WorksheetsPR-1
Total questions: 128
Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
amoebas, flagellates
a)
Phylum Sarcomastigophora
b)
Phylum Ciliophora
c)
Phylum Apicomplexa
2.
Ciliates such as B. coli and Paramecium
a)
Phylum Sarcomastigophora
b)
Phylum Ciliophora
c)
Phylum Apicomplexa
3.
Coccidians, sporozoa
a)
Phylum Sarcomastigophora
b)
Phylum Ciliophora
c)
Phylum Apicomplexa
4.
represents the taxon to which the species belongs; first letter is capitalized
a)
Genus
b)
Specific epithet
5.
trivial name that distinguishes the species within the genus
a)
Genus
b)
Specific epithet
6.
stramenopiles
a)
Blastocystis spp.
b)
Microsporidians
c)
Pneumocystis jirovecii
7.
Encephalitozoon spp., Enterocytozoon spp.
a)
Blastocystis spp.
b)
Microsporidians
c)
Pneumocystis jirovecii
8.
obligate intracellular, sporeforming parasites now classified as fungi
a)
Blastocystis spp.
b)
Microsporidians
c)
Pneumocystis jirovecii
9.
atypical fungus
a)
Blastocystis spp.
b)
Microsporidians
c)
Pneumocystis jirovecii
10.
nematodes (roundworms)
a)
Phylum Nemathelminthes
b)
Phylum Platyhelminthes
11.
trematodes (flukes) and cestodes (tapeworms)
a)
Phylum Nemathelminthes
b)
Phylum Platyhelminthes
12.
ticks, mites, chiggers
a)
Class Arachnida
b)
Class Insecta
c)
Class Crustacea
13.
mosquitoes, flies, midges, bugs, lice, fleas, beetles, cockroaches
a)
Class Arachnida
b)
Class Insecta
c)
Class Crustacea
14.
crabs, crayfish, copepods
a)
Class Arachnida
b)
Class Insecta
c)
Class Crustacea
15.
living together of phylogenetically different organisms. e.g., host and parasite
a)
Symbiosis
b)
Mutualism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Parasitism
16.
beneficial to both organisms
a)
Symbiosis
b)
Mutualism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Parasitism
17.
beneficial to one organism, neutral to the other
a)
Symbiosis
b)
Mutualism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Parasitism
18.
beneficial to one organism, harmful to the other
a)
Symbiosis
b)
Mutualism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Parasitism
19.
Harbors the adult or sexual stage of a parasite
a)
Definitive
b)
Intermediate
c)
Paratenic
d)
Reservoir
20.
Harbors the larval or asexual stage of a parasite
a)
Definitive
b)
Intermediate
c)
Paratenic
d)
Reservoir
21.
Harbors a parasite that does not develop but remains alive and is infective to the next host
a)
Definitive
b)
Intermediate
c)
Paratenic
d)
Reservoir
22.
Allows the parasite’s life cycle to continue and serves as a source of human infection
a)
Definitive
b)
Intermediate
c)
Paratenic
d)
Reservoir
23.
Definite host of Plasmodium
a)
mosquito
b)
cat
c)
snails
d)
large fish
e)
snake, bird
24.
Definite host of Toxoplasma gondii
a)
mosquito
b)
cat
c)
snails
d)
large fish
e)
snake, bird
25.
Intermediate host of Wuchureria bancrofti
a)
mosquito
b)
cat
c)
snails
d)
large fish
e)
snake, bird
26.
Intermediate host of trematodes
a)
mosquito
b)
cat
c)
snails
d)
large fish
e)
snake, bird
27.
Paratenic host of D. latum
a)
mosquito
b)
cat
c)
snails
d)
large fish
e)
snake, bird
28.
Paratenic host of G. spinigerum
a)
mosquito
b)
cat
c)
snails
d)
large fish
e)
snake, bird
29.
Reservour of Balantidium coli
a)
mosquito
b)
cat
c)
snails
d)
large fish
e)
pigs
30.
Depends entirely upon its host for existence
a)
Obligate
b)
Facultative
c)
Transitory
d)
Permanent
31.
Most parasites
a)
Obligate
b)
Facultative
c)
Transitory
d)
Permanent
32.
Capable of parasitic and free-living existence
a)
Obligate
b)
Facultative
c)
Transitory
d)
Permanent
33.
Strongyloides stercoralis FLAs
a)
Obligate
b)
Facultative
c)
Transitory
d)
Permanent
34.
Larval stage is passed in a host while the adult is free living
a)
Obligate
b)
Facultative
c)
Transitory
d)
Permanent
35.
Strongyloides stercoralis
a)
Obligate
b)
Facultative
c)
Transitory
d)
Permanent
36.
Completes its life cycle in 1 host (monoxenous)
a)
Obligate
b)
Facultative
c)
Transitory
d)
Permanent
37.
H. nana
a)
Obligate
b)
Facultative
c)
Transitory
d)
Permanent
38.
Requires 2 or more hosts for the larval and adult stages
a)
Periodic
b)
Zoonotic
c)
Spurious or coprozoic
d)
Accidental / Incidental
39.
Trematodes and cestodes
a)
Periodic
b)
Zoonotic
c)
Spurious or coprozoic
d)
Accidental / Incidental
40.
Primarily infects animals and may be acquired by man thereby causing human infection
a)
Periodic
b)
Zoonotic
c)
Spurious or coprozoic
d)
Accidental / Incidental
41.
B. coli Agents of larva migrans
a)
Periodic
b)
Zoonotic
c)
Spurious or coprozoic
d)
Accidental / Incidental
42.
Passes through the intestinal tract without causing any disturbance
a)
Periodic
b)
Zoonotic
c)
Spurious or coprozoic
d)
Accidental / Incidental
43.
Fasciola hepatica (eggs)
a)
Periodic
b)
Zoonotic
c)
Spurious or coprozoic
d)
Accidental / Incidental
44.
Occurs in an unusual host
a)
Periodic
b)
Zoonotic
c)
Spurious or coprozoic
d)
Accidental / Incidental
45.
Echinococcus spp. Agents of larva migrans
a)
Periodic
b)
Zoonotic
c)
Spurious or coprozoic
d)
Accidental / Incidental
46.
Occurs in an unusual organ or habitat
a)
Erratic
b)
Endoparasites
c)
Ectoparasites
d)
Intermittent
47.
Ascaris lumbricoides (ectopic ascariasis)
a)
Erratic
b)
Endoparasites
c)
Ectoparasites
d)
Intermittent
48.
Live inside the body of a host; invasion is called infection
a)
Erratic
b)
Endoparasites
c)
Ectoparasites
d)
Intermittent
49.
Live on body surfaces or may burrow into the upper layer of the skin; invasion is called infestation
a)
Erratic
b)
Endoparasites
c)
Ectoparasites
d)
Intermittent
50.
Lice (Pediculus humanus capitis, P. h. humanus, Phthirus pubis), itch mite (Sarcoptes scabiei)
a)
Erratic
b)
Endoparasites
c)
Ectoparasites
d)
Intermittent
51.
Visit the host only during feeding time
a)
Erratic
b)
Endoparasites
c)
Ectoparasites
d)
Intermittent
52.
Bed bug, biting flies, mosquito
a)
Erratic
b)
Endoparasites
c)
Ectoparasites
d)
Intermittent
53.
transmits a parasite only after the latter has completed part of its development
a)
Biologic
b)
Mechanical / Phoretic
54.
– responsible only for transporting the parasite
a)
Biologic
b)
Mechanical / Phoretic
55.
vector of Plasmodium spp., Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi
a)
Mosquitoes
b)
Biting flies
c)
Kissing bugs
d)
Ticks
e)
Cockroaches, house flies
56.
vector of Leishmania spp., Trypanosoma brucei, other filariae
a)
Mosquitoes
b)
Biting flies
c)
Kissing bugs
d)
Ticks
e)
Cockroaches, house flies
57.
vector of Trypanosoma cruzi
a)
Mosquitoes
b)
Biting flies
c)
Kissing bugs
d)
Ticks
e)
Cockroaches, house flies
58.
vector of Babesia spp.
a)
Mosquitoes
b)
Biting flies
c)
Kissing bugs
d)
Ticks
e)
Cockroaches, house flies
59.
Mechanical vectors of Ascaris lumbricoides & other enteric parasites
a)
Mosquitoes
b)
Biting flies
c)
Kissing bugs
d)
Ticks
e)
Cockroaches, house flies
60.
Antacids, antidiarrheals, barium, bismuth, laxatives (leave crystalline residues)
a)
7 to 10 days
b)
3 weeks
c)
30 mins
d)
1 hour
e)
24 hours
61.
gallbladder dyes
a)
7 to 10 days
b)
3 weeks
c)
30 mins
d)
1 hour
e)
24 hours
62.
liquid specimens must be examined within
a)
7 to 10 days
b)
3 weeks
c)
30 mins
d)
1 hour
e)
24 hours
63.
soft or semi-formed specimens must be examined within
a)
7 to 10 days
b)
3 weeks
c)
30 mins
d)
1 hour
e)
24 hours
64.
formed specimens may be examined within
a)
7 to 10 days
b)
3 weeks
c)
30 mins
d)
1 hour
e)
24 hours
65.
▪ prepared by mixing approximately 2 mg of stool with a drop of 0.85% NSS
a)
Wet mount
b)
Concentration techniques
c)
Flotation Procedures
66.
useful in the detection of motile protozoan trophozoites, helminth eggs, and larvae
a)
Wet mount
b)
Concentration techniques
c)
Flotation Procedures
67.
may be stained by iodine to enhance the visibility of nuclear structures in protozoal cysts and aid in detecting glycogen inclusions
a)
Wet mount
b)
Concentration techniques
c)
Flotation Procedures
68.
Formalin preservative ; Ether/ethyl acetate extract fats
a)
Formalin-ether (or ethyl acetate) concentration technique
b)
Acid-ether concentration technique
69.
Can be used with specimens preserved in formalin, MIF or SAF
a)
Formalin-ether (or ethyl acetate) concentration technique
b)
Acid-ether concentration technique
70.
Efficient in recovering most protozoan cysts and helminth eggs and larvae, including operculate eggs, and is moderately effective for schistosome eggs
a)
Formalin-ether (or ethyl acetate) concentration technique
b)
Acid-ether concentration technique
71.
Less distortion of protozoal cysts compared to AECT and zinc sulfate flotation
a)
Formalin-ether (or ethyl acetate) concentration technique
b)
Acid-ether concentration technique
72.
40% HCl acts as clearing agent
a)
Formalin-ether (or ethyl acetate) concentration technique
b)
Acid-ether concentration technique
73.
▪ Recommended for animal parasites, Trichuris, Capillaria, and Schistosoma eggs
a)
Formalin-ether (or ethyl acetate) concentration technique
b)
Acid-ether concentration technique
74.
Parasites may be lost to the plug of debris; possible destruction of protozoan cysts
a)
Formalin-ether (or ethyl acetate) concentration technique
b)
Acid-ether concentration technique
75.
33% ZnSO4 with SG of 1.18 for processing fresh feces
a)
Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation
b)
Brine’s flotation
c)
Sheather’s flotation
76.
(SG adjusted to 1.2 if specimen is formalinized)
a)
Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation
b)
Brine’s flotation
c)
Sheather’s flotation
77.
Cleaner preparation but is unreliable for the recovery of nematode larvae, infertile eggs of Ascaris, eggs of Taenia, schistosomes and other cestodes and trematodes
a)
Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation
b)
Brine’s flotation
c)
Sheather’s flotation
78.
Uses saturated salt solution with a SG of 1.2 ; no centrifugation is required
a)
Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation
b)
Brine’s flotation
c)
Sheather’s flotation
79.
Not applicable for operculate and thin-shelled eggs
a)
Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation
b)
Brine’s flotation
c)
Sheather’s flotation
80.
Uses boiled sugar solution preserved with phenol
a)
Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation
b)
Brine’s flotation
c)
Sheather’s flotation
81.
▪ Preferred for concentrating coccidian oocysts (C. parvum, C. belli, C. cayetanensis)
a)
Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation
b)
Brine’s flotation
c)
Sheather’s flotation
82.
Identification of intestinal protozoans (cysts and trophozoites of amebae, flagellates, and ciliates)
a)
Iron Hematoxylin
b)
Wheatley’s Trichrome
c)
Modified Trichrome
d)
Modified acid-fast stain
83.
Demonstration of microsporidium spores; Calcufluor white may also be used
a)
Iron Hematoxylin
b)
Wheatley’s Trichrome
c)
Modified Trichrome
d)
Modified acid-fast stain
84.
Demonstration of Coccidian oocyst
a)
Iron Hematoxylin
b)
Wheatley’s Trichrome
c)
Modified Trichrome
d)
Modified acid-fast stain
85.
Pink-red (acid-fast)
a)
Iron Hematoxylin
b)
Wheatley’s Trichrome
c)
Modified Trichrome
d)
Modified acid-fast stain
86.
Bright pinkish red spore wall with a stripe or diagonal line
a)
Iron Hematoxylin
b)
Wheatley’s Trichrome
c)
Modified Trichrome
d)
Modified acid-fast stain
87.
Cytoplasm – blue to green with purplish tint Nucleus, inclusions, Charcot-Leyden crystals - red
a)
Iron Hematoxylin
b)
Wheatley’s Trichrome
c)
Modified Trichrome
d)
Modified acid-fast stain
88.
Shades of gray-blue to black
a)
Iron Hematoxylin
b)
Wheatley’s Trichrome
c)
Modified Trichrome
d)
Modified acid-fast stain
89.
Approximately 50 to 60 mg of stool placed over a glass slide and covered with cellophane that has been soaked in a mixture of glycine and malachite green; useful in mass stool examination
a)
Kato Thick smear
b)
Kato-Katz
90.
h uses a measured amount of stool sieved through a wire mesh
a)
Kato Thick smear
b)
Kato-Katz
91.
Neutrophils resemble
a)
Mature E. histolytica cysts
b)
Amebic trophozoites
c)
Protozoan cysts or helminth eggs
d)
Hookworm eggs
e)
Taenia or Ascaris eggs
92.
Macrophages, squamous and columnar epithelial cells resemble
a)
Mature E. histolytica cysts
b)
Amebic trophozoites
c)
Protozoan cysts or helminth eggs
d)
Hookworm eggs
e)
Taenia or Ascaris eggs
93.
Yeast, fungal conidia, mushroom spores, diatoms resemble
a)
Mature E. histolytica cysts
b)
Amebic trophozoites
c)
Protozoan cysts or helminth eggs
d)
Hookworm eggs
e)
Taenia or Ascaris eggs
94.
Mite eggs resemble
a)
Mature E. histolytica cysts
b)
Amebic trophozoites
c)
Protozoan cysts or helminth eggs
d)
Hookworm eggs
e)
Taenia or Ascaris eggs
95.
Pollen grains resemble
a)
Mature E. histolytica cysts
b)
Amebic trophozoites
c)
Protozoan cysts or helminth eggs
d)
Hookworm eggs
e)
Taenia or Ascaris eggs
96.
involves diluting 4 g of stool with 56 mL 0.1 N NaOH using calibrated Stoll flask and pipette followed by counting eggs in 0.15 mL of the diluted sample (epg = eggs/slide x 100)
a)
Stoll dilution
b)
Faust-Meleney egg hatching technique
97.
used to determine severity of Schistosoma infection
a)
Stoll dilution
b)
Faust-Meleney egg hatching technique
98.
used to detect eggs of E. vermicularis ; a drop of xylene or toluene may be added to improve the visualization of eggs. Repeat 4 to 6 times to confirm a negative result.
a)
Perianal swab
b)
Sigmoidoscopy
c)
Entero test
99.
for the diagnosis of E. histolytica infection
a)
Perianal swab
b)
Sigmoidoscopy
c)
Entero test
100.
useful for the recovery of Giardia lamblia, Cryptosporidium parvum, Strongyloides stercoralis, and other intestinal parasites
a)
Perianal swab
b)
Sigmoidoscopy
c)
Entero test
101.
involves mixing stool suspension with granulated charcoal; larvae are harvested after 5-6 days using the Boerman technique
a)
Charcoal culture
b)
Harada-Mori or Test tube culture method
c)
Agar plate culture
102.
– involves applying positive stool to a filter paper strip and placing it into a test tube with distilled water for 10 days at 25-30°C
a)
Charcoal culture
b)
Harada-Mori or Test tube culture method
c)
Agar plate culture
103.
sensitive technique for the recovery of S. stercoralis larvae; involves placing 2 g stool in an agar plate and incubating at 26-33°C for 2 days
a)
Charcoal culture
b)
Harada-Mori or Test tube culture method
c)
Agar plate culture
104.
uses 2-3 small drops of blood which are mixed to form a circular smear; dehemoglobinized prior to staining
a)
Thick Blood Smear
b)
Thin Blood Smear
105.
used for rapid diagnosis of malaria and demonstration of trypomastigotes and microfilaria
a)
Thick Blood Smear
b)
Thin Blood Smear
106.
prepared in a way that the smear is thick at one end, thin and feathery at the other end; fixed with alcohol prior to staining
a)
Thick Blood Smear
b)
Thin Blood Smear
107.
used for species identification
a)
Thick Blood Smear
b)
Thin Blood Smear
108.
Parasites/µL blood = (parasites / WBCs counted) × WBC count or 8,000 WBCs/µL
a)
Thick Blood Smear
b)
Thin Blood Smear
109.
% parasitemia = (parasitized RBCs / total RBCs counted) × 100
a)
Thick Blood Smear
b)
Thin Blood Smear
110.
recommended for detection and identification of blood parasites
a)
Giemsa stain
b)
Wright's stain
c)
Delafield Hematoxylin
d)
Kawamoto technique
111.
not optimal for blood parasites
a)
Giemsa stain
b)
Wright's stain
c)
Delafield Hematoxylin
d)
Kawamoto technique
112.
– used to demonstrate the detailed structures of microfilariae; requires dehemoglobinization of thick films with 2% formalin in 1% acetic acid
a)
Giemsa stain
b)
Wright's stain
c)
Delafield Hematoxylin
d)
Kawamoto technique
113.
blood smears are stained with acridine orange which results in a differential staining of nuclear DNA in green and of cytoplasmic RNA in red
a)
Giemsa stain
b)
Wright's stain
c)
Delafield Hematoxylin
d)
Kawamoto technique
114.
Leishmania amastigotes resemble which of the following artifacts?
a)
Elongated and degenerating platelets
b)
NRBCs
c)
Yeast/fungal elements
115.
Plasmodium schizonts resemble which of the following artifacts?
a)
Elongated and degenerating platelets
b)
NRBCs
c)
Yeast/fungal elements
116.
Trypomastigotes and malarial stages resemble which of the following artifacts?
a)
Elongated and degenerating platelets
b)
NRBCs
c)
Yeast/fungal elements
117.
1 mL of blood is mixed with 10 mL 2% formalin followed by centrifugation. Sediment is then examined as a wet mount or as a stained smear
a)
Knott's concentration
b)
Membrane filtration
118.
1 mL of blood is lysed with 10 mL distilled water in a syringe with a 5-µm membrane filter attached
a)
Knott's concentration
b)
Membrane filtration
119.
EIA can be used for antigen detection in?
a)
Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lamblia, Cryptosporidium parvum
b)
Trichomonas vaginalis
c)
Plasmodium spp.
d)
Plasmodium falciparum
120.
Targets HRP2 (HISTIDINE-RICH PROTEIN 2)
a)
Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lamblia, Cryptosporidium parvum
b)
Trichomonas vaginalis
c)
Plasmodium spp.
d)
Plasmodium falciparum
121.
Targets pLDH
a)
Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lamblia, Cryptosporidium parvum
b)
Trichomonas vaginalis
c)
Plasmodium spp.
d)
Plasmodium falciparum
122.
Circumoval precipitin test
a)
Leishmania spp.
b)
Trypanosoma cruzi
c)
Schistosoma spp.
d)
Toxoplasma gondii
123.
Complement fixation can be done in
a)
Leishmania spp.
b)
Trypanosoma cruzi
c)
Schistosoma spp.
d)
Toxoplasma gondii
124.
Sabin-Feldman dye test is the gold standard for
a)
Trichinella spiralis
b)
Trypanosoma cruzi
c)
Schistosoma spp.
d)
Toxoplasma gondii
125.
IHA can be used in
a)
Trichinella spiralis
b)
Echinococcus granulosus
c)
Schistosoma spp.
d)
Toxoplasma gondii
126.
separation of template DNA to single strands (94°C)
a)
Denaturation
b)
Annealing
c)
Elongation or extension
127.
– binding of primers specific for each target strand sequence (50-65°C)
a)
Denaturation
b)
Annealing
c)
Elongation or extension
128.
addition of deoxyribonucleotides to produce new strands (72°C)
a)
Denaturation
b)
Annealing
c)
Elongation or extension
100 %
