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Module 7 Emergency Nursing

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A triage nurse using the Emergency Severity Index (ESI) would assign the highest priority level to a patient who:

a)

has stable vital signs but is expected to need two diagnostic tests.

b)

is in severe pain from an isolated limb injury.

c)

is unresponsive, apneic, and requires immediate life-saving intervention.

d)

has a minor, episodic illness requiring no resources.

2.

The primary rationale for performing a "quick neuro check" as part of the 'Disability' (D) assessment in the primary survey is to:

a)

obtain a baseline for a detailed neurological exam later.

b)

rapidly identify potential threats to the central nervous system.

c)

fulfill documentation requirements for the patient's chart.

d)

determine the patient's long-term rehabilitation needs.

3.

In a patient with a suspected inhalation injury, the critical reason for securing the airway early via intubation is to:

a)

administer nebulized medications directly to the bronchi.

b)

facilitate bronchoscopy to remove foreign debris.

c)

prevent complete obstruction from progressive airway edema.

d)

improve the efficiency of gas exchange immediately.

4.

A patient presents with flushing, urticaria, and a sense of doom. Shortly after, they develop wheezing and hypotension. The nurse recognizes this progression is caused by a single pathophysiological event:

a)

massive histamine release.

b)

a bacterial infection in the bloodstream.

c)

a physical blockage of the trachea.

d)

a sudden cardiac arrhythmia.

5.

The most significant clinical difference between a partial and a complete foreign body airway obstruction is the patient's:

a)

level of anxiety.

b)

ability to speak and cough.

c)

oxygen saturation level.

d)

heart rate.

6.

When comparing the traditional 3-level triage system to the modern 5-level ESI, the key advancement in the ESI system is that it incorporates:

a)

the time of day the patient arrives.

b)

the patient's past medical history.

c)

acuity level combined with expected resource needs.

d)

the patient's insurance status.

7.

A patient with a penetrating chest injury has absent breath sounds on one side and tracheal deviation. The nurse prepares for needle decompression understanding that the underlying physiological problem is:

a)

blood filling the pleural space compressing the lung.

b)

air trapped in the pleural space causing a mediastinal shift.

c)

fluid compressing the heart and limiting its pumping.

d)

a segment of the chest wall moving paradoxically.

8.

The first-line, non-pharmacological intervention for controlling external hemorrhage from a limb, before applying a tourniquet, is to:

a)

administer rapid IV fluids.

b)

apply direct pressure to the site.

c)

clean the wound with saline.

d)

elevate the limb above the heart.

9.

The clinical manifestation of "paradoxical chest movement" is most specifically associated with which life-threatening thoracic injury?

a)

Tension pneumothorax

b)

Flail chest

c)

Cardiac tamponade

d)

Massive hemothorax

10.

The primary goal of the "Secondary Survey" is to:

a)

identify and manage immediate threats to life within 5 minutes.

b)

perform a head-to-toe assessment once the patient is stable.

c)

determine the patient's disposition from the Emergency Department.

d)

collect insurance information and demographic data.

11.

A key responsibility that differentiates the role of a triage nurse from other ED nurses is to:

4 lines
12.

In cardiac arrest, the administration of epinephrine is primarily intended to:

a)

correct the underlying arrhythmia.

b)

increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure during CPR.

c)

stimulate spontaneous respirations.

d)

reduce the metabolic demand of the heart.

13.

For an infant with a complete foreign body airway obstruction, the appropriate sequence of actions, is:

a)

Abdominal thrusts, then back blows.

b)

Back blows and chest thrusts.

c)

Encourage coughing, then CPR.

d)

Finger sweep, then rescue breaths.

14.

The clinical finding of "distended neck veins" in a trauma patient, when combined with hypotension, is most indicative of:

a)

a massive hemothorax.

b)

a simple pneumothorax.

c)

cardiac tamponade.

d)

anaphylactic shock.

15.

The "S" in the SAMPLE history mnemonic prompts the nurse to inquire about:

a)

the patient's safety concerns.

b)

the symptoms the patient is experiencing.

c)

the patient's surgical history.

d)

the time of the patient's last meal.

16.

A patient with an open pneumothorax is best managed initially with:

a)

a chest tube insertion.

b)

needle decompression.

c)

an occlusive dressing.

d)

immediate thoracotomy.

17.

In the evaluation of emergency care, the question "Is the airway patent and breathing adequate?" directly evaluates the success of interventions aimed at the:

a)

Primary Survey

b)

Secondary Survey.

c)

Triage process.

d)
  1. History taking.

18.

The pathophysiological consequence of both anaphylaxis and inhalation injury that directly threatens airway patency is:

a)

edema.

b)

infection.

c)

hypothermia.

d)

hemorrhage.

19.

A patient with a "silent" chest and cyanosis following a meal most likely has a:

a)

partial airway obstruction.

b)

complete airway obstruction.

c)

thoracic trauma.

d)

cardiac arrest.

20.

The management principle "Rapid IV fluids/blood transfusion for shock" is most directly aligned with supporting which component of the ABCs?

a)

Airway (A)

b)

Breathing (B)

c)

Circulation (C)

d)

Disability (D)