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Worksheets

COSM 1070 Part 1

Total questions: 252

Worksheet time: 2hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The appearance of the nails is said to reflect the _____ of the body.

a)

general health

b)

height

c)

age

d)

weight

2.

The surface of a normal, healthy nail _______________.

a)

is spotted

b)

has hollows

c)

has no grooves

d)

is rough

3.

The natural nail is composed mainly of the same fiber protein found in_______________.

a)

neurons

b)

the lining of the stomach

c)

blood

d)

hair

4.

A normal healthy nail is ____________.

a)

soft

b)

dull

c)

white

d)

flexible

5.

The area under the nail plate typically has a ____ appearance in the area that extends from the lunula to the area just before the free edge of the nail.

a)

whitish

b)

grayish

c)

bluish

d)

pinkish

6.

The nail plate_______________.

a)

sits on the free edge

b)

is the lunula

c)

slowly slides across the nail bed as it grows

d)

sits on the nail matrix

7.

The nail plate is constructed of about ___ layers of nail cells.

a)


1

b)

50

c)

10

d)

100

8.

The ____ is the portion of living skin that supports the nail plate as it grows toward the free edge.

a)

nail unit

b)

nail fold

c)

nail groove

d)

nail bed

9.

The lunula is the visible part of the_______________.

a)

ligament

b)

cuticle

c)

matrix

d)

free edge

10.

Which of the following attaches the nail bed to the nail plate?

a)

bed epithelium

b)

eponychium

c)

hyponychium

d)

matrix

11.

The hardened keratin plate covering the nail bed is called the_______________.

a)

bed epithelium

b)

nail plate

c)

natural nail unit

d)

cuticle

12.

A ___ is a tough band of fibrous tissue that connects bones or holds an organ in place.

a)

nail plate

b)

lunula

c)

matrix

d)

ligament

13.

The folds of normal skin that surround the nail plate are called_______________.

a)

nail folds

b)

nail trails

c)

nail canals

d)

nail grooves

14.

The nail plate is_______________.

a)

very water absorbent

b)

relatively porous to water


c)

relatively resistant to water

d)

completely waterproof

15.

The lower the water content in the nail, the _____ it becomes.

a)

more rigid

b)

darker in color

c)

lighter in color

d)

less rigid

16.

What does a cuticle remover do?

a)

condition the eponychium

b)

stiffen the cuticle

c)

remove the hyponychium

d)

remove cuticle tissue

17.

The cuticle’s job is to_______________.

a)

adhere the nail plate to the nail bed

b)

act as a protective barrier between the fingertip and the free edge

c)

produce the nail plate cells

d)

form a seal between the PNF and nail plate

18.

Answering yes to which one of the following questions tells you that the tissue is the proximal nail fold, not the cuticle?

a)

Is the tissue any part of the skin that covers the nail plate and matrix?

b)

Is the tissue nonliving and not directly attached to living skin?

c)

Is the tissue adhered directly to the plate but removable with gentle scraping?

d)

Is the tissue very thin and colorless but easily visible under close inspection?

19.

Cuticle softeners are not designed for the_______________.

a)

cuticle

b)

lateral sidewalls

c)

eponychium

d)

hyponychium

20.

Nails typically grow the fastest during which season?

a)

spring

b)

summer

c)

fall

d)

winter

21.

Nail growth rates tend to increase dramatically during the _____ trimester of pregnancy.

a)

first

b)

last

c)

fourth

d)

second

22.

The nail on which finger typically grows fastest?

a)

middle finger


b)

index finger

c)

ring finger

d)

thumb

23.

How long does it take for a toenail to be fully replaced?

a)

6 to 8 months

b)

9 to 12 months

c)

9 to 12 weeks

d)

6 to 8 weeks

24.

Normal, healthy nails grow in what shape?

a)

They only grow in a squoval shape.


b)

They only grow in a rectangular shape.

c)

They only grow in an oval shape.

d)

They can grow in a variety of shapes.

25.

After delivering a child, a woman's nail growth_______________.

a)

stops

b)

remains unchanged

c)

speeds up dramatically

d)

slows down dramatically

26.

A longer matrix produces a_______________.

a)

thicker nail plate

b)

thinner nail plate

c)

slightly curved free edge

d)

highly curved free edge

27.

A healthy nail grows_______________.

a)

forward from the matrix

b)

toward the ligament

c)

away from the ligament


d)

toward the matrix

28.

Compared to the fingernail matrix, the toenail matrix is_______________.

a)

longer

b)

without a matrix

c)

approximately the same size

d)

shorter

29.

A typical adult's nails grow about ___ inch per month.

a)

[1/12]

b)

[1/6]

c)

[1/2]

d)

[1/8]

30.

How long does the complete replacement of a fingernail take?

a)

6 to 8 weeks

b)

9 to 12 months

c)

2 to 3 months

d)

4 to 6 months

31.

Compared to adults' nails, children's nails_______________.

a)

grow more slowly


b)

grow slightly slower

c)

grow at the same rate

d)

grow more quickly

32.

Ridges are most likely to occur in ____ clients.

a)

younger


b)

African American

c)

older

d)

Caucasian

33.

As a professional cosmetologist, when are you are allowed to cut a client's skin?

a)

when the client signs a waiver releasing you from liability

b)

never

c)

when the client gives you verbal permission to do so

d)

when the client gives you written permission to do so

34.

Why is it important to understand nail disorders and diseases?

a)

You must be able to recognize conditions to be able to diagnose and provide in-salon treatment.

b)

You must be able to identify conditions and prescribe at-home treatments.

c)

You must be able to identify conditions and determine if they can be treated in the salon.


d)

You must be able to recognize conditions so you do not work on any nails with diseases or disorders.


35.

Jessica notices that a few toes on her client's feet seem to have a fungal infection. Jessica suggests that the client start a regimen of regular foot soaks as well as using tea tree oil, and that if she does this, she doesn't need to see a podiatrist. Jessica's manager overhears this conversation and is unhappy with Jessica's response. Why?

a)

Clients only want their nails taken care of; they do not want medical advice.


b)

Clients can become embarrassed by discussing a fungal infection.

c)

Nail technicians do not get paid to be doctors and should not offer free medical advice.

d)

Cosmetologists should not provide any medical advice.


36.

_________________ is also known as athlete's foot.

a)

Herpes simplex


b)

Verruca

c)

Tinea manus

d)

Tinea pedis

37.

Which of the following does not cause a nail disorder?


a)

Hereditary


b)

Injury


c)

Hygiene

d)

Disease of the nail unit


38.

___________ is the irregular stretching of the eponychium or hyponychium around the nail plate.


a)

Nail ptergium


b)

Plicatured nail


c)

Ridged nail


d)

Discolored nail


39.

Which of the following nail disorders show signs of depressions running across the width of the nail plate due to a slowing production of matrix cells, which causes the nail plate to grow thinner and is usually the result of serious illness or injury?


a)

bruised nail bed


b)

Beau's lines


c)

eggshell nail


d)

discolored nail


40.

Which of the following nail disorders shows as a noticeably thin, white nail plate that is more flexible than normal and is usually caused by improper diet, heredity, internal disease, medication, or overfiling with an abrasive?


a)

pincer nail


b)

Beau's lines


c)

eggshell nail


d)

nail psoriasis


41.

Which of the following nail disorders displays as dark purplish spots usually due to a small injury to the nail bed?


a)

bruised nail bed


b)

ridged nail


c)

onychophagy


d)

splinter hemorrhage


42.

Which of the following nail disorders shows symptoms of the nail turning a variety of colors, which may indicate surface staining, a systemic disorder, or poor blood circulation?


a)

leukonychia


b)

onychorrhexis


c)

melanonychia


d)

discolored nail


43.

Which of the following nail diseases is associated with rapidly growing and contagious bacteria that can cause an infection, and in early stages is seen as a yellow-green spot?


a)

onycholysis


b)

paronychia

c)

tinea pedis


d)

pseudomonas aeruginosa


44.

Which of the following nail diseases is associated with fungal infections of the feet, or athlete's foot?


a)

onycholysis


b)

pyogenic granuloma


c)

tinea pedis


d)

onychia


45.

Which of the following is a nail disease associated with the separation of the nail plate and bed due to injury or allergic reactions?


a)

onycholysis


b)

ridged nail


c)

tinea pedis


d)

plicatured nail


46.

Which of the following is a nail disease associated with bacterial inflammation of the tissues around the nail plate, causing pus, swelling, and redness?


a)

onychomadesis


b)

paronychia


c)

nail psoriasis


d)

eggshell nail


47.

Which type of glove is recommended for cosmetologists?


a)

cotton


b)

rubber

c)

nitrile


d)

latex


48.

Which nail disorder is associated with visible redness, pain, swelling, broken skin, or pus?


a)

hangnails


b)

infected finger


c)

leukonychia

d)

melanonychia


49.

Which nail disorder is associated with whitish spots of discoloration of the nails and is usually caused by minor injury to the nail matrix?


a)

onychophagy

b)

bruised nail bed


c)

leukonychia


d)

Beau's lines


50.

Which nail disorder is associated with damaged skin around the nail plate that becomes split or torn?


a)

hangnails


b)

onychorrhexis


c)

pincer nail


d)

plicatured nail


51.

Which nail disorder is associated with significant darkening of the fingernails or toenails caused by increased pigment cells?

a)

pincer nail

b)

infected finger

c)

ridged nail

d)

melanonychia

52.

What nail disorder is associated with a dramatically increased nail curvature of the free edge, where it might curl in upon itself?


a)

eggshell nail


b)

onychophagy


c)

pincer nail


d)

splinter hemorrhage


53.

What nail disorder is associated with damage to the capillaries under the nail?


a)

hangnail

b)

ridged nail


c)

nail pterygium


d)

splinter hemorrhage


54.

What nail disorder is associated with nail surface pitting, roughness, onycholysis, and bed discolorations?


a)

nail psoriasis


b)

onychophagy


c)

melanonychia


d)

Beau's lines


55.

When performing a hand, nail, and skin analysis before a nail service, you need to observe the following EXCEPT__________.


a)

the nails' condition and length


b)

the skin's condition


c)

the client's tenderness to touch


d)

the cleanliness of the skin


56.

People whose occupations require regularly placing their hands in  ___________________ more readily develop nail infections.


a)

soft cleaning solutions


b)

cleaning solutions


c)

mild cleaning solutions


d)

harsh cleaning solutions


57.

Nail services are governed under ________________.


a)

podiatry


b)

cosmetology


c)

dermatology


d)

trichology

58.

The scope of practice for cosmetologists and nail technicians can be found in state cosmetology laws or statues under ________________.


a)

Reports


b)

Summary


c)

Outline


d)

Definitions


59.

Which of the following is used to enhance the appearance of an individual?


a)

medical practices


b)

medical devices


c)

beauty services


d)

drugs


60.

Which of the following is used to enhance the appearance of an individual?


a)

medical practices


b)

medical devices


c)

beauty services


d)

drugs


61.

Sever nail inflammations in which a lump of red tissue grows up from the nail bed to the nail plate is known as ____________________.


a)

Pseudomonoas aeruginosa


b)

Pyogenic granuloma


c)

Onycholysis


d)

Tinea pedis


62.

Proper cleaning and disinfecting ____________________ the risk of spreading nail infections between clients


a)

reduces


b)

illiminates


c)

stops


d)

has nothing to do with


63.

Aleeah should select a client nail chair that has_____


a)

wheels and high arms


b)

no wheels and high arms


c)

no wheels and low arms


d)

wheels and low arms


64.

When choosing a manicure table, Martin should select a table that ______________.


a)

is at least 24 inches wide


b)

is no more than 36 inches long.


c)

has an impenetrable surface, such as glass


65.

All of the following would be appropriate ventilation systems for Kayla's salon EXCEPT __________

a)

ventilated table with filters


b)

strong fans and open windows


c)

local-source-capture ventilation system


d)

portable downdraft vent machine


66.

Electric dryers use _____ to speed evaporation of solvents from nail polishes.


a)

an automatic mist of drying agents


b)

heaters and fans


c)

cool-air fans


d)

solvents


67.

It is recommended that you use a _____ in the adjustable lamp attached to your manicure table.


a)

12-watt bulb


b)

75- to 100-watt incandescent bulb


c)

40- to 60-watt incandescent bulb


d)

UV bulb


68.

The cosmetologist’s nail chair should be selected for comfort, durability, resistance to staining, ease of cleaning, and_____________


a)

ergonomics


b)

structure


c)

aesthetic design


d)

size and weight


69.

The client's arm cushion______________


a)

should be left uncovered


b)

must be covered with plastic wrap or wax paper


c)

should be covered only at the client's request


d)

must be covered with a fresh, clean towel for each client


70.

Which is the least important question to consider when selecting a chair for the cosmetologist?


a)

Is it easy to clean?


b)

Does it have ergonomic properties?


c)

Is it durable?


d)

Does it have four wheels or five?


71.

Which is the best dust mask for use in the salon?


a)

round, with a rating of N-95


b)

triangular, with a rating of N-95


c)

round, with a rating of P-100


d)

triangular, with a rating of P-100


72.

All of the following are typically accomplished with tweezers EXCEPT:


a)

Remove implements from disinfectant solution.


b)

Trim back dead cuticle skin.


c)

Retrieve and place nail art.


d)

Lift small bits of debris from the nail plate.


73.

A ____ is designed to gently scrape cuticle tissue from the natural nail plate.


a)


file


b)

buffer

c)

metal pusher


d)

nipper


74.

Disposable implements must be thrown away________.


a)

at the end of the day


b)

after a single use


c)

after several uses


d)

when they start to deteriorate


75.

How long does it take to sterilize implements in an autoclave?


a)

5 minutes


b)

25 minutes


c)

45 minutes


d)

10 minutes


76.

Multiuse implements are generally made of what material?


a)

brass


b)

stainless steel


c)

wood


d)

paper


77.

Which of the following materials must be cleaned and disinfected prior to use on another client?


a)

nail nippers


b)

cuticle oil brush


c)

natural hair nail brushes


d)

wooden pusher


78.

Which of the following materials must be cleaned and disinfected prior to use on another client?


a)

nail nippers


b)

cuticle oil brush


c)

natural hair nail brushes


d)

wooden pusher


79.

Which organization defines when personal protective equipment (PPE) needs to be worn?


a)

FDA

b)

American Red Cross


c)

Individual state licensing agencies


d)

OSHA


80.

When should a new set of gloves be used?


a)

every few hours


b)

for every client


c)

every day


d)

every week


81.

A nail file with a 200 grit would be considered______


a)

grit abrasive


b)

fine-grit


c)

medium-grit


d)

nonabrasive


82.

OSHA defines ______ as “specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against a hazard.”


a)

PPE


b)

BBPs


c)

HIV

d)

HBV


83.

A fine-grit abrasive is used for_________.


a)

buffing, polishing, and removing scratches


b)

shortening natural nails


c)

quickly reducing the thickness of a surface


d)

etching the nail


84.

All of the following are forms of nail conditioner EXCEPT:


a)

lotion


b)

cream

c)

dehydrator


d)

oil


85.

All of the following are terms for colored coatings (nail polish) applied to the natural nail plate EXCEPT __________.


a)

silicone


b)

enamel


c)

lacquer


d)

polish


86.

Which of the following is true of the relationship between acetone and non-acetone-based removers?


a)

Non-acetone-based removers work much more quickly than acetone-based removers; however, acetone-based removers are safer to use.


b)

Acetone-based and non-acetone-based removers cannot be used interchangeably and are formulated for very specific uses.


c)

Acetone-based removers do not have additional ingredients included in their formulations and are therefore more hazardous than non-acetone based formulas.


d)

Acetone-based removers work more quickly and are better solvents than non-acetone removers; however, non-acetone is preferred for removal of polish from wraps or resin.


87.

All of the following are terms for colored coatings (nail polish) applied to the natural nail plate EXCEPT __________.


a)

silicone


b)

enamel


c)

lacquer


d)


polish

88.

Protein hardener is a combination of___________.


a)

colored polish and protein


b)

formaldehyde and protein


c)

clear polish and protein


d)

acetone and protein


89.

Cuticle removers are typically caustic, which means that they______.


a)

have a high pH


b)

have no pH


c)

have a neutral pH


d)

have a low pH


90.

All base coats, top coats, nail polishes, and hardeners _______.


a)

can aid in the removal of dead cuticle skin


b)

are highly flammable


c)

condition nails


d)

are moisturizing


91.

A rule of thumb with abrasive nail files is that the lower the grit_______.


a)

the smaller the abrasive particles and the more aggressive its action


b)

the larger the abrasive particles and the less aggressive its action


c)

the smaller the abrasive particles and the less aggressive its action


d)

the larger the abrasive particles and the more aggressive its action


92.

What type of polish remover is the better solvent?


a)

non-acetone


b)

alcohol


c)

acetone


d)

formaldehyde


93.

__________ is a colorless, inflammable liquid.


a)

collagen


b)

dimethyl urea


c)

acetone


d)

paraffin

94.


What should the cosmetologist do immediately after performing the hand and arm massage?


a)

Ask the client to go wash the hands with soap and water.


b)

Apply the clear nail polish to the client's nails.


c)

Clean the client's nails with polish remover.


d)

Escort the client to the front desk to check out.


95.

Blake has been coming to see Mariah every other week for a manicure for several years. As a regular client, Blake should be conditioned to _____ before coming to Mariah's station.


a)

moisturize his hands


b)

wash his hands


c)

trim his nails


d)

update his service record card


96.

When performing a basic manicure, after removing the polish from the client's nails, it is recommended that you use your _____ to shape the nails as you and the client have agreed.


a)

wooden pusher


b)

abrasive file


c)

nail scissors


d)

nippers


97.

When performing a basic manicure, it is recommended that you use ________ to clean under the free edge of the nail.


a)

a cotton swab


b)

nippers


c)

a metal pusher


d)

acetone-soaked gauze


98.

When performing a basic manicure, it is recommended that you start with__________.


a)

the little finger on the client's left hand


b)

the little finger on the client's right hand


c)

the thumb on the client's right hand


d)

the thumb on the client's left hand


99.

It is imperative to wash your hands before and after each client in order to__________.


a)

smooth the skin


b)

prevent the spread of disease


c)

moisturize the skin


d)

prevent dry skin


100.

When polishing the nails, a _____ is applied to prevent chipping and to give the nails a glossy, finished appearance.


a)

nail hardener


b)

top coat


c)

base coat


d)

third layer of colored polish


101.

When applying nail polish, you should hold the brush at approximately a ____ angle.


a)

45- to 50-degree


b)

30- to 35-degree


c)

75- to 90-degree


d)

15- to 20-degree


102.

After applying the topcoat, how long should you have clients hold their hands under a nail dryer?


a)

15 minutes


b)

5 minutes


c)

10 minutes


d)

60 seconds


103.

When applying polish to women's nails, it is recommended that you apply how many coats?


a)

One

b)

Four

c)

Five

d)

Two

104.

What is the recommended method for mixing the nail polish in the bottle?


a)

Roll the bottle between your palms.


b)

Stir the bottle with a thin wooden or metal pusher.


c)

Shake the bottle up and down.


d)

Shake the bottle left and right.


105.

At which point in the manicure should you have the client select a nail polish color, pattern, or style?


a)

after the application of cuticle remover


b)

after the pre-service procedure


c)

after the paraffin treatment


d)

before the manicure begins


106.

The most successful nail polish application is achieved by using four coats, including _______.


a)

one base coat, two coats of polish color, and one top coat


b)

one base coat, one coat of polish color, and two top coats


c)

two coats of polish color and two top coats


d)

two base coats, one coat of polish color, and one top coat


107.

Which polish method is most likely to result in an even application?


a)

a thick line of color down each side of the nail, making sure they meet in the middle


b)

three brush strokes to fill the nail, then one thick line of polish down the center


c)

a light stroke down the middle of the nail, then one on each side


d)

filling the lower half of the nail with color to the cuticle, then quick brush strokes on the top half of the nail


108.

During the massage portion of the manicure, Mariah places her hands around Blake's arm and gently twists in opposite directions, like she is wringing out a washcloth. Which type of massage movement is Mariah performing?


a)

friction


b)

vibration


c)

tapotement


d)

effleurage


109.

During the massage, you should talk _____.


a)

about retail products that might be of interest to the client


b)

only once, to ask if your touch should be more or less firm


c)

about current events


d)

about whatever the client wants to discuss


110.

Which type of massage involves manipulating or pressing one layer of tissue over another?


a)

friction


b)

tapotement


c)

vibration


d)

effleurage


111.

Which type of massage is also known as kneading?


a)

petrissage


b)

friction

c)

tapotement

d)

vibration


112.

The final movement of a massage is called____.


a)

friction

b)

tapotement


c)

petrissage


d)

feathering off


113.

Which type of massage movements involve a succession of strokes by gliding the hands over an area of the body with varying degrees of pressure or contact?


a)

tapotement


b)

effleurage


c)

petrissage


d)

vibration

114.

Which massage movement involves rapid tapping or striking motions against the skin?


a)

tapotement


b)

petrissage


c)

vibration


d)

friction


115.

Which cosmetologist is positioned correctly for performing a hand and arm massage?


a)

Aspen, who is standing with his feet perpendicular and flat on the floor


b)

Olive, with her feet parallel and flat to the floor


c)

Michelle, with her feel parallel and her heels raised slightly off the floor


d)

Moira, who is standing with her feet perpendicular and her heels raised slightly off the floor


116.

Results-oriented spa manicures are sometimes called__________.


a)

medical manicures


b)

pedicures


c)

treatment manicures


d)

mani-pedicures


117.

Which type of product would be most difficult to provide for clients requesting it?


a)

chemical-free, all-natural


b)

non-comedogenic


c)

heavy moisturizers


d)

lightly moisturizing


118.

Spa manicures and special treatments____________.


a)

can be lucrative for nail salons


b)

are only for clients who have unique health needs


c)

are pretty standard


d)

are difficult to perform


119.

Some spa manicures target specific results with______.


a)

specialty nail art


b)

minimal ingredients and tools


c)

harsh ingredients


d)

skin care-based methods


120.

What is paraffin used for?


a)

to cool the skin


b)

to remove natural oil


c)

to moisturize the skin


d)

to help heal wounds


121.

When performing a paraffin wax treatment, how many times should you dip the cheesecloth into the paraffin?


a)

three times


b)

just once


c)

twice


d)

up to 10 times


122.

Which of the following is a petroleum by-product with excellent sealing properties to hold moisture in the skin?


a)

dimethyl urea hardener


b)

essential oils


c)

protein hardener


d)

paraffin


123.

All of the following clients can receive a paraffin wax treatment EXCEPT _______.


a)

Katie, a 26-year-old pregnant woman


b)

Jeffrey, a 38-year-old who is allergic to gluten


c)

Marty, a 56-year-old with a cold


d)

Debbie, a 45-year-old woman with several warts on her right hand


124.

In a _________ application, about half a cup of paraffin is placed in the bag and the client's hand is inserted into it.


a)

plastic bag


b)

paper bag


c)

hand basin


d)

cheesecloth


125.

All of the following are application methods for paraffin wax treatment EXCEPT __________.


a)

cheesecloth


b)

paint on


c)

paper bag


d)

spray on


126.

You can use a nipper on all of the following clients EXCEPT _________.


a)

Ronny, a 75-year-old with arthritis


b)

Jason, a 35-year-old with eczema


c)

Rosie, a 14-year-old with hemophilia


d)

Malika, a 29-year-old with cerebral palsy


127.

When performing a manicure on a client with thin skin or a lowered immune system, how should you handle the cuticles?


a)

Ignore them altogether.


b)

Gently push back with a dull-edged curette.


c)

Use nippers to remove dead skin.


d)

Push them back with a medium-grit file.


128.

Can clients with special health considerations receive paraffin wax treatments?


a)

No, paraffin wax should not be applied to clients with special health considerations.


b)

No, unless the client has a doctor's note.


c)

Yes, paraffin wax treatments are safe for all clients.


d)

Yes, as long as they do not have open wounds and the wax is allowed to cool a bit before application.


129.

Do NOT ___________ when massaging a client with arthritis.


a)

touch the hands


b)

bend the joints


c)

use lotion or oil


d)

wear gloves


130.

A cosmetic service performed on the feet by a licensed cosmetologist or cosmetologist that includes trimming, shaping, and polishing toenails; exfoliating skin; and massaging the feet is called ________.


a)

exfoliation


b)

a manicure


c)

a pedicure


d)

a reflexology service


131.

A pedicure includes all of the following EXCEPT _____________.


a)

trimming and shaping the toenails


b)

treating a foot disease


c)

exfoliating skin


d)

a foot massage


132.

Pedicures achieve all of the following EXCEPT:


a)

The are good income producers.


b)

They can be important preventive health services.


c)

They create loyalty in clients.


d)

They speed the growth of toenails.


133.

A fully plumbed pedicure chair has all of the following features EXCEPT _________.


a)

is portable


b)

is equipped with a massage feature


c)

is equipped with a warmer


d)

is difficult to disinfect


134.

Basin soak baths are typically made of _______________.


a)

stainless steel or glass


b)

glass or plastic


c)

stainless steel or ceramic


d)

glass or ceramic


135.

Pedicure products designed for use in the pedicure bath are called _______________.


a)

callus softeners


b)

masks

c)

exfoliating scrubs


d)

foot soaks


136.

Pedicure supplies are kept organized by using ______________.


a)

a pedicure cart


b)

a manicure table


c)

Ziploc baggies


d)

a filing system


137.

Stones used in upscale pedicure services are typically ________________.


a)

granite

b)

pumice


c)

obsidian


d)

basalt


138.

The nail technician's pedicuring stool is usually low to make it ____________ easier for the technician to work on the feet.


a)

more efficient and


b)

economically


c)

ergonomically

d)

more accessible and


139.

The pedicure footbath soak container is filled with _____ water and a product to soak the client's feet.


a)

cool


b)

warm

c)

cold


d)

hot


140.

The warmth from _______ aids in the penetration of conditioning ingredients of a foot mask.


a)

the paraffin heater


b)

massage friction


c)

electric foot mitts


d)

exothermic products


141.

What is recommended prior to providing a paraffin wax treatment to elderly clients?


a)

pedi-mask


b)

plain pedicure


c)

pre-service wax patch test


d)

spa pedicure


142.

Which term refers to all permanent tools used to perform pedicure services, other than implements?


a)

pedicure products


b)

materials

c)

equipment


d)

supplies

143.

A _____ is a metal file with an edge that can file the nail plate in only one direction.


a)

toenail rasp


b)

toenail clipper


c)

foot file


d)

nipper


144.

A ______ is held at a 45-degree angle to the nail tip, and small nips of the nail are taken slowly across the free edge to trim the nail.


a)

toenail clipper


b)

nipper


c)

curette


d)

nail rasp


145.

A curette with ____ is recommended for use by nail technicians.


a)

a blade


b)

dull edges


c)

a pointed end


d)

sharp edges


146.

A toenail rasp can be used ________________.


a)

on the sides of the free edge


b)

with ingrown nails


c)

on the top of the nail


d)

past the hyponychium area of the side of the free edge


147.

Foam rubber or rope-type materials used to keep toes apart while polishing the nails are called ______________.


a)

toe separators


b)

toe gloves


c)

pedicure slippers


d)

splitters


148.

Foot files or paddles are designed _______________.


a)

to smooth and reduce foot calluses


b)

in a rectangular shape


c)

to roughen calluses


d)

to promote the growth of calluses


149.

Implements for manicures and pedicures must be _____________.


a)

nickel-plated


b)

stainless steel


c)

wooden


d)

brass


150.

In general, a _____ file is most appropriate to shorten the toenails.


a)

grit-free


b)

fine-grit


c)

plastic


d)

medium-grit


151.

It is recommended that you use a ______ to remove any loose debris from the nail plate during a pedicure.


a)

clipper


b)

nail nipper


c)

curette


d)

nail rasp


152.

Terry cloth mitts are routinely used over paraffin to ________________.


a)

disperse the heat from the paraffin


b)

speed the drying of nail polish


c)

dry out the feet


d)

encourage conditioning of the feet


153.

The end of a curette is ________________.


a)

scoop-shaped


b)

flat and dull


c)

flat and sharp


d)

spear-shaped


154.

Toe separators are commonly made of _____________.


a)

paper or plastic


b)

plastic and cotton


c)

paper or cotton


d)

foam rubber or rope type


155.

Use of a blade on calluses is usually against the law and is a potential cause of ____________.


a)

increased blood circulation


b)

diabetes


c)

infection


d)

skin softening


156.

What are pedicure slippers typically made of?


a)

rubber or cotton


b)

paper or foam


c)

foam or rubber


d)

cotton or wool


157.

Which implement has jaws and is used for cutting toenails?


a)

toe separators


b)

nail rasps


c)

nail nippers


d)

toenail clippers


158.

What is the purpose of a foot soak?


a)

softens the skin on the feet


b)

strengthens the skin on the feet


c)

helps seal toenail polish


d)

disinfects the foot bath


159.

Which of the following is true about calluses?


a)

They are caused by a virus.


b)

They protect the underlying skin from irritation.


c)

They should be removed from the client's foot with a blade.


d)

They should be left alone when performing a pedicure.


160.

Exfoliating agents found in pedicure scrubs are made of sea sand, ground apricot kernels, pumice, quartz crystals, and ______________.


a)

jojoba beads


b)

purified lanolin


c)

formaldehyde


d)

quartz beads


161.

Exfoliating scrubs are usually water-based lotions that contain ____________.


a)

an astringent


b)

an antiseptic


c)

collagen


d)

an abrasive


162.

Why are lotions and creams important?


a)

to thicken calluses


b)

to condition the skin of the feet


c)

to prevent slip for massage


d)

to dehydrate the feet


163.

The act of causing tiny unseen openings in the skin that may let in pathogenic microbes is called __________.


a)

macrotrauma


b)

microtrauma


c)

follicle entry


d)

pore opening


164.

What is usually used during a spa pedicure to remove dead cells from the skin on the leg?


a)

antiseptic


b)

astringent


c)

lanolin


d)

exfoliation


165.

When performing a basic pedicure, it is recommended that you start by removing the polish from the ________________.


a)

little toe


b)

middle toe


c)

big toe


d)

second toe


166.

When performing a basic pedicure, it is recommended that you use __________ to remove traces of lotion, cream, or oil from the toenails.


a)

soap and hot water


b)

witch hazel


c)

soap and warm water


d)

polish remover


167.

When performing a pedicure, what is the first step after completing the pre-service procedure?


a)

Check the temperature of the pedicure bath for safety.


b)

Put on gloves, and place the feet in the bath.


c)

Remove nail polish.


d)

Dry between the toes.


168.

All of the following are ingredients commonly found in foot care masks EXCEPT ________.


a)

cucumber


b)

menthol


c)

mint


d)

pumice


169.

Which of the following products are specifically designed to soften and smooth thickened tissue?


a)

masks


b)

callus softener products


c)

acetones

d)

primers


170.

Callus reduction series appointments are scheduled on a _____ basis.


a)

monthly


b)

biweekly

c)

daily


d)

weekly


171.

Clients should be encouraged to schedule regular pedicure appointments every _________.


a)

week


b)

month

c)

2 weeks


d)

6 weeks


172.

Which of these is usually considered an add-on service in a basic pedicure and should include an extra charge?


a)

foot soak


b)

polish


c)

paraffin wax treatment


d)

foot massage


173.

Services that require more than one appointment are referred to as a _____________.


a)

series


b)

numeral


c)

multiple

d)

reduction

174.

Shaving the legs within 48 hours of receiving a pedicure can have what result?


a)

decreased circulation in the legs


b)

significant heat sensitivity


c)

exfoliating scrub not working effectively


d)

increased risk of irritation or infection


175.

When clients are making an appointment for a pedicure, you should suggest that they wear _______.


a)

sandals


b)

sandals


c)

boots


d)

closed-toe shoes


176.

All of the following will help you decide which product line to choose EXCEPT:


a)

Listen closely to the experiences of other technicians.


b)

Find other technicians who use the products, and discuss the quality of the product itself.


c)

Check the quality of the company’s educational support.


d)

Use the sales associate as the expert.


177.

Foot massages induce a high degree of relaxation and _________.


a)

slow blood flow


b)

stimulate blood flow



c)

reduce blood pressure


d)

increase blood pressure


178.

Friction should only be used on which part of the foot?


a)

the toes


b)

the top


c)

the bottom


d)

the sides


179.

Generally, when you are performing a foot massage, the foot should be grasped between the thumb and fingers _____________.


a)

around the toes


b)

at the heel


c)

at the mid-tarsal area


d)

at the ankle


180.

If the client is ticklish, avoid ________________.


a)

holding the foot lightly or loosely


b)

a firm, gentle grip


c)

providing pedicure services


d)

massage completely


181.

Massage given during pedicures is meant primarily for ____________.


a)

relaxation


b)

invigoration


c)

slowing blood circulation


d)

therapeutic purposes


182.

Reflexology is based on the principle that areas in the feet and hands correspond to all the organs, glands, and ___________.


a)

the body's sense of time


b)

elements of the earth


c)

parts of the body


d)

energy created by the body


183.

Even though you are not a medical professional, it is still ethical to _____________.


a)

share client information with vendors


b)

share client information with vendors


c)

keep client information confidential


d)

ask clients about their personal health information.


184.

Gentleness during massage is especially important for clients who have ____________.


a)

acne


b)

onychophagy


c)

arthritis


d)

osteopenia


185.

When preparing for a pedicure on clients with tremors, __________________.


a)

ensure that the entire leg is supported


b)

encourage clients to support their own leg


c)

support behind the knees but leave the ankle free.


d)

support only the part of the leg behind the ankle.


186.

Nail nippers should not be used on clients with thin skin or ______________.


a)

lowered immune system


b)

onychophagy


c)

acne


d)

allergies


187.

Improper, rushed, or careless cleaning of the pedicure bath may lead to _______________.


a)

fitness concerns for clients


b)

scheduling problems


c)

health safety concerns for the cosmetologist.


d)

health safety concerns for clients


188.

All of the following types of pedicure equipment must be cleaned and disinfected after each use EXCEPT:


a)

disposables


b)

tubs


c)

air-jetted basins


d)

air-jetted basins


189.

What is one of the most popular nail services that a cosmetologist will do?


a)

Provide medical-grade care for nails.


b)

Airbrush French manicures.


c)

Create custom nail art.


d)

Apply nail extensions and enhancements.


190.

All of the following are reasons for cosmetologists to thoroughly understand nail tips and forms EXCEPT ___________.


a)

to be able to properly prepare the nail for long-lasting extensions


b)

to be able to properly secure the form for sculpted extensions


c)

to be able to properly size tips to the client's nail


d)

to be able to ensure a high-quality pre-service procedure


191.

A __________ is any product added to the natural nail to increase strength and beauty.


a)

nail enhancement


b)

nail extension


c)

nail extension


d)

nail tip

192.

A ___________ is used to extend the length of the natural nail.


a)

French manicure


b)

nail extension


c)

nail enhancement


d)

Paraffin manicure


193.

The two ways to create a nail extension are ______ and ______.


a)

tips, squovals


b)

tips, forms



c)

wraps, forms


d)

wraps, tips


194.

After removing the cuticle tissue during a dry manicure/nail preparation for enhancements, buff over the nail plate with a medium/fine abrasive to ___________.


a)

remove the shine


b)

rough the nail plate


c)

thicken the nail plate


d)

improve the shine


195.

When applying the adhesive during a nail tip application procedure, the adhesive is applied _________________.


a)

on the lunula only


b)

on the entire nail plate


c)

at the tip placement


d)

along the free edge


196.

How long does it take for the natural oils in the nail to resurface?


a)

5 minutes


b)

10 minutes


c)

5 seconds


d)

10 seconds


197.

In a dry manicure/nail preparation for enhancements, apply ____________to remove surface moisture and tiny amounts of oil left on the natural nail plate.


a)

nail enamel


b)

nail dehydrator


c)

polish remover


d)

adhesive remover


198.

The natural nail consists of keratin layers, and these layers are similar to ___________.


a)

a layer cake


b)

the hair's cuticle


c)

a sponge


d)

a Brillo pad


199.

Which is the best reasoning for why a dry manicure must be performed prior to nail tip application?


a)

It is not necessary for a dry manicure to be performed before a nail tip application; it is a special luxury service that can be added on.


b)

If any leftover nail polish is left on the nail, it will show through on the new extension.


c)

The client should be relaxed and enjoy the nail service, and a dry manicure helps to do that.


d)

Whatever is left on the nail will eventually lift, which will cause the tip to lift as well.


200.

Which is true of nail dehydrators?


a)

They do not stop the nail from producing natural oil.


b)

Their effects only last for about 60 seconds.


c)

They are safe for the nail, so they can be reapplied if needed.


d)

They can be applied to the skin.


201.

Many nail tips have a shallow depression called a ____ that serves as the point of contact with the nail plate.


a)

divot


b)

well


c)

dip


d)

button


202.

After placing the nail tip where you want it, it is recommended that you hold it in place for ____ while the adhesive dries.


a)

1 to 2 minutes


b)

2 to 3 seconds


c)

30 to 60 seconds


d)

5 to 10 seconds


203.

It is recommended that you use a _____ file for blending after applying a nail tip with a well.


a)

Medium- to coarse-grit


b)

Medium- to fine-grit


c)

Fine-grit


d)

Fine-grit


204.

All of the following are common types of nail tips EXCEPT __________.


a)

partial well


b)

double well


c)

full well


d)

well-less


205.

Nail tips that do not have an overlay are______________.


a)

long-wearing and nearly unbreakable


b)

not long-wearing and can break easily


c)

long-wearing, but are nearly unbreakable


d)

long-wearing and can break easily


206.

When opening an adhesive container, it is recommended that you_____________.


a)

look into the opening


b)

point the opening away from you and the client


c)

point the opening toward the client


d)

open it under running water


207.

Which scenario is most likely to cause problems with the nail tip?


a)

using nail tips made from acrylonite butadience styrene


b)

applying a nail dehydrator before nail tip application


c)

using toenail clippers to trim the nail tip


d)

using a medium-grit abrasive to shape the nail


208.

The cosmetologist leaves the side of the forms so that they are straight with the sidewalls of the nail. Reusable nail forms _________.


a)

are made of glass


b)

must be disinfected between clients


c)

do not create natural-looking extensions


d)

are harder to work with than disposable nail forms


209.

A(n) ______________ is placed under the free edge of the natural nail and is used as a guide to build a nail extension.


a)

nail form


b)

extender


c)

tip builder


d)

fiberglass shell


210.

All of the following are common materials from which nail forms are made EXCEPT _____________.


a)

glass


b)

paper


c)

plastic


d)

Mylar


211.

Which of the following is an advantage of using nail forms to build nail extensions?


a)

The nail that will be sculpted will be customized and natural-looking.


b)

No chemicals are required to build extensions using nail forms.


c)

It is a much quicker process than building extensions by using tips.


d)

It requires significantly less time and training to build extensions using forms.


212.

Which nail shape is long and tapers to a sharp point?


a)

squoval


b)

stiletto

c)

ballerina


d)

almond

213.

Which nail shape is long and tapered to a square point?


a)

squoval


b)

ballerina


c)

almond

d)

stiletto


214.

Which is most accurate of the difference between stiletto and ballerina-shaped nails?


a)

Stiletto nails and ballerina nails are both long; however, ballerina nails come to a softly rounded point, and stiletto nails are filed off to a very sharp point.


b)

A ballerina and a stiletto nail could not be more different in shape: a stiletto is long and pointy, whereas a ballerina nail is short, squared off, and does not have much length on the free edge of the nail.


c)

Ballerina nails are long and come to a very sharp point; stiletto nails have a softly rounded tip.


d)

While both nails are long and tapered, stiletto nails come to a sharp point, and ballerina nails come to a point that is squared off.


215.

After removing the nail tip from the natural nail, it is recommended that you ______ to remove any adhesive residue.


a)

Have the client wash the hands with soap and warm water.


b)

Gently buff the nail with a medium file.


c)

Immerse the nail in polish remover.


d)

Gently buff the nail with a fine-grit buffer


216.

When removing a nail tip, after soaking it in acetone, it is recommended that you use __________ to slide the tip off of the nail.


a)

a wooden pusher


b)

a buffer


c)

a cotton swab


d)

tweezers


217.

The arch of the nail is also known as the ___________.


a)

apex

b)

C-curve

c)

sidewall


d)

stress area


218.

Which description best describes the apex of the nail?


a)

credit-card thin and resistant to breakage


b)

runs straight from cuticle to either side of the nail


c)

oval shaped and in the center of the nail


d)

on the side of the natural nail, growing free of its natural attachment


219.

Which is true of the length of nail extensions?


a)

The middle finger should be the longest nail.


b)

The nails on all five fingers should be the same length.


c)

The middle, index, and ring fingers should all be the same length.


d)

The middle, index, and ring fingers should all be the same length.


220.

The _________ of the nail extension should be smooth without any glitches.


a)

apex


b)

well


c)

underside


d)

arch


221.

Where are nail extensions most likely to break?


a)

underside


b)

sidewall


c)

apex


d)

stress area


222.

The _________ is the area on the side of the nail plate that grows free of its natural attachment to the nail fold and where the extension leaves the natural nail.


a)

sidewall


b)

nail extension underside


c)

apex


d)

stress area


223.

Which one of the following nail extensions is most likely constructed properly?


a)

The C-curve has the thickness of a credit card and is softly curved, supporting the nail like a bridge.


b)

The C-curve is approximately 4 mm thick and looks flat if viewed from the tip of the finger.


c)

The C-curve has the approximate thickness of a business or playing card and is softly curved, resembling an S.


d)

The C-curve is paper thin and relatively flat.


224.

Which of the following is true of nail resin systems?


a)

They have been around for many years and have progressed over time.


b)

They are very complicated and time-consuming to apply and are therefore rarely used in the salon.


c)

They are rarely a good option for nail extension.


d)

They are a brand-new technology that is still in the early stages of use.


225.

All of the following are scenarios where nail resins are used EXCEPT _____________.


a)

providing a dip system’s color manicure


b)

extending the nails for special occasions


c)

permanently extending the nail


d)

repairing a crack in the natural nail


226.

Which of the following is a benefit of nail resin systems?


a)

They can be removed weekly for reapplication.


b)

They never require maintenance.


c)

They do not require nail dehydrators or accelerators.


d)

They are easy to apply.

227.

Wrap resin accelerator can be applied as a pump-on spray, with a brush, or________


a)

sprinkled powder


b)

with a dropper


c)

with an aerosol spray


d)

as a vapor


228.

When applying the resin, remember to keep the resin off____________.


a)

the fabric wrap


b)

the skin


c)

the nail plate


d)

the nail crack


229.

Wrap resin accelerator is designed to help any cyanoacrylate glue or wrap resin__________.


a)

dissolve quickly


b)

dry more quickly


c)

prevent deterioration


d)

spread more evenly


230.

When applying the resin, remember to keep the resin off____________.


a)

the fabric wrap


b)

the skin


c)

the nail plate


d)

the nail crack


231.

Wrap resin accelerator is designed to help any cyanoacrylate glue or wrap resin__________.


a)

dissolve quickly


b)

dry more quickly


c)

prevent deterioration


d)

spread more evenly


232.

Nail wrap resin is made from _________.


a)

polymer powder


b)

cyanoacrylate


c)

monomer powder


d)

plastic


233.

Another name for a resin accelerator is ___________.


a)

an adhesive


b)

a base coat


c)

dip systems


d)

an activator


234.

How are resin systems removed?


a)

Soak them in acetone.


b)

Allow them to grow out.


c)

Soak them in an activator.


d)

Pluck them off with nippers.


235.

Resin systems are a great option for ________.


a)

extra-long nail extensions


b)

special events


c)

permanent nail enhancement


d)

long-term wear


236.

All of the following are forms of resin activator EXCEPT _________.


a)

brush-on


b)

aerosol


c)

dip powder


d)

pump


237.

All of the following are true of very thin cyanoacrylate EXCEPT:


a)

It can be used as nail glue.


b)

It is easily cured and fast-acting.


c)

It can be used as building resin.


d)

It can be used as tip adhesive.


238.

After the Pre-Service Procedure, the first step in a Nail Wrap Application is to________.


a)

Push back the eponychium.


b)

Lightly buff the nail plate.


c)

Remove existing polish.


d)

Apply a nail dehydrator.


239.

What is the most popular type of nail wrap?


a)

ceramic


b)

paper


c)

plastic


d)

fabric


240.

In a Fabric Wrap Maintenance Procedure, the buffing dust is removed with__________.


a)

dry lint-free cloth


b)

dry nylon nail brush


c)

damp cotton cloth


d)

aerosol spray


241.

Clients with nail wraps will usually need maintenance after_________.


a)

1 week


b)

2 weeks


c)

10 days


d)

3 days


242.

Which fabric wrap is a thin, natural material with a tight weave that becomes transparent when wrap resin is applied?


a)

silk


b)

fiberglass


c)

paper


d)

linen


243.

The point where the free edge of the nail meets the nail bed is called the________.


a)

stress line


b)

position stop


c)

transition point


d)

horizon


244.

The purpose of a rebalance is to ensure the nail's strength, shape, and __________.


a)

length

b)

flexibility


c)


durability


d)

enhance the color


245.

Dip powder and adhesive enhancements ________.


a)

never use an activator for drying


b)

require the application of only one layer of polymer powder


c)

can be used to further strengthen a fabric wrap


d)

do not strengthen a fabric wrap


246.

Dip systems are __________.


a)

never used with resin


b)

specially formulated polymers


c)

quickly applied, but do not last for longer than about 1 week


d)

another name for resin systems


247.

What is unique about dip systems?


a)

They can be used with liquid monomer.


b)

They can be used with liquid monomer.


c)

They can provide the client with an acrylic overlay and nail color all in one.


248.

The polymer powder in a dip system is ____________.


a)

never heavily pigmented


b)

formulated so that it does not require an activator or resin coating


c)

very different from polymer powders in liquid and powder nail services


d)

the same type of powder used in a liquid and powder system


249.

The cosmetologist can use a ________ to dip individual clients' nails.


a)

baggie

b)

finger bowl


c)

dappen dish


d)

resin bowl


250.

When does the cosmetologist dust off the excess powder and apply a second coat?


a)

after each nail


b)

after all ten nails are done


c)

after allowing the dip to sit for 45 minutes


d)

after each hand is complete


251.

What should be used to wipe the brush off after the second coat of base resin is applied to the nail?


a)

lint-free towel


b)

paper towel


c)

nylon brush


d)

nylon brush


252.

How long should the nail be held in the dappen dish of powder during a dip system’s application?


a)

1 to 2 seconds


b)

10 to 15 seconds


c)

30 seconds


d)

45 to 60 seconds