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Ch. 4 Pharmacology Workbook

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 5hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The absorption, distribution, metabolism and elimination of drugs in the body comprises the scientific study of

a)

pharmacology.

b)

pharmacokinetics.

c)

pharmacognosy.

d)

pharmaceutics.

2.

A severe harmful response to a drug or resulting from an extended use of a drug is defined as a(n)

a)

Drug interaction.

b)

Side effect.

c)

Adverse drug reaction.

d)

Contraindication.

3.

To be considered pharmaceutically equivalent to a brand name, a generic drug must have the same ________

a)

active ingredient.

b)

inert ingredients.

c)

shape and color.

d)

expiration dating.

4.

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for the brand name Prinivil, an antihypertensive drug. The DAW box was not checked. The generic in stock is both pharmaceutically and therapeutically equivalent to Prinivil. The technician should:

a)

contact the prescriber to see if the lower cost generic can be substituted.

b)

substitute the generic without prescriber approval.

c)

check to see if the brand name Prinivil is in stock.

d)

contact the insurance provider to determine if the brand name drug will be covered.

5.

You receive a prescription for hydroxyzine hydrochloride 10 mg. You have on the pharmacy shelf a drug with the same active ingredient but a different salt form: hydroxyzine pamoate. These drugs are considered:

a)

generic equivalents.

b)

pharmaceutical equivalents.

c)

biosimilars.

d)

pharmaceutical alternatives.

6.

The abbreviation DAW1 means that

a)

the prescribed drug cannot be substituted for a lower cost generic.

b)

the patient is requesting brand name drug.

c)

the prescription has no refills.

d)

this patient must receive counseling on the prescribed medication.

7.

Identify the correct statement on biosimilars as compared to innovator products.

a)

A generic equivalent

b)

Exactly the same biologically.

c)

Bioequivalent.

d)

Cannot be substituted without permission of prescriber.

8.

The interchangeability of biologicals would most likely be found in an online publication by the FDA called the

a)

Purple Book.

b)

Orange Book.

c)

Green Book.

d)

Red Book.

9.

What is NOT a primary reference used in pharmacies for information about drug classification, mode of action, or side effects of medications?

a)

Product Package Inserts

b)

Drug Facts and Comparisons.

c)

Trissel's Stability of Compounded Products

d)

United States Pharmacopeia-National Formulary

10.

The primary indication for Suboxone is

a)

to lower blood sugar.

b)

to fight infections.

c)

to treat narcotic addiction.

d)

to lower mania in bipolar patients.

11.

All of the following auxiliary labels should be placed on the bottles of oxodone except:

a)

Take with food.

b)

Avoid alcohol.

c)

Can cause drowsiness.

d)

Do not take with dairy products.

12.

The major adverse drug reaction for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is

a)

gastrointestinal bleeding.

b)

sulfa allergy.

c)

heart attack.

d)

stroke.

13.

Which of the following pain-relieving drugs is a narcotic-like substance that was classified as a Schedule IV controlled substance in 2014 because it has so many narcotic qualities?

a)

Tramadol.

b)

Hydrocodone.

c)

Oxycodone.

d)

Morphine.

14.

The benzodiazepine (BZD) family, or the "benzos," are a psychoactive class of drugs used to treat mostly:

a)

schizophrenia

b)

depression

c)

anxiety, panic attacks, seizures, and insomnia

d)

delusions, hallucinations, mania, and severe agitation

15.

Which of the following CNS neurotransmitters affects memory, mood, appetite and sexual desire and function?

a)

Serotonin.

b)

Dopamine.

c)

Norepinephrine.

d)

Epinephrine.

16.

The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are used to try to keep serotonin circulating for its positive effects. What is the generic form of a popular SSRI antidepressant?

a)

eszopiclone

b)

fluoxetine

c)

clonazepam

d)

diazepam

17.

What type of drugs are generally used for treating attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

a)

Stimulants, such as amphetamines

b)

Hypnotic drugs, to try to slow the systems down for a more restful state

c)

Antipsychotic drugs, to stop disordered thoughts and actions

d)

Antidepressants, such as Prozac

18.

Which of the following classes of cardiovascular drugs are NOT considered antihypertensive agents?

a)

Beta blockers

b)

Calcium channel blockers (CCBs)

c)

Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

d)

Statins

19.

Which of the following class of drugs can cause a life-threatening angioedema adverse reaction?

a)

Calcium channel blockers (CCBs), such as amlodipine

b)

Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), such as valsartan and losartan

c)

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as lisinopril and enalapril

d)

Statins, such as atorvastatin and pravastatin

20.

Crestor is indicated for lowering ________

a)

blood pressure.

b)

blood sugar.

c)

cholesterol.

d)

thyroid.

21.

The main indication for the alpha/beta blocker drug Coreg is

a)

heart failure.

b)

angioedema.

c)

artery collapse

d)

weak heart beat

22.

Erectile dysfunction drugs, such as Viagra, can interact with which of the following to cause a dangerous fall in blood pressure?

a)

nitroglycerin

b)

Bactrim

c)

ibuprofen

d)

penicillin

23.

Which of the following antibiotics is most effective against MRSA?

a)

vancomycin

b)

amoxicillin

c)

doxycycline

d)

azithromycin

24.

Which of the following drugs should NOT be given with dairy products or antacids?

a)

wayfarin

b)

ciprofloxacin.

c)

digoxin

d)

statins

25.

Which of the following antibiotics is safe to use in patients with a penicillin allergy?

a)

ampicillin-sulbactam

b)

amoxicillin

c)

nafcillin

d)

azithromycin

26.

In women over the age of 35 years who smoke, the use of some birth-control medications can increase the risk of

a)

cancer.

b)

high blood pressure.

c)

stroke.

d)

peptic ulcer.

27.

Which insulin provides steady effects of lowering blood glucose levels that can last up to 24 hours?

a)

Humulin R

b)

Novolog

c)

Lantus

d)

Humalog

28.

The oral drug of choice for Type II diabetes is:

a)

Metformin

b)

Glimeperide

c)

Januvia

d)

Actos

29.

Which is the fastest-acting bronchodilator to be used for acute attacks?

a)

Combivent

b)

Atrovent

c)

Spiriva

d)

ProAir

30.

Which of the following drugs is considered an H-2 antagonist?

a)

Nexium

b)

Prilosec

c)

omeprazole

d)

ranitidine

31.

Which of the following drugs has an FDA "black box" warning on a possible increase in the risk of serious infection?

a)

Enbrel

b)

Cialis

c)

Lovenox

d)

Flomax

32.

To reduce the risk of spina bifida, a birth deformity, which of the following dietary supplements is indicated in pregnancy?

a)

Ferrous sulfate

b)

Folic acid

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Niacin

33.

What is the new drug that has been approved for enhancing women's sexual drive?

a)

Spritam

b)

Synjardy

c)

Zubsolv

d)

Addyi

34.

What new drug is made by a 3-D printer to get a quick dissolving porous pill structure to help epilepsy patients in a seizure who have difficulty swallowing tablets?

a)

Spritam

b)

Synjardy

c)

Zubsolv

d)

Addyi

35.

What information is NOT included in the Product Package Insert (PPI)?

a)

adverse reactions

b)

indications and usage

c)

average warehouse price

d)

clinical studies

36.

Below are drugs (a-j) that are mentioned in this chapter. Match their generic drug name from the following list (a-j): 1. _____ Flexeril, for muscle spasms

a)

methylphenidate

b)

amitriptyline

c)

alprazolam

d)

cyclobenzaprine

e)

zolpidem

37.

Below are drugs (a-j) that are mentioned in this chapter. Match their generic drug name from the following list (a-j): 2. _____ Fosamax, for osteoporosis

a)

zolpidem

b)

amitriptyline

c)

alprazolam

d)

methylphenidate

e)

alendronate

38.

Below are drugs (a-j) that are mentioned in this chapter. Match their generic drug name from the following list (a-j): 3. ____

a)

levofloxacin

b)

amitriptyline

c)

alprazolam

d)

methylphenidate

e)

zolpidem

39.

Below are drugs (a-j) that are mentioned in this chapter. Match their generic drug name from the following list (a-j): 4. _____ Duragesic, for pain relief

a)

alprazolam

b)

zolpidem

c)

methylphenidate

d)

amitriptyline

e)

fentanyl patch

40.

Below are drugs (a-j) that are mentioned in this chapter. Match their generic drug name from the following list (a-j): 5. _____

a)

alprazolam

b)

zolpidem

c)

methylphenidate

d)

meloxicam

e)

amitriptyline

41.

Below are drugs (a-j) that are mentioned in this chapter. Match their generic drug name from the following list (a-j): 6. _____ Ambien, for insomnia

a)

amitriptyline

b)

alprazolam

c)

metformin

d)

methylphenidate

e)

zolpidem

42.

Below are drugs (a-j) that are mentioned in this chapter. Match their generic drug name from the following list (a-j): 7. _____

a)

methylphenidate

b)

amitriptyline

c)

zolpidem

d)

metformin

e)

alprazolam

43.

Below are drugs (a-j) that are mentioned in this chapter. Match their generic drug name from the following list (a-j): 8. _____ Concerta, for ADHD

a)

methylphenidate

b)

alprazolam

c)

metformin

d)

amitriptyline

e)

zolpidem

44.

Below are drugs (a-j) that are mentioned in this chapter. Match their generic drug name from the following list (a-j): 9. _____ Elavil, for depression and pain

a)

methylphenidate

b)

zolpidem

c)

amitriptyline

d)

metformin

e)

alprazolam

45.

Below are drugs (a-j) that are mentioned in this chapter. Match their generic drug name from the following list (a-j): 10. _____

a)

alprazolam

b)

amitriptyline

c)

methylphenidate

d)

zolpidem

e)

metformin

46.

The scientific study of herbal drugs is called

a)

Pharmacodynamics.

b)

Toxicology.

c)

Pharmacognosy.

d)

Therapeutics.

47.

A contraindication means that

a)

that there are no drug interactions

b)

that the side effects are not harmful

c)

this drug will work against the unwanted condition

d)

it is inadvisable in this situation to use this particular drug

48.

A prescriber writing "brand medically necessary" on a prescription could also use the following abbreviation:

a)

DAW

b)

ADR

c)

ADME

d)

CNS

49.

The major indication for the drug TriCor is treatment of

a)

diabetes.

b)

ADHD.

c)

high triglycerides.

d)

hypertension.

50.

What is the maximum number of refills allowed on Ambien?

a)

None.

b)

Five.

c)

Twelve.

d)

No limit.

51.

Which of the following medications is an NSAID?

a)

lidocaine

b)

naproxen

c)

ciprofloxacin

d)

oxycodone

52.

What is the brand name of tramadol?

a)

Desyrel

b)

Vasotec

c)

Mevacor

d)

Ultram

53.

Enalapril is in what therapeutic drug class?

a)

Diuretic

b)

Beta blocker

c)

Calcium channel blocker

d)

ACE inhibitor

54.

Which of the following drugs is not an SSRI?

a)

Elavil

b)

Prozac

c)

Paxil

d)

Zoloft

55.

Grapefruit products may decrease the metabolism and interact with

a)

statins

b)

beta blockers

c)

ACE inhibitors

d)

proton pump inhibitors

56.

The generic name for Augmentin is

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Ampicillin

c)

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

d)

Azithromycin

57.

Which of the following drugs is not an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor?

a)

benazepril

b)

lisinopril

c)

valsartan

d)

ramipril

58.

What is the brand name for esomeprazole?

a)

Nexium

b)

Prevacid

c)

Zocor

d)

Zantac

59.

A life-threatening drop in blood pressure may occur if the erectile dysfunction drug Cialis is combined with

a)

ranitidine.

b)

metronidazole.

c)

nitroglycerin.

d)

azithromycin.

60.

Ginger, ginkgo, and ginseng can all interact with which medication?

a)

warfarin

b)

Protonix

c)

lorazepam

d)

Lyrica

61.

Identify the shared generic ingredient from the following options:

a)

Flour

b)

Sugar

c)

Salt

d)

Butter

62.

Hydroxyzine hydrochloride is considered a generic substitute or pharmaceutical alternative of Vistaril.

a)

Generic substitute

b)

Pharmaceutical alternative

c)

Brand name

d)

Over-the-counter medication

63.

The pharmacy technician can substitute hydroxyzine hydrochloride for Vistaril without calling the prescriber.

a)

Yes, because they are the same medication.

b)

No, because they are not interchangeable without prescriber approval.

c)

Yes, as long as the patient agrees.

d)

No, only the pharmacist can make that decision.

64.

The FDA online reference that would indicate which generic drug can be substituted for Procardia XL is:

a)

Orange Book

b)

Purple Book

c)

Red Book

d)

Green Book

65.

The generic drug name of Procardia XL is:

a)

Nifedipine

b)

Amlodipine

c)

Verapamil

d)

Diltiazem

66.

Referring to Table 4.1 (page 112), which manufacturer's version of the generic drug can be substituted for either the Procardia XL or the Adalat CC?

a)

Teva

b)

Pfizer

c)

Merck

d)

Novartis

67.

Sleep medications, such as zolpidem (Ambien) and eszopiclone (Lunesta), are classified under which Schedule of controlled drug substances?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

68.

The generic drug name of a common narcotic analgesic patch is:

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Oxycodone

c)

Morphine

d)

Hydrocodone

69.

The trade name drug frequently prescribed for treatment of opiate addiction is:

a)

Suboxone

b)

Valium

c)

Prozac

d)

Lipitor

70.

Which auxiliary label should be placed on a medication bottle of generic Percocet (oxycodone/APAP) to warn the patient about the risk of liver damage?

a)

May cause drowsiness. Use care when operating a vehicle.

b)

Take with food to avoid stomach upset.

c)

Do not take with alcohol. May cause severe liver damage.

d)

Store in a cool, dry place.

71.

The generic name for Xanax is:

a)

Alprazolam

b)

Diazepam

c)

Lorazepam

d)

Clonazepam

72.

Xanax belongs to which drug classification family, what DEA schedule is it, and are there limitations on its refills?

a)

Benzodiazepine; Schedule IV; Yes, refills are limited to five times within six months

b)

Opioid; Schedule II; No refill limitations

c)

Stimulant; Schedule III; Unlimited refills allowed

d)

Antidepressant; Schedule V; No refills allowed

73.

The various therapeutic effects of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine in the central nervous system include which of the following?

a)

Mood regulation, alertness, and reward pathways

b)

Blood clotting, muscle contraction, and bone growth

c)

Immune suppression, hair growth, and digestion

d)

Vision improvement, skin pigmentation, and hearing enhancement

74.

Brand name drugs that selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake are known as:

a)

SSRIs

b)

MAOIs

c)

Beta blockers

d)

Antipsychotics

75.

Possible sexual side effects of Prozac include:

a)

Decreased libido

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Improved vision

d)

Hair growth

76.

Effexor is cautiously used in patients with high blood pressure because:

a)

it can increase blood pressure.

b)

it lowers blood pressure too much.

c)

it has no effect on blood pressure.

d)

it causes dehydration.

77.

The common indications for these drugs are:

a)

Treatment of specific diseases or conditions

b)

Enhancement of physical performance in healthy individuals

c)

Use as dietary supplements for general wellness

d)

Prevention of all infectious diseases

78.

Which electrolyte can be adversely affected?

a)

Potassium

b)

Glucose

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Hemoglobin

79.

The most common side effect of ACEIs and its management is:

a)

Dry cough, managed by discontinuing the drug or switching to an ARB

b)

Hyperkalemia, managed by increasing potassium intake

c)

Bradycardia, managed by reducing the dose

d)

Rash, managed by topical steroids

80.

The most serious ADR of ACEIs and its management is:

a)

Angioedema; discontinue ACEI and provide supportive care

b)

Cough; switch to ARB

c)

Hyperkalemia; increase potassium intake

d)

Rash; continue ACEI with antihistamines

81.

The suffixes that distinguish ACEIs and ARBs from other medications are:

a)

-pril and -sartan

b)

-olol and -dipine

c)

-statin and -prazole

d)

-cillin and -mycin

82.

“Good” and “bad” cholesterol are identified by their effects inside the blood vessels. Which of the following correctly describes them?

a)

HDL is “good” cholesterol as it helps remove cholesterol from blood vessels, while LDL is “bad” cholesterol as it can build up and block blood vessels.

b)

LDL is “good” cholesterol as it helps remove cholesterol from blood vessels, while HDL is “bad” cholesterol as it can build up and block blood vessels.

c)

Both HDL and LDL are “good” cholesterol and help remove cholesterol from blood vessels.

d)

Both HDL and LDL are “bad” cholesterol and can block blood vessels.

83.

The mechanism of action of statins and their efficacy in lowering bad cholesterol is best described as:

a)

Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase, leading to decreased cholesterol synthesis and lower LDL levels

b)

Stimulation of bile acid production, increasing cholesterol absorption

c)

Blocking dietary fat absorption in the intestines

d)

Enhancing triglyceride breakdown in adipose tissue

84.

A common beverage that may interfere with the metabolism of statins is:

a)

Grapefruit juice

b)

Apple juice

c)

Orange juice

d)

Tomato juice

85.

The most common side effect of statins and niacin is:

a)

Muscle pain

b)

Rash

c)

Headache

d)

Nausea

86.

Fenofibrate (Antara, Fenoglide, Lipofen, Lofibra, TriCor, and Triglide) lowers the risk of heart disease by:

a)

Lowering levels of triglycerides and increasing HDL cholesterol

b)

Increasing blood pressure

c)

Raising LDL cholesterol

d)

Suppressing the immune system

87.

Drugs that may interact with fenofibrate include:

a)

Statins

b)

Antacids

c)

Antihistamines

d)

Beta-blockers

88.

Drugs that can be used in a patient with a penicillin allergy include:

a)

Macrolides

b)

Cephalosporins

c)

Penicillins

d)

Carbapenems

89.

Which class of drugs may have a cross-sensitivity to penicillin? Identify the generic drug name of an oral formulation.

a)

Cephalexin

b)

Azithromycin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Doxycycline

90.

Common side effects and interactions for azithromycin, clindamycin, metronidazole, fluoroquinolones, tetracycline, gentamicin, and sulfa drugs include which of the following?

a)

Gastrointestinal upset, allergic reactions, and risk of drug interactions

b)

Hypertension and bradycardia

c)

Hair loss and increased appetite

d)

Improved vision and hearing

91.

Which of the following statements correctly differentiates Novolog 70/30 from Novolin 70/30 in terms of their insulin composition and action profile?

a)

Novolog 70/30 contains insulin aspart (rapid-acting) and insulin aspart protamine (intermediate-acting), while Novolin 70/30 contains regular insulin (short-acting) and NPH insulin (intermediate-acting).

b)

Both Novolog 70/30 and Novolin 70/30 contain only rapid-acting insulin.

c)

Novolog 70/30 contains regular insulin and NPH insulin, while Novolin 70/30 contains insulin aspart and insulin aspart protamine.

d)

Novolog 70/30 and Novolin 70/30 have identical insulin components and action profiles.

92.

Asthma causes over how many hospitalizations each year in the United States?

a)

450,000

b)

25,000

c)

1,700,000

d)

9,000,000

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