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EOC 2025

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How often are dry-chemical agent storage containers less than 150 pounds required to be hydrostatically tested?

a)

Every 7 years

b)

Every 5 years

c)

Every 14 years

d)

Every 12 years

2.

Which foam proportioner allows for automatic proportioning over a wide range of flows and pressures and does not depend on an external power source?

a)

Around-the-pump proportioner

b)

Balanced pressure proportioner

c)

Coupled water motor-pump proportioner

d)

Pressure proportioning tank system

3.

Which fire extinguisher agent extinguishes primarily through a smothering action?

a)

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

b)

Foam

c)

Dry Chemical

d)

Water

4.

Measurements made from the inside surface of one wall to the inside surface of the opposite wall are known as?

a)

Orientation

b)

Lot dimensions

c)

Clear dimension

d)

Benchmark

5.

Which type of view has the purpose of showing the internal construction of each assembly?

a)

Plan

b)

Detailed

c)

Sectional

d)

Elevation

6.

During which step of the plans review process allows the owner/design professional/contractor to meet with the plans examiner or building professional to discuss any needed changes?

a)

Authorize

b)

Resubmittal

c)

Accept

d)

Review

7.

For which building system plans must the plans reviewer classify the hazard for the review?

a)

Automatic sprinkler

b)

Plumbing

c)

Mechanical

d)

Electrical

8.

The designated color and temperature classification for a heat-sending fire detector with a temperature rating of 400-499 degrees is:

a)

orange, ultra high

b)

blue, high

c)

uncolored, ordinary

d)

green, very extra high

9.

The minimum candela rating for the visual notification appliances mounted in corridors is:

a)

10 cd

b)

5 cd

c)

15 cd

d)

20 cd

10.

Which rate-of-rise heat detector is designed for use in areas subject to regular, but slow, temperature changes?

a)

Electronic spot-type detector

b)

Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot heat detector

c)

Rate compensation heat detector

d)

Pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detector

11.

A permanent record of all detector tests must be maintained for at least:

a)

10 years

b)

5 years

c)

25 years

d)

3 years

12.

______ are specifically listed for installation within higher air velocities.

a)

Photoelectric smoke detectors

b)

Duct smoke detectors

c)

Video-based detectors

d)

Air-sampling smoke detectors

13.

Which of the following is an example of an exterior access barrier to a facility or structure?

a)

Gate

b)

Hurricane shutters

c)

Sunscreen

d)

Blank/ornamental wall

14.

Which item would be considered during a field observation of a site for emergency access?

a)

Verification of code compliance for the storage, handling, and use of hazardous materials.

b)

Exit access locations

c)

Exit door compliance

d)

Fire department access roads which are wide enough to permit fire apparatus to operate and pass

15.

Fire department access is determined by local codes or ordinances to specify:

a)

width of roads

b)

angle of roads

c)

height of roads

d)

flatness of roads

16.

Which of the following is an example of an external access barrier?

a)

Sunscreen

b)

Shutters

c)

Ornamental wall

d)

Security barriers

17.

According to NFPA National Electric Code, Class II locations contain:

a)

ignitable fibers

b)

flammable vapors and gases

c)

grounded circuits

d)

combustible dust

18.

Of the primary storage methods, which common storage method represents the most challenging fire protection problem?

a)

Loose piling

b)

Solid piling

c)

Pallet storage

d)

Rack storage

19.

Which type of heating device is a self-contained unit that uses the circulation of radiant heat as the heating medium?

a)

Gravity furnace

b)

Room heater

c)

Unit heater

d)

Boiler

20.

Materials like coal, carbon black, and charcoal are classified as:

a)

Group I combustible dusts

b)

Group H combustible dusts

c)

Group F combustible dusts

d)

Group G combustible dusts

21.

Which type of hydrant should be located as close as possible to the location requiring flow test results?

a)

Wet-barrel hydrant

b)

Dry-barrel hydrant

c)

Flow hydrant

d)

Test hydrant

22.

Which pressure-regulating device at a hose outlet uses a spring mechanism that compensates for variations in pressure?

a)

pressure-stabilizing devices

b)

pressure-restricting devices

c)

pressure-control devices

d)

pressure-reducing devices

23.

Which type of sprinkler system operates when an electronic detector or manual control device is activated?

a)

Deluge or preaction sprinkler system

b)

Preaction or wet-pipe sprinkler system

c)

Deluge or dry-pipe sprinkler system

d)

Wet-pipe or dry-pipe sprinkler system

24.

Which detection and activation device occurs when thermocouples reach a preset temperature, releasing the sprinkler plug?

a)

Manually activated system

b)

Electronic heat detector

c)

Waterflow alarm

d)

Sprinkler activation

25.

For which foam-water system proportioner should the inspector verify that the ball drip valves are open and operable and that no corrosion is present on the foam concentrate storage tanks?

a)

Standard pressure proportioner

b)

Bladder tank proportioner

c)

Line proportioner

d)

Inline balanced-pressure proportioner

26.

Which automatic sprinkler system has the advantage of water flowing to the sprinklers from multiple directions?

a)

Backup distribution sprinkler systems

b)

Combination sprinkler systems

c)

Gridded systems

d)

Multicycle sprinkler system

27.

During which phase will an inspector determine if the proposed fire suppression system is appropriate for the type of occupancy, hazard, and construction type?

a)

Acceptance testing

b)

Routine inspections

c)

Preacceptance inspections

d)

Plans review

28.

Unless other approved, spacing for sprinklers in residential systems is a:

a)

minimum of 144 sq. feet

b)

minimum of 64 sq. feet

c)

maximum of 64 sq. feet

d)

maximum of 144 square feet

29.

The recommended inspection frequency for stationary fire pump operation is:

a)

annually

b)

weekly

c)

monthly

d)

daily

30.

Which fire suppression systems is commonly used to protect Class B fires hazards and can be wet-pipe, dry-pipe, preaction, or deluge system?

a)

Combination system

b)

Water-spray fixed system

c)

Water-mist system

d)

Foam-water system

31.

Which NFPA standard contains specific inspection and testing requirements for water-based fire suppression systems?

a)

NFPA 13

b)

NFPA 25

c)

NFPA 12

d)

NFPA 1041

32.

How often must dry-pipe fire suppression systems be hydrostatically tested?

a)

Every year

b)

Every five years

c)

Every ten years

d)

Every three years

33.

Which fire suppression system provides protection to specific hazards by applying water droplets to of a predetermined pattern, particle size, velocity, and density through specially designed nozzles?

a)

Foam-water system

b)

Combination system

c)

Water-spray fixed system

d)

Water-mist

34.

Water-mist fire suppression systems that utilize air cylinders that have not been discharged should be emptied and tested:

a)

every five years

b)

every seven years

c)

annually

d)

every twelve years

35.

Match the appropriate sprinkler temperature classification or rating with the sprinkler color code:

Ordinary -

a)

Uncoded/black

b)

Orange

c)

Red

d)

Blue

36.

Match the appropriate sprinkler temperature classification or rating with the sprinkler color code:

Ultra High - _____

a)

Orange

b)

Blue

c)

Red

d)

White

37.

Match the appropriate sprinkler temperature classification or rating with the sprinkler color code:

250 degrees - 300 degrees = _______

a)

Orange

b)

Blue

c)

Red

d)

White

38.

Match the appropriate sprinkler temperature classification or rating with the sprinkler color code:

Extra High - ______

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Blue

d)

Orange

39.

Match the appropriate sprinkler temperature classification or rating with the sprinkler color code:

175 degrees - 225 degrees = _____

a)

white

b)

red

c)

blue

d)

orange

40.

Which sprinkler system device activates preaction and deluge systems by smoke, heat, or rate-of-rise detectors in the protected area?

a)

Manually activated system

b)

Waterflow alarm

c)

Sprinkler activation

d)

Electronic heat detector

41.

Which of the following drivers is MOST likely to be used where a driver independent of the local electrical power supply is needed?

a)

Diesel engine

b)

Electric motor

c)

Liquified petroleum

d)

Steam turbine

42.

Which of the following requires inspectors to establish probable cause?

a)

Duty to inspect

b)

Consent-to-enter

c)

Search warrant

d)

Administrative warrant

43.

Failure to correct outstanding code violations results in:

a)

indictment

b)

stop work order

c)

civil proceedings

d)

prosecution of owner/occupant

44.

_____ develops testing processes that other testing organizations use in the development of safety products?

a)

ASTM International

b)

The American National Standards Institute

c)

Underwriter's Laboratories

d)

National Fire Protection Association

45.

Which of the following includes an appeals process for manufacturers who wish to contest test results of their products or materials?

a)

ANSI

b)

NFPA

c)

Underwriter's Laboratories

d)

ASTM International

46.

During which stage will flames extend out of the compartment openings because there is insufficient oxygen for complete combustion in the compartment?

a)

Incipient

b)

Fully developed

c)

Growth

d)

Decay

47.

During which stage does fire begin to influence the environment within the compartment?

a)

Decay

b)

Fully developed

c)

Growth

d)

Incipient

48.

_____ refers to energy released per unit of time as a fuel burns.

a)

Heat of reactivity

b)

Realized heat energy

c)

Heat of combustion

d)

Heat release rate

49.

During what stage are flammable products of combustion likely to flow from the compartment of origin into adjacent compartments?

a)

Decay

b)

Incipient

c)

Growth

d)

Fully developed

50.

What stage of fire growth is largely dependent on the characteristics and configuration of the fuel involved (fuel-controlled fire)?

a)

Fully developed

b)

Growth

c)

Decay

d)

Incipient

51.

Which type of fire requires foam/dry chemical as an extinguishing agent?

a)

Class C

b)

Class A

c)

Class B

d)

Class D

52.

Materials that burn readily in oxygen-enriched atmospheres:

a)

generally flame out within several minutes

b)

will also burn at normal oxygen levels

c)

may not burn in normal oxygen levels

d)

tend to smolder and not create combustion

53.

____ refers to the total amount of thermal energy released when a specific fuel amount is oxidized.

a)

Heat of reactivity

b)

Realized heat energy

c)

Heat release rate

d)

Heat of combustion

54.

Combustible materials with high surface-to-mass ratios:

a)

ignite but flame out quickly

b)

are easily ignited and burn quickly

c)

the surface-to-mass ration has no effect on burning

d)

are difficult to ignite and burn slowly

55.

____ is a chemical process that requires liquid of solid fuels to be vaporized or converted to the gas phase through the addition of heat.

a)

Secondary combustion

b)

Flaming combustion

c)

Nonflaming combustion

d)

Primary combustion

56.

Oxygen exclusion as an extinguishment method:

a)

will not work for fires that involve more than one type of fuel

b)

will not work for oxygen-enhanced fires such as those involving oxidizers

c)

will not work for fires that have developed past the growth stage

d)

will increase oxygen content for most fuels when they are blanketed with foam

57.

Which of the following thermal properties of a compartment contains heat within the compartment, causing localized increase in the temperature and fire growth?

a)

Heat reflectivity

b)

Fuel load

c)

Insulation

d)

Retention

58.

_____ refers to unintended resistance heating.

a)

Sparking

b)

Arcing

c)

Overcurrent or overload

d)

Smoldering

59.

What is the concentration of fuel vapor and air which combustion cannot take place?

a)

Maximum flash point

b)

Minimum flash point

c)

Upper flammable limit

d)

Lower flammable limit

60.

The majority of local building codes are based on ____ developed by third-party organizations.

a)

review plans

b)

local standards

c)

federal requirements

d)

model codes

61.

What determines the construction type of a structure in the United States?

a)

Intended use of all or a portion of the structure

b)

Occupancy level of the structure

c)

Construction material performance under fire conditions

d)

Architectural diagrams and drawings

62.

A rated wall can be constructed with:

a)

water-resistant gypsum board

b)

Oriented strand board

c)

gypsum board

d)

finished paneling

63.

Which frame system is used when the joints between a column and a beam are reinforced so that bending stresses can be transmitted through the joints?

a)

Truss frames

b)

Rigid frames

c)

Steel and composite frames

d)

Slab and column frames

64.

Which of the following structural systems uses the walls of a building to support spanning elements such as beams and trusses?

a)

Interior steel beam structures

b)

Shell and membrane structures

c)

Bearing wall structures

d)

Lateral load-bearing structures

65.

Which type of framing uses a series of vertical elements to support horizontal elements that are subject to transverse loads?

a)

Steel stud wall framing

b)

Post and beam framing

c)

Truss frames

d)

Slab and column frames

66.

In wood framing, what must be provided in addition to the structural members to retard fire?

a)

Insulation

b)

Automatic sprinklers

c)

Fire-stopping

d)

Reinforced columns

67.

In what way does the combustibility of an interior finish contribute to fire behavior?

a)

Creates an additional structural component

b)

Produces flame that can contribute to life hazard

c)

Interior finishes do not contribute to fire behavior

d)

Add to the intensity of the fire because it contributes fuel

68.

Floor finishes are classified by the amount of heat that can be applied to the material before:

a)

it ignites and fire spreads

b)

pyrolysis occurs and smoke is produced

c)

flame appears and flashover occurs

d)

smoke is produced and flame appears

69.

Ceiling materials can be either attached to the underside of floor ____ or installed at a distance below the floor supports.

a)

decking of beams

b)

beams or rafters

c)

rafters or bracing

d)

joists or trusses

70.

Which type of walls act as barriers to fire spread?

a)

Load-bearing walls

b)

Fire-rated partition walls

c)

Walls with flammable finishes

d)

Party walls

71.

What fire protection devices are required in ductwork that penetrates fire walls?

a)

Automatic sprinklers

b)

Dampers with automatic sprinklers

c)

Fire protection devices are not required in ductwork

d)

Dampers with activating devices and smoke detectors

72.

Which resource is available to assist inspectors in determining classifications about 8,000 hazardous materials and compounds?

a)

NFPA 400

b)

Appendix E in IFC

c)

Hazardous Materials Expert Assistant

d)

Wireless Information System for Emergency Responders (WISER)

73.

Flammable solids have an ignition temperature of:

a)

less than 167 degrees

b)

more than 167 degrees

c)

less than 212 degrees

d)

more than 212 degrees

74.

Which type of tanks are fabricated from plate carbon steel and stainless steel?

a)

Fuel storage tanks

b)

Underground storage tanks

c)

Field-erected aboveground storage tanks

d)

Shop fabricated aboveground storage tanks

75.

Which type of packaging refers to a packaging,. other than on a ship or barge, in which materials are loaded with no intermediate form of containment?

a)

Bulk

b)

Nonbulk

c)

Intermediate

d)

High-density

76.

Which type of explosive with detonate when initiated by a shock wave created by a detonator?

a)

Military

b)

Primary

c)

Secondary

d)

Construction

77.

An inspector's responsibilities include checking the installation and maintenance of standpipes and hose systems which:

a)

enables building occupants the opportunity to extinguish incipient fires.

b)

helps limit fire load and reduce the potential for fire growth.

c)

provides emergency fire crews with the ability to disrupt combustion on elevated stories.

d)

allows the extinguishing system to interrupt a chemical chain reaction and exclude oxygen.

78.

In a compartment fire that involves the contents of the room, fire development is limited by the available air supply and is said to be:

a)

a limited capacity fire.

b)

self-containing.

c)

a reducing oxygen fire.

d)

ventilation controlled.

79.

What will a fire inspector want to confirm about spray booths or spray room ventilation?

a)

Carbon levels

b)

Air exhaust rate

c)

Air balance test

d)

Exhaust fan function

80.

Which of the following is something an inspector should pay special attention when inspecting storage facilities?

a)

Number of employees available during shifts

b)

Lighting conditions in the facility

c)

Changes in contents and storage arrangements

d)

Changes in management or ownership

81.

Which flammable finishing method involves the placement of a suspended article into an open dip tank of flammable or combustible liquids?

a)

Powder coating

b)

Immersion coating

c)

Quench coating

d)

Spray coating

82.

Ovens that contain or process sufficient combustion materials to sustain a fire should be equipped with:

a)

fire alarms.

b)

fire extinguishers.

c)

makeup air ventilation systems.

d)

automatic sprinklers.

83.

Common electrical hazards occur when electrical equipment is:

a)

used improperly.

b)

overused.

c)

greater than five years old.

d)

in its first six months of usage

84.

Which of the following is a recommendation for exposure protection?

a)

Maintain required separation between materials

b)

Allow waste materials in restricted areas

c)

Put heating devices near wood

d)

Store or stack combustible materials on the perimeter

85.

Which of the following is a condition that must be present for a dust explosion to occur?

a)

Oxygen content must be below 18%.

b)

At least one side of the area must have ventilation.

c)

Auto-ignition temperature of the suspended dust must be reached.

d)

Combustible dust must be suspended in air.

86.

Fire hazards that result from ________ may be the result of the design or use of a building, facility or equipment.

a)

unsafe conditions

b)

unsafe behavior

c)

improper safety

d)

negligence

87.

In piping systems conveying flammable, pyrophoric, toxic, and corrosive liquids and gases, model fire codes prescribe the installation of:

a)

redundant alarm systems

b)

an excess flow control valve.

c)

at least five fire extinguishers.

d)

water-based sprinkler systems.

88.

Which type of explosive includes sensitive materials?

a)

Military

b)

Primary

c)

Secondary

d)

Construction

89.

What does this placard represent?

a)

Nonflammable gas

b)

Flammable liquids

c)

Explosive

d)

Water-reactive

90.

What does this placard represent?

a)

Explosive

b)

Health

c)

Oxidizers

d)

Water Reactive

91.

Design of a mechanical ventilation system must provide enough air at a sufficient velocity to capture:

a)

gases or vapors.

b)

solids and gases.

c)

smoke and flames.

d)

particles or vapors.

92.
  1. 1. It can be stopped by clothing or a sheet of paper ____

  2. 2. Penetrates skin but can be blocked by plastic, glass, or a few millimeters of aluminum ___

  1. 3. Requires dense shielding, such as lead, to prevent deep body penetration. ___

4. Requires thick materials like concrete for effective shielding, as it can pass completely through the human body. ____

a)
  1. 1. Alpha 2. Beta 3. Gamma 4. Neutron

b)
  1. 1. Neutron 2. Gamma 3. Beta 4. Alpha

c)
  1. 1. Gamma 2. Beta 3. Alpha 4. Neutron

d)
  1. 1. Beta 2. Alpha 3. Neutron 4. Gamma

93.

Nonbulk packages containing liquefied compressed gases, cryogenic fluids, or liquids with a high vapor pressure must:

a)

contain a means of venting.

b)

provide a means of drainage.

c)

have secondary containment.

d)

be stored separate from all other hazards.

94.

UL 142 requires that any shop-fabricated aboveground storage tanks storing flammable or combustible liquids have:

a)

SDS.

b)

grills.

c)

DOT placards.

d)

a permanent nameplate.

95.

The interlocking network of water mains that compose a water distribution system is referred to as a:

a)

hydrant framework.

b)

loop system.

c)

grid system.

d)

distribution network.

96.

Which of the following drivers provides steam pressure to drive both horizontal and vertical split-case pumps directly?

a)

Diesel engine

b)

Electric motor

c)

Liquefied petroleum

d)

Steam turbine

97.

Which automatic sprinkler system is continually charged with air that may or may not be under pressure and operates when a sprinkler opens due to a thermally sensitive device and the activation of detection devices?

a)

Combination sprinkler system

b)

Wet-pipe sprinkler system

c)

Preaction sprinkler system

d)

Deluge sprinkler system

98.

Which fire pump includes advantages such as ease of installation, simplified piping arrangement, and reduced pipe strain?

a)

End suction

b)

Horizontal split-case

c)

Vertical turbine

d)

Vertical split-case

99.

When inspecting a water-spray fixed fire suppression sprinkler system, the inspector should verify that the system's response time is:

a)

less than 60 seconds.

b)

between 60 and 90 seconds.

c)

less than 40 seconds.

d)

between 40 and 60 seconds.

100.

During which phase will an inspector compare the components of a system to those shown on the plans or listed in the construction documents?

a)

Preacceptance inspections

b)

Acceptance testing

c)

Plans review

d)

Routine inspections

101.

Verifying that the required testing and maintenance are complete and that the required records are in order for fire protection systems and equipment is the responsibility of the:

a)

authority having jurisdiction (AHJ).

b)

equipment manufacturer representative.

c)

owner or occupant.

d)

building maintenance head.

102.

The water supply requirements for residential sprinklers are:

a)

less than those for standard sprinkler systems.

b)

the same as those for standard sprinkler systems.

c)

greater than those for standard sprinkler systems.

d)

based on available water supply.

103.

What's the sprinkler name?

Mounted horizontally from a wall face so that the deflector causes the water to be distributed in an arc over the protected area, while a portion of the spray is directed at the supporting wall face.

a)

Sidewall

b)

Institutional

c)

Extended Coverage

d)

Concealed

104.

Designed to direct 40 to 60 percent of its discharge in a downward direction.

What's the sprinkler?

a)

Old Style/ Conventional

b)

Institutional

c)

Extended Coverage

d)

Corrosion-Resistant

105.

Building management personnel should make a visual inspection of standpipe and hose fire suppression systems at least once:

a)

every six months.

b)

every quarter.

c)

a month.

d)

every year.

106.

Which automatic sprinkler system is continually charged with water under pressure that discharges immediately when heat from a fire activates one or more sprinklers?

a)

Deluge sprinkler system

b)

Dry-pipe sprinkler system

c)

Wet-pipe sprinkler system

d)

Preaction sprinkler system

107.

Which type of standpipe fire suppression system contains an empty pipe that is connected to a permanent water supply?

a)

Manual-dry

b)

Semi-automatic

c)

Automatic-wet

d)

Manual-wet

108.

Which of the following allows a stationary fire pump to start automatically whenever the fire suppression system it supplies operates, and to stop automatically?

a)

Lock switch

b)

Fire pump controller

c)

Pump differential

d)

Fire pump gauge

109.

Which automatic sprinkler system is continually charged with compressed air and when a sprinkler activates, the air is released, allowing the water-flow control valve to operate and charge the system with water?

a)

Wet-pipe sprinkler system

b)

Dry-pipe sprinkler system

c)

Preaction sprinkler system

d)

Deluge sprinkler system

110.

Which type of foam system method extinguishes a fire by intervening between the fuel and the fire?

a)

Suppressing

b)

Separating

c)

Cooling

d)

Smothering

111.

In addition to the clean-agent system inspections and tests, what else must be inspected annually?

a)

Ventilation equipment

b)

Protected enclosure

c)

Wall mounts

d)

Personnel records

112.

The quantity of burning fuel that a fire extinguisher can extinguish determines:

a)

the size of the extinguisher.

b)

its extinguishing agent.

c)

the placement of the extinguisher.

d)

travel distance to the extinguisher.

113.

In a clean-agent system, the quantity and pressure of the clean agent must be checked:


a)

every 3 months.

b)

every 4 months.

c)

annually.

d)

semiannually.

114.

Foam concentrates, foam equipment, and foam proportioning systems should be checked:

a)

weekly.

b)

monthly.

c)

semiannually.

d)

annually.

115.

On which principle of physics does a rate-of-rise heat detector operate?

a)

Heated materials have thermoelectric properties

b)

Heat causes the expansion of various materials

c)

Fires rapidly increase the temperature of a given area

d)

Heat causes melting of certain materials

116.

Which component sends a signal to the FACU using either hard-wire systems or a signal conveyed by radio wave over a special frequency?

a)

Secondary power supply

b)

Initiating device

c)

Notification appliance

d)

Primary power supply

117.

Which of the following is the first step in evaluating documents?

a)

Review all construction work done thus far

b)

Determine possible future uses of the site

c)

Review the overall size of the building in terms of height and area

d)

Document that all appropriate fees have been paid

118.

Plans examiners must evaluate the exit capacity according to:

a)

the specifications of the appropriate codes.

b)

the desires of building management.

c)

their own best judgement.

d)

the ability of occupants to follow exit directions.

119.

Input in the design process enables fire and emergency services to:

a)

explore necessary changes to local laws.

b)

review the inspection procedure process.

c)

verify that fire code requirements are met.

d)

introduce the most recent technological advancements.

120.

In structures that contain commercial kitchens, an inspector and plans examiner must be familiar with the __________ and fire code requirements.

a)

electrical

b)

mechanical

c)

plumbing

d)

health

121.

__________ refers to materials used to decrease the vulnerability of structures to hazards, such as wildland fires.

a)

Layered construction

b)

Fireproof construction

c)

Triple A fire construction

d)

Ignition-resistant construction

122.

In a plain (nonreinforced) masonry wall, the strength and stability of the wall are derived in part from:

a)

small vertical steel rods placed in cavities.

b)

composite material added to the masonry.

c)

post beams placed along the masonry wythes.

d)

the vertical compressive strength of the masonry units.