a)

A) the growth of roots of a young plant.

b)

B) the growth of new leaves of a young plant

c)

C) the overall growth of a seed into a young plant.

d)

D) growth of seeds into leaf and roots

168.

A mature seed consists of :

a)

embryo

b)

endosperm

c)

testa

d)

ovule

e)

pollen grain

169.

Embryo of a seed consists of :

a)

cotyledon

b)

hilum

c)

radicle

d)

plumule

e)

testa

170.

What is the function of micropyle?

a)

Protects the seed

b)

Stores the food for germination

c)

Grows and develops into roots

d)

Allows air and water to enter the seed

171.

Which of the following describes process no.2?

a)

First leaves grow and carry out photosynthesis

b)

Plumule becomes stem and leaves

c)

Radicle becomes root

d)

Seed coat is broken

172.

Which of the following describes process no.3?

a)

First leaves grow and carry out photosynthesis

b)

Plumule becomes stem and leaves

c)

Radicle becomes root

d)

Seed coat is broken

173.

Which of the following describes process no.1?

a)

First leaves grow and carry out photosynthesis

b)

Plumule becomes stem and leaves

c)

Radicle becomes root

d)

Seed coat is broken

174.

Which part is labelled A?

a)

Seed coat

b)

Embryo

c)

Cotyledon

d)

Seedbryo

175.

What is the part labelled C called?

a)

Seed coat

b)

Seed garment

c)

Plant coat

d)

Embryo coat

176.

The breaking up of white light into its component .

Based on the statement given, name the process that takes place in the white light.

a)

Dispersion

b)

Reflection

c)

Refraction

d)

Scattering

177.

How many components of white light?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

178.

Why is red light is at the top whileviolet at the bottom of the spectrum?

a)

Violet light has the medium speed so it is refracted the least.

b)

Violet light has the highest speed so it is refracted the least

c)

Red light has the slowest speed so it is refracted the least

d)

Red light has the highest speed so it is refracted the least.

179.

A transparent object that bends light into rainbow colors.

a)

prism

b)

mirror

c)

convex lens

d)

concave lens

180.

Violet light is refracted the most by a glass prism as the light travels the ................ through the glass prism.

a)

slowest

b)

fastest

181.

The substance in the sky which is involved in the formation of rainbow

a)

Air particle

b)

Dust

c)

Raindrop

d)

soot

182.

Light is able to pass through __________________ materials

a)

transparent

b)

shiny

c)

dull

d)

opaque

183.

1) Refraction happens when light______

a)

bends as it enters a new medium

b)

bounces back when it hits a surface

c)

by a substance

184.

Why does the straw appear to be bent?

a)

light is reflected

b)

light is absorbed

c)

light is turned

d)

light is refracted

185.

The illustration shows a light ray striking an object.
In the illustration, the light ray striking the object is-

a)

absorbed

b)

stopped

c)

reflected

d)

refracted

186.

Why does the lower part of the child appear so much different in size from the upper part?

a)

The light rays that travel through water and then into air are refracted.

b)

The light rays that travel through water and then into air are enlarged.

c)

The light rays that travel through air and then into water are reflected.

d)

The light rays that travel through air and then into water are reduced.

187.

What is happening in this picture?

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

188.

Light bouncing off a mirror is an example of...

a)

Refraction

b)

Reflection

189.

According to the Law of reflection, a light ray striking a mirror

a)

continues moving through the mirror in the same direction

b)

moves into the mirror at a slightly different angle

c)

bounces off the mirror toward the direction it came from

d)

bounces off the mirror at the same angle it hits.

190.

Which of the following object applied the concept of reflection?

a)

Periscope

b)

Telescope

c)

Magnifying glass

d)

Microscope

191.

Green, Orange, & Violet are created after mixing two Primary colors together. What are these colors also referred to as?

a)

Secondary Colors

b)

Primary Colors

c)

Tertiary Colors

d)

Analogous Colors

192.

These colors are opposite from each other on the color wheel:

a)

Tertiary Colors

b)

Primary Colors

c)

Analogous Colors

d)

Complementary Colors

193.

Three colors beside each other on the color wheel are also known as:

a)

Analogous Colors

b)

Secondary Colors

c)

Cool Colors

d)

Complementary Colors

194.

Reds, Yellows, and Oranges depict feelings of heat, passion, and intensity. These colors are also known as:

a)

Cool Colors

b)

Primary Colors

c)

Secondary Colors

d)

Warm Colors

195.

Blues, Greens, and Violets depict feelings of coolness, relaxation, and zen. These colors are also known as:

a)

Warm Colors

b)

Cool Colors

c)

Tertiary Colors

d)

Analogous Colors

196.

What is the complementary color of yellow?

a)

Green

b)

Orange

c)

Violet

d)

Red

197.

These colors are created after mixing a Primary and a Secondary color together:

a)

Analogous Colors

b)

Tertiary Colors

c)

Complementary Colors

d)

Warm Colors

198.

Red, Yellow, & Blue are the "building blocks" of all color. What are these three colors also referred to as?

a)

Tertiary Colors

b)

Secondary Colors

c)

Primary Colors

d)

Complementary Colors

199.

What is the complementary color of Blue-Green?

a)

Red-Orange

b)

Yellow-Orange

c)

Blue-Violet

d)

Yellow-Orange

200.

What color harmony is shown?

a)

Split Complementary Colors

b)

Neutral Colors

c)

Complementary Colors

d)

Tertiary Colors

201.

A Color plus its Tints (White) and Shades (Black)

a)

Primary Colors

b)

Analogous Colors

c)

Complementary Colors

d)

Monochromatic Colors

202.

Any color mixed with white...

a)

Shade

b)

Tint

c)

Complementary

d)

Primary

203.

Any color mixed with black...

a)

Primary

b)

Tint

c)

Complementary

d)

Shade

204.

This is an example of a __________ color scheme painting.

a)

Warm

b)

Cool

c)

Analogous

d)

Neutral

205.

This is an example of ______________________.

a)

Color Triad

b)

Analogous Colors

c)

Complementary Colors

d)

Secondary Colors

206.

This is an example of a _____________ color scheme painting.

a)

Cool

b)

Monochromatic

c)

Warm

d)

Analogous

207.

RED + BLUE =

what color do they make?

a)

b)

c)

d)

208.

BLUE + YELLOW =

what color do they make?

a)

b)

c)

d)

209.

YELLOW + RED =

what color do they make?

a)

b)

c)

d)

210.

The color wheel shows the relationships between which group of colors?

a)

Elementary, Secondary, Tertiary

b)

Primary, Intermediate, Fixed

c)

Primary, Secondary, Tertiary

d)

Primary , Whole, Fixed

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