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Worksheets

Multiple Choice

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

a)

Fever of 101.3°F

b)

Oxygen saturation of 84%

c)

Productive cough with yellow sputum

d)

Pleuritic chest pain

2.

Which ABG values indicate respiratory acidosis?

a)

pH 7.52, PaCO₂ 28

b)

pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 56

c)

pH 7.46, PaCO₂ 32

d)

pH 7.38, PaCO₂ 44

3.

A patient with asthma has a "silent chest." What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Increase IV fluids

b)

Prepare for intubation

c)

Encourage coughing

d)

Give oral corticosteroids

4.

Which statement by a patient taking rifampin indicates correct understanding?

a)

I can stop the medication when I feel better.

b)

This may turn my body fluids orange.

c)

It will cure my viral infection.

d)

I should avoid dairy while on this drug.

5.

A nurse notes a patient with COPD has clubbing of fingers. What does this indicate?

a)

Acute infection

b)

Chronic hypoxemia

c)

Fluid overload

d)

Anemia

6.

A patient is admitted with pleural effusion. Which finding does the nurse expect?

a)

Increased fremitus

b)

Absent breath sounds

c)

Hyperresonance

d)

Productive cough

7.

A nurse is caring for a patient with anaphylaxis. What is the first-line medication?

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Epinephrine

8.

Which lab finding is most concerning in a patient with lupus (SLE)?

a)

WBC 6,000/μL

b)

Hgb 13 g/dL

c)

Creatinine 1.8 mg/dL

d)

Potassium 4.0 mEq/L

9.

A patient with HIV has a CD4 count of 150/μL. This indicates:

a)

Normal immunity

b)

Early HIV infection

c)

AIDS

d)

Viral suppression

10.

Which patient is at highest risk for TB reactivation?

a)

Patient on chemotherapy

b)

Healthy young adult

c)

Patient with hypertension

d)

Post-op patient

11.

Which are early signs of hypoxia?

a)

Restlessness

b)

Confusion

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Tachycardia

e)

Cyanosis

12.

Which interventions prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply)

a)

Elevate HOB 30–45°

b)

Daily oral care with chlorhexidine

c)

Routine chest physiotherapy

d)

Daily sedation vacation

e)

Limit mobility

13.

The nurse is teaching about infection prevention for an immunocompromised patient. Which interventions are appropriate?

4 lines
14.

A patient with pneumonia should be educated on: (Select all that apply)

a)

Completing all antibiotics

b)

Using incentive spirometer

c)

Avoiding fluids

d)

Smoking cessation

e)

Recognizing early hypoxemia signs

15.

Which medications are commonly used for asthma control?

a)

Albuterol

b)

Fluticasone

c)

Salmeterol

d)

Ipratropium

e)

Aspirin

16.

A patient with Guillain-Barré Syndrome is at highest risk for impairment of ___?

a)

Perfusion

b)

Transport

c)

Ventilation

d)

Diffusion

17.

A Mantoux test shows 12mm induration in a patient with HIV. The result is interpreted as ___?

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Inconclusive

d)

Requires repeat

18.

The nurse caring for a patient with anemia recognizes that gas exchange is impaired at the level of ___?

a)

Perfusion

b)

Transport

c)

Diffusion

d)

Ventilation

19.

A nurse knows that Kussmaul respirations are associated with ___?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

20.

A COPD patient’s oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. The nurse’s action is to ___?

a)

Call rapid response

b)

Give oxygen and titrate to 88–92%

c)

Give oxygen and titrate to ≥95%

d)

Hold oxygen therapy

21.

Match each disorder to its main gas exchange problem: Pneumothorax: ________

a)

Ventilation issue

b)

Perfusion issue

c)

Diffusion issue

d)

Oxygen transport issue

22.

Match each disorder to its main gas exchange problem: Pulmonary embolism: ________

a)

Perfusion issue

b)

Ventilation issue

c)

Diffusion issue

d)

Oxygen toxicity

23.

Match each disorder to its main gas exchange problem: Anemia: ________

a)

Transport issue

b)

Ventilation issue

c)

Diffusion issue

d)

Perfusion issue

24.

Match each disorder to its main gas exchange problem: COPD: ________

a)

Ventilation & diffusion issue

b)

Perfusion only issue

c)

Oxygen transport only issue

d)

No gas exchange issue

25.

Match the hypersensitivity reaction with its example: Type I (IgE): ________

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Contact dermatitis

c)

Serum sickness

d)

Tuberculin reaction

26.

Match the hypersensitivity reaction with its example: Type II (Cytotoxic): ________

a)

Hemolytic transfusion reaction

b)

Contact dermatitis

c)

Serum sickness

d)

Allergic rhinitis

27.

Match the hypersensitivity reaction with its example: Type III (Immune-complex): ________

a)

Lupus

b)

Asthma

c)

Hemolytic anemia

d)

Contact dermatitis

28.

Match the hypersensitivity reaction with its example: Type IV (Delayed): ________

a)

TB skin test

b)

Anaphylaxis

c)

Hemolytic anemia

d)

Serum sickness

29.

Match drug to exemplar: Albuterol: ________

a)

Asthma rescue

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Antihypertensive

d)

Antidepressant

30.

Match drug to exemplar: Rifampin: ________

a)

TB therapy

b)

Antiviral therapy

c)

Antifungal therapy

d)

Antihypertensive therapy

31.

Match the medication to the disease: Prednisone → ________

a)

Lupus

b)

Diabetes

c)

Asthma

d)

Tuberculosis

32.

Match the medication to the disease: IVIG → ________

a)

Guillain-Barré

b)

Asthma

c)

Diabetes Mellitus

d)

Hypertension

33.

Match abnormal lung sound to condition: Crackles → ________

a)

Pneumonia/CHF

b)

Asthma

c)

COPD

d)

Pulmonary embolism

34.

Match abnormal lung sound to condition: Wheezing → ________

a)

Asthma

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Pleural effusion

35.

Match abnormal lung sound to condition: Stridor → ________

a)

Airway obstruction

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Asthma

36.

Match abnormal lung sound to condition: Diminished sounds → ________

a)

Pleural effusion

b)

Asthma

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Bronchitis

37.

Match diagnostic test to purpose: Spirometry → ________

a)

COPD severity

b)

Blood glucose level

c)

Bone density

d)

Liver function

38.

Match diagnostic test to purpose: Sputum culture → ________

a)

Identify infection

b)

Measure lung capacity

c)

Detect bone fracture

d)

Assess blood sugar levels

39.

Match diagnostic test to purpose: ANA → ________

a)

Lupus

b)

Diabetes

c)

Asthma

d)

Tuberculosis

40.

Match diagnostic test to purpose: CD4 count → ________

a)

HIV status

b)

Diabetes monitoring

c)

Liver function

d)

Kidney function

41.

A patient with COPD has a PaCO₂ of 60, PaO₂ 55, pH 7.30. What is the priority?

a)

Encourage coughing

b)

Start oxygen at 2L/min

c)

Give IV fluids

d)

Administer antibiotics

42.

A 7-year-old with RSV is in respiratory distress. Which intervention is priority?

a)

Encourage oral fluids

b)

Prepare for suctioning

c)

Give antibiotics

d)

Administer cough suppressant

43.

A patient with pneumonia becomes confused. What is the likely cause?

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Hypoxemia

44.

A patient receiving IVIG develops dizziness and abdominal cramping 10 minutes after infusion begins. What is the priority action?

a)

Stop infusion

b)

Call provider

c)

Give diphenhydramine

d)

Increase IV fluids

45.

A patient with TB has been prescribed isoniazid (INH). What should the nurse teach?

a)

Take with alcohol

b)

Monitor liver function tests

c)

Avoid vitamin B6

d)

Report constipation

46.

Which immune cells are first responders to bacterial infection?

a)

Basophils

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Eosinophils

d)

CD8 T cells

47.

A nurse reviews ABGs: pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 30, HCO₃ 24. Which is correct?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

48.

Which finding indicates successful teaching about albuterol inhaler use?

a)

I use this every day to prevent attacks.

b)

I use it when I feel short of breath.

c)

I take this with food daily.

d)

I never use this if wheezing starts.

49.

A nurse notes fremitus is increased in a patient. Which condition is likely?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Pleural effusion

c)

Pneumothorax

50.

Which vaccine is most important for prevention of pneumonia in older adults?

a)

Tdap

b)

Influenza

c)

Pneumococcal

d)

Varicella

51.

Which patients are at highest risk for TB?

a)

Prison inmates

b)

HIV-positive patients

c)

Elderly in nursing homes

d)

Young healthy adults

e)

Recent immigrants from endemic countries

52.

Which findings are consistent with cystic fibrosis?

a)

Thick, sticky mucus

b)

Malabsorption

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Recurrent lung infections

e)

Infertility

53.

Which nursing interventions are appropriate for a patient with COPD?

a)

Teach pursed-lip breathing

b)

Encourage tripod position

c)

Titrate O2 to 95–100%

d)

Provide small, frequent meals

e)

Smoking cessation

54.

Which are expected manifestations of active TB?

a)

Hemoptysis

b)

Night sweats

c)

Weight gain

d)

Fatigue

e)

Cough >3 weeks

55.

A patient with lupus should be taught: (Select all that apply)

(a)  

56.

A nurse is caring for a patient with severe asthma attack. Which is priority?

a)

Monitor peak flow

b)

Give albuterol

c)

Administer antibiotics

d)

Encourage oral fluids

57.

A nurse reviews ABGs: pH 7.32, PaCO₂: 58, HCO₃: 28. Which is correct?

a)

Respiratory acidosis with compensation

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

58.

A patient develops stridor after eating peanuts. What is the priority?

a)

Call provider

b)

Administer epinephrine

c)

Give oxygen by NC

d)

Insert IV line

59.

Which lab is most useful in monitoring HIV progression?

a)

WBC count

b)

CD4 count

c)

ESR

d)

Hemoglobin

60.

Which finding requires immediate intervention in a patient with pneumothorax?

a)

O₂ saturation 94%

b)

Diminished breath sounds

c)

Tracheal deviation

d)

Mild chest pain

61.

A patient with MG is at risk for which complication?

a)

Aspiration

b)

Seizures

c)

Anemia

62.

Which lab result supports diagnosis of lupus?

a)

ANA positive

b)

Elevated BNP

c)

Low troponin

d)

Negative ESR

63.

Which nursing action is priority before starting IV antibiotics for pneumonia?

a)

Give fluids

b)

Obtain sputum culture

c)

Give antipyretic

d)

Assess pain

64.

A nurse caring for a patient with Guillain-Barré should prioritize which intervention?

a)

Pain management

b)

Airway and ventilation

c)

Nutrition support

d)

Skin care

65.

A patient receiving long-term corticosteroids should be monitored for:

a)

Infection

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hypertension only