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Geography- ONLINE QUIZ

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Consider the following example carefully and identify the approach of geography reflected in it. “A phenomenon is studied world over as a whole, and then the identification of typologies or spatial patterns is done”.

a)

Welfare approach

b)

Regional approach

c)

Systematic approach

d)

Environmental adaptation

2.

Consider the following characteristics and choose suitable title for them from the given options: I. Dualism is one of the main characteristics of geography which got introduced from the very beginning. II. In the regional approach, the world is divided into regions at different hierarchical levels. III. The fertility of the soil is both naturally determined and culturally induced.

a)

Only I and II are correct

b)

Only I and III are correct

c)

Only II and III are correct

d)

All are correct

3.

Which of the following factor is ESSENTIAL for sustainable development?

a)

To understand the nature of human being

b)

To understand the nature of landforms

c)

better understanding of human culture and their habits

d)

a better understanding of physical environment

4.

Which of the following is NOT a recent development in the field of geography?

a)

Explorations of new areas through voyages

b)

Transformation of manual cartography into computer cartography

c)

Development of GIS and GPS to increase knowledge

d)

Availability of extensive information through internet

5.

Which of the following factors helped human beings to move from the stage of necessity to a stage of freedom?

a)

Technology

b)

Laws of nature

c)

Literacy level

d)

Availability of resources

6.

Which of the following forms a correct group?

a)

Economic geography, Geomorphology, Historical geography

b)

Regional Analysis, Regional planning, Climatology

c)

Geomorphology, Climatology, Hydrology, Soil geography

d)

Social geography, Regional Development, Population and settlement, Hydrology

7.

Which of the following concept is described by most of the scholars in the definition about geography?

a)

The Earth as the home of human being only

b)

The earth as the abode of plants and animals

c)

The earth as the abode of human beings

d)

The earth and its cultural and physical features

8.

There exist variations over the surface of the earth in its physical as well as cultural environment. This concept in Geography is suitably depicted by which of the following concepts?

a)

Areal differentiation

b)

Spatial organization

c)

Regional synthesis

d)

Dichotomy

9.

Under which approach is the world divided into regions at different hierarchical levels and then all the geographical phenomena in a particular region are studied?

a)

Systematic Approach

b)

Physical Approach

c)

Dualism Approach

d)

Regional Approach

10.

Which of the following statement is not true with respect to Regional Geography?

a)

This approach was given by Karl Ritter.

b)

In this approach the world is divided into regions at different hierarchical levels.

c)

This approach is the same as that of general geography.

d)

In this approach a region is studied in a holistic manner.

11.

Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?

a)

Political Geography - Delimitation of constituencies

b)

Historical Geography - Temporal changes of geographical phenomena

c)

Soil Geography - Cultural elements

d)

Geomorphology - Evolution of landforms

12.

Assertion (A): Geography in the twentieth century became a discipline that studied the earth’s surface from two perspectives systematic and regional. Reason (R): Humans remained a central theme in the study of geography

a)

Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

Both A and R is true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is true but R is false.

d)

A is false and R is true.

13.

Assertion (A): A geographer should have some knowledge in mathematics and art, particularly in drawing maps. Reason (R): Geography is very much linked with astrological studies.

a)

Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is true but R is false.

d)

A is false and R is true.

14.

Assertion (A): Population geography is closely linked with the discipline of demography. Reason (R): It studies population growth, density, distribution, sex ratio, migration, and occupational structure, etc.

a)

Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

Both A and R is true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is true but R is false.

d)

A is false and R is true.

15.

Assertion (A): Climate does not influence life of human beings. Reason (R): Temperature and precipitation affects density of forests and quality of grassland.

a)

Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

Both A and R is true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is true but R is false.

d)

A is false and R is true.

16.

Assertion (A): Climate does not influence life of human beings. Reason (R): Temperature and precipitation affects density of forests and quality of grassland.

a)

Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

Both A and R is true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is true but R is false.

d)

A is false and R is true.

17.

Which theory explains the origin of the universe?

a)

Steady State Theory

b)

Big Bang Theory

c)

String Theory

d)

Nebular Hypothesis

18.

What does the Big Bang Theory state about the universe?

a)

It is shrinking.

b)

It is static.

c)

It is expanding.

d)

It will collapse soon.

19.

Which gas was least present in the early atmosphere of Earth?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Methane

c)

Oxygen

d)

Water vapours

20.

The planetesimals were formed by the process of:

a)

Differentiation

b)

Accretion

c)

Degassing

d)

Photosynthesis

21.

The earth’s interior is composed of layers due to:

a)

Accretion

b)

Differentiation

c)

Nebular cooling

d)

Gas compression

22.

What is the approximate distance covered by light in one year?

a)

300,000 km

b)

149.6 million km

c)

9.461 trillion km

d)

1.5 million km

23.

Which event increased the oxygen content in the Earth's atmosphere?

a)

Volcanic eruptions

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Differentiation

d)

Solar winds

24.

What marks the last phase in Earth's evolution?

a)

Formation of crust

b)

Origin of life

c)

Evolution of oceans

d)

Loss of primordial atmosphere

25.

ASSERTION AND REASONS: 1. Assertion (A): The Nebular Hypothesis suggests that planets formed from a rotating cloud of gas and dust. Reason (R): Gravitational forces did not cause the materials in the cloud to collide and form larger bodies.

a)

Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

b)

Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

c)

A is true, but R is false.

d)

A is false, but R is true.

26.

ASSERTION AND REASONS: 2. Assertion (A): The Big Bang Theory explains the origin of the universe as a massive expansion of a singularity. Reason (R): The universe has been expanding since the Big Bang, which occurred approximately 13.7 billion years ago.

a)

Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

b)

Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

c)

A is true, but R is false.

d)

A is false, but R is true.

27.

ASSERTION AND REASONS: 3. Assertion (A): Stars form within large clouds of gas called nebulae. Reason (R): Differences in gravitational forces cause matter in the nebula to clump together and form stars.

a)

Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

b)

Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

c)

A is true, but R is false.

d)

A is false, but R is true.

28.

Assertion (A): Galaxies are collections of stars, gas, and dust held together by gravity. Reason (R): A galaxy forms from the accumulation of hydrogen gas into a nebula.

a)

A. Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

b)

B. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

c)

C. A is true, but R is false.

d)

D. A is false, but R is true.

29.

Assertion (A): Planetesimals are small objects that form during the early stages of planet formation. Reason (R): Cohesion and collisions among smaller particles lead to the development of planetesimals.

a)

A. Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

b)

B. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

c)

C. A is true, but R is false.

d)

D. A is false, but R is true.

30.

Assertion (A): Accretion is the process responsible for forming planets from planetesimals. Reason (R): Planetesimals are small objects that form during the early stages of planet formation.

a)

A. Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

b)

B. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

c)

C. A is true, but R is false.

d)

D. A is false, but R is true.

31.

Assertion (A): The early Earth's atmosphere was dominated by Hydrogen and Oxygen. Reason (R): Hydrogen and Helium were stripped away by solar winds during Earth's early evolution.

a)

A. Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

b)

B. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

c)

C. A is true, but R is false.

d)

D. A is false, but R is true.

32.

Assertion (A): Oceans formed as water vapours condensed and accumulated in surface depressions. Reason (R): Continuous volcanic eruptions released large amounts of water vapours into the atmosphere.

a)

A. Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

b)

B. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

c)

C. A is true, but R is false.

d)

D. A is false, but R is true.

33.

Assertion (A): Photosynthesis by early organisms transformed Earth's atmosphere. Reason (R): Photosynthesis released oxygen, which eventually became a major component of the atmosphere.

a)

A. Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

b)

B. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

c)

C. A is true, but R is false.

d)

D. A is false, but R is true.

34.

Assertion (A): Life on Earth began approximately 3.6 billion years ago. Reason (R): Chemical reactions in early Earth's oceans formed complex organic molecules that could duplicate themselves converting inanimate matter into living substance.

a)

A. Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

b)

B. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

c)

C. A is true, but R is false.

d)

D. A is false, but R is true.

35.

Which of the following statement is the most appropriate reason of earthquake waves developing a shadow zone?

a)

Composition of material in the shadow zone is impermeable.

b)

The body waves (p and s waves) follow the Snell’s law when they pass from one medium to another and hence deflect from the path.

c)

Secondary waves do not pass through liquid medium (outer core).

d)

Both (b) and (c).

36.

Seismic activity is one of the most important sources of information about the interior of the earth. Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the nature of p and s waves:

a)

Both P and S waves can travel only in solid and gaseous mediums.

b)

P waves speed is highest in solid medium.

c)

Shadow zone of S waves form the boundary of outer core as it is in liquid state.

d)

Both (b) and (c)

37.

How do meteorites contribute to our understanding of the Earth's interior?

a)

The material that becomes available for analysis from meteors, is from the interior of the earth.

b)

They provide information about volcanic activity

c)

The material and the structure observed in the meteors are similar to that of the earth.

d)

They help in understanding seismic wave behaviour.

38.

Consider the various sources of information about the interior of the earth: 1. Seismic Activity 2. Volcanoes 3. Gravitational force 4. Magnetic field 5. Meteors 6. Surface Rocks Which one of the above sources are indirect source of information about the Interior of the Earth?

a)

1, 3, 4 and 5

b)

1, 2, 3 and 5

c)

6 only

d)

All of the above

39.

Which of the following sources provides the most direct evidence about the composition of the Earth's mantle?

a)

Seismic waves

b)

Meteorites

c)

Volcanic eruptions

d)

Gravitational studies

40.

Identify the incorrect statement.

a)

Different types of earthquake waves travel in same manner.

b)

P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave.

c)

The direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane.

d)

Surface waves are considered to be the most dangerous.

41.

Hawaiian volcanoes are famous examples of:

a)

Flood basalt province

b)

Shield volcanoes

c)

Composite volcanoes

d)

Caldera

42.

Earthquakes are generated due to sliding of rocks along a fault plane. Identify the type of earthquakes.

a)

Collapse Earthquakes

b)

Tectonic Earthquakes

c)

Volcanic Earthquakes

43.

Identify the incorrect statement.

a)

Velocity of earthquake waves changes as they travel through materials with different densities.

b)

The denser the material, the lower is the velocity.

c)

Their direction also changes as they reflect or refract when coming across materials with different densities

d)

None of the above

44.

------- causes waves to rebound whereas ------- makes waves move in different directions.

a)

Refraction, Reflection

b)

Reflection, Refraction

c)

Absorption, Resonance

d)

Resonance, Absorption

45.

Consider the following statements and identify the statement associated with P-waves.

a)

These waves move along the surface of the earth.

b)

They create density differences in the material leading to stretching and squeezing of the material.

c)

They create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass.

d)

are considered to be the most damaging waves.

46.

Consider the following statements regarding layered structure of earth: 1. Inner Core is the densest layer of earth’s interior. 2. Continental crust is thicker than the oceanic crust. Choose the correct statements?

a)

Only 1

b)

Only 2

c)

Both 1 and 2

d)

None of the above

47.

Which of the following are correctly matched?

a)

Only 1

b)

Only 2

c)

Both 1 and 3

d)

All are correctly matched.

48.

Assertion (A): S-waves create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass. Reason (R): The direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane.

a)

A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is false but R is true.

d)

A is true but R is false.

49.

Assertion (A): The outer core of the earth's interior is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state. Reason (R): The p-waves disappear in outer core while S-waves penetrate up to the inner core.

a)

A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is false but R is true.

d)

A is true but R is false.

50.

25. Assertion (A) The upper portion of the mantle is called asthenosphere. Reason (R) Asthenosphere is the main source of magma.

a)

A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is false but R is true.

d)

A is true but R is false.

51.

Assertion (A): Shield volcanoes are not very steep. Reason(R): These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that is very fluid when erupted.

a)

A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is false but R is true.

d)

A is true but R is false.

52.

Assertion (A): The configuration of the surface of the earth is largely a product of the processes operating in the interior of the earth. Reason(R): Exogenic as well as endogenic processes are constantly shaping the landscape.

a)

A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is false but R is true.

d)

A is true but R is false.

53.

Who among the following was the first to consider the possibility of Europe, Africa and America having been located side by side?

a)

Alfred Wegener

b)

Antonio Pellegrini

c)

Abraham Ortelius

d)

Edmond Hess

54.

Pole fleeing force relates to

a)

Revolution of the earth

b)

Rotation of the earth

c)

Gravitation

d)

Tides

55.

Which one of the following is not a minor plate?

a)

Nazca

b)

Arabia

c)

Philippines

d)

Antarctica

56.

Which one of the following facts was not considered by those while discussing the concept of sea floor spreading?

a)

Volcanic activity along the mid oceanic ridges

b)

Stripes of normal and reverse magnetic field observed in rocks of ocean floor

c)

Distribution of fossils in different continents

d)

Age of rocks from the ocean floor

57.

Which one of the following is a type of plate boundary of the Indian plate along the Himalayan mountains?

a)

Ocean continent convergence

b)

Divergent boundary

58.

Identify the incorrect statement:

a)

Alfred Wegener propounded continental drift theory in 1912.

b)

All continents formed a single continental landmass-Panthalassa.

c)

200 years ago the super continent began to split.

d)

Super continent broke into Laurasia and Gondwanaland.

59.

The pacific rim is also called rim of fire due to:

a)

Prevalence of occurrence of forest fires.

b)

High temperatures throughout the year.

c)

High occurrence of earthquakes.

d)

Existence of active volcanoes.

60.

Identify the incorrect statement:

a)

A tectonic plate is a massive irregularly-shaped slab of solid rock.

b)

A plate is generally composed of either continental or oceanic lithosphere.

c)

A plate may be referred to as continental or oceanic plate.

d)

The thickness of tectonic plate varies between 5-200 kms.

61.

Assertion (A) Divergent plate margin are also called constructive plate margins. Reason (R) Along divergent plate margins magma comes up to the surface and forms new crust.

a)

A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is false but R is true.

d)

A is true but R is false.

62.

Assertion (A) Along transform boundaries, crust is neither produced nor destroyed. Reason (R) Along transform boundaries the plates horizontally pass each other.

a)

A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is false but R is true.

d)

A is true but R is false.

63.

Assertion (A) Rich placer deposits of gold are found on the Ghana coast and gold bearing veins are found in Brazil. Reason (B) At some points of time these continents were joined together along the Atlantic coast.

a)

A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is false but R is true.

d)

A is true but R is false.

64.

Which force helps in Geomorphic Processes?

a)

Endogenic Forces

b)

Exogenic Forces

c)

Both a& b

d)

None

65.

Which one of the following materials is affected by hydration process?

a)

Granite

b)

Clay

c)

Quartz

d)

Salts

66.

Which of the following is a type of mass movements?

a)

Slow movements

b)

Rapid movements

c)

Landslides

d)

All of the above

67.

Which of the following is not correct with respect to epeirogenic processes?

a)

Uplifting or warping of earth’s crust

b)

Involved in continental building

c)

Crust is severely deformed into folds

d)

It is a form of diastrophism

68.

Q5. Which of the following is not a reason for landslide in Western Ghat and Nilgiri region?

a)

Heavy rainfall

b)

Deforestation

c)

Earthquakes

d)

Low population density

69.

Which of the following is not correct about deposition?

a)

It is a consequence of erosion

b)

Finer material gets deposited first and then coarser material.

c)

It is an endogenic process.

d)

Both (b) and (c)

70.

Consider the following statements. Which of the given statements is correct?

a)

Only 1

b)

Both 1 and 2

c)

Only 2

d)

None of these

71.

In which of the following stages of landform development, downward cutting is dominated?

a)

Youth stage

b)

Late mature stage

c)

Early mature stage

d)

Old stage

72.

A deep valley characterized by steep step-like side slopes is known as

a)

U-shaped valley

b)

Gorge

c)

Blind valley

d)

Canyon

73.

In which one of the following regions the chemical weathering process is more dominant than the mechanical process?

a)

Humid region

b)

Limestone region

c)

Arid region

d)

Glacier region

74.

A deep, long and wide trough or basin with very steep concave high walls at its head as well as in sides is known as:

a)

Cirque

b)

Glacial valley

c)

Lateral Moraine

d)

Esker

75.

Which one of the following processes is a gradational process?

a)

Deposition

b)

Diastrophism

c)

Volcanism

d)

Erosion

76.

Which one of the following sentences best defines the term ‘Lapies’?

4 lines
77.

A landform whose opening is more or less circular at the top and funnel shaped towards bottom is called a _________.

a)

sinkhole

b)

mesa

c)

butte

d)

delta

78.

A landform formed due to dripping water from the surface is called a _________.

a)

stalactite

b)

delta

c)

mesa

d)

butte

79.

An irregular surface with sharp pinnacles, grooves and ridges is called a _________.

a)

karst topography

b)

delta plain

c)

alluvial fan

d)

drumlin field

80.

Sea salt, pollen, ash, smoke soot, fine soil- these are associated with:

a)

Gases

b)

Dust particles

c)

Water vapour

d)

Meteors

81.

Ozone gas is present in –

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Ionosphere

82.

Which layer of atmosphere is found up between heights of 50-80 km?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Ozone Layer

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Ionosphere

83.

Which layer of the atmosphere has average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Ozone Layer

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Ionosphere

84.

Which of the following state has not common border with Pakistan?

a)

Gujrat

b)

Himachal Pradesh

c)

Rajasthan

d)

Jammu and Kashmir

85.

Which of the following state is not Himalayan State?

a)

Sikkim

b)

Uttarakhand

c)

Bihar

d)

Himachal Pradesh

86.

Which of the following state does not share its border with China?

a)

Assam

b)

Sikkim

c)

Himachal Pradesh

d)

Arunachal Pradesh

87.

Largest lake of India lake Chilika is found in the following State

a)

Gujrat

b)

West Bengal

c)

Orissa

d)

Andhra Pradesh

88.

Assertion (A): Northern part of India is located in subtropical part and southern part of India is located in tropical zone Reasoning (R): Tropic of Cancer passes through centre of India

a)

Both A and R are correct and R explain A completely

b)

Both A and R incorrect

c)

A is correct and R is not correct explain action

d)

A is incorrect and R is correct

89.

Assertion (A): From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of 2 hours Reasoning (R): Eastern and western ends have 30 degree longitude difference

a)

Both A and R are correct and R explain A completely

b)

Both A and R incorrect

c)

A is correct and R is not correct explain action

d)

A is incorrect and R is correct

90.

Assertion (A): All watches in Kolkata Delhi Mumbai Chennai show the same time Reasoning (R): All these places are located on standard meridian of India

a)

Both A and R are correct and R explain A completely

b)

Both A and R incorrect

c)

A is correct and R is not correct explain action

d)

A is incorrect and R is correct

91.

What is the concept of watersheds related to?

a)

Plate tectonics

b)

Drainage system

c)

Mountain formation

d)

Soil erosion

92.

Which of the following is the approximate length of the Great Himalayan range, also known as the central axial range from east to west?

a)

a) 2300 km

b)

b) 2400 km

c)

c) 2500 km

d)

d) 2600 km

93.

Which of the following is the oldest and the most stable landmass of India?

a)

a) Himalayas

b)

b) Northern Plain

c)

c) Peninsular Plateau

d)

d) Coastal Plain

94.

It is an extension of the main peninsular plateau in the northeastern part of India. Which of the following part is this?

a)

a) Rajmahal Hills

b)

b) Chhotanagpur

c)

c) Karbi-Anglong Plateau

d)

d) Nilgiri Hills

95.

Waterbody separating Andaman group of islands from Nicobar group

a)

a . Nine degree channel

b)

b. ten degree channel

c)

c. six degree channel

d)

d. four degree channel

96.

Which of the following river is known as Sorrow of Bihar?

a)

A) Kosi

b)

B) Damodar

c)

C) Ramganga

d)

D) Kali

97.

Bad land topography is found in which of the following river basin?

a)

A) Chambal

b)

B) Luni

c)

C) Son

d)

D) Gandak

98.

Which of the following drainage patterns and their characteristics are correctly matched?

(Drainage Pattern) & (Characteristics)

a)

A) Dendritic - The primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel

to each other and secondary tributaries join

them at right angles.

b)

B) Radial - The rivers originate from a hill and flow in all

directions.

c)

C) Trellis - The rivers discharge their waters from all

directions in a lake or depression.

d)

D) Centripetal - Resembling the branches of a tree.

99.

Which of the following is the largest river system of Rajasthan?

a)

A) Mandovi

b)

B) Luni

c)

C) Mahi

d)

D) Juari

100.

A river drains the water collected from a specific area, which is called its __________________.

a)

A) Drainage System

b)

B) Drainage

c)

C) Catchment Area

d)

D) Watershed