WorksheetsHEMA-3
Total questions: 152
Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
total mass of RBCs circulating in the peripheral blood AND the bone marrow RBC precursors
a)
Erythron
b)
Erythrokinetics
c)
Infeffective erythropoiesis
d)
Insufficient erythropoiesis
e)
RBC mass
2.
erythrocytes in the circulation
a)
Erythron
b)
Erythrokinetics
c)
Infeffective erythropoiesis
d)
Insufficient erythropoiesis
e)
RBC mass
3.
a term that describes the dynamics of RBC creation and destruction
a)
Erythron
b)
Erythrokinetics
c)
Infeffective erythropoiesis
d)
Insufficient erythropoiesis
e)
RBC mass
4.
✓ examples of conditions: • vitamin B12 deficiency • folate deficiency • thalassemia • sideroblastic anemi
a)
Erythron
b)
Erythrokinetics
c)
Infeffective erythropoiesis
d)
Insufficient erythropoiesis
e)
RBC mass
5.
production of defective erythroid precursor cells (These defective RBC precursors often undergo apoptosis in the bone marrow before they have a chance to mature to the reticulocyte stage.)
a)
Erythron
b)
Erythrokinetics
c)
Infeffective erythropoiesis
d)
Insufficient erythropoiesis
e)
RBC mass
6.
decrease in the number of RBC precursors in the bone marrow (resulting in ↓ RBC production)
✓ examples of conditions
: • iron deficiency
• renal disease
• acute leukemia
a)
Erythron
b)
Erythrokinetics
c)
Infeffective erythropoiesis
d)
Insufficient erythropoiesis
e)
RBC mass
7.
Earliest marker of erythroid differentiation; transferrin receptor
a)
Progenitor cells
b)
Precursor cells
c)
CD 71
d)
CD 34
e)
CD 25
8.
classical marker of hematopoietic stem cells
a)
Progenitor cells
b)
Precursor cells
c)
CD 71
d)
CD 34
e)
CD 25
9.
chief stimulatory cytokine for RBC
a)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
b)
Growth hormone
c)
Testosterone
d)
Prolactin
e)
Estrogen
10.
- major hormone that stimulates the production of erythrocytes
a)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
b)
Growth hormone
c)
Testosterone
d)
Prolactin
e)
Estrogen
11.
thermostable, nondialyzable, glycoprotein hormone
a)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
b)
Growth hormone
c)
Testosterone
d)
Prolactin
e)
Estrogen
12.
primary cell source is the peritubular interstitial cells of the kidneys
a)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
b)
Growth hormone
c)
Testosterone
d)
Prolactin
e)
Estrogen
13.
primary target cells is BFU-E and CFU-E
a)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
b)
Growth hormone
c)
Testosterone
d)
Prolactin
e)
Estrogen
14.
Normally, released from the kidney into the blood in response to hypoxia (too little tissue oxygen).
a)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
b)
Growth hormone
c)
Testosterone
d)
Prolactin
e)
Estrogen
15.
- 3 major effects:
1.) allowing early release of reticulocytes from the bone marrow
2.) reducing the time needed for cells to mature in the bone marrow
3.) preventing apoptotic cell death (note: apoptosis rescue is the MAJOR way in which EPO increases RBC mass)
- Some of the current/potential therapeutic applications: ⸙ anemia of chronic renal disease
⸙ autologous predonation blood collection
⸙ anemia in HIV infection to permit use of zidovudine (AZT)
a)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
b)
Growth hormone
c)
Testosterone
d)
Prolactin
e)
Estrogen
16.
Which of the following is produced by pituitary gland?
a)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
b)
Growth hormone
c)
Testosterone
d)
Prolactin
e)
Estrogen
17.
Which of the following stimulates erythropoiesis indirectly?
a)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
b)
Growth hormone
c)
Testosterone
d)
Prolactin
e)
Estrogen
18.
Which of the following stimulates erythropoiesis directly?
a)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
b)
Growth hormone
c)
Testosterone
d)
Prolactin
e)
Estrogen
19.
Which of the following stimulates erythropoiesis indirectly?
a)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
b)
Growth hormone
c)
Testosterone
d)
Prolactin
e)
Estrogen
20.
Which of the following inhibits erythropoiesis indirectly?
a)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
b)
Growth hormone
c)
Testosterone
d)
Prolactin
e)
Estrogen
21.
some athletes illegally use EPO injections to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of their blood (to enhance endurance and stamina) (can lead to deadly arterial and venous thrombosis
a)
Blood letting
b)
Blood doping
c)
Blood coping
d)
Blood getting
22.
EARLIEST committed progenitor
a)
BFU-E
b)
CFU-E
23.
From BFU-E to CFU-E
a)
6 days
b)
18 to 21 days
c)
1 week
d)
2 weeks
24.
From CFU-E to Rubriblast
a)
6 days
b)
18 to 21 days
c)
1 week
d)
2 weeks
25.
*It takes about ___ for the BFU-E to mature to an erythrocyte
a)
6 days
b)
18 to 21 days
c)
1 week
d)
2 weeks
26.
*It takes about 18 to 21 days for the BFU-E to mature to an erythrocyte, of which approximately ____ days are spent as recognizable precursors in the bone marrow.
a)
6 days
b)
18 to 21 days
c)
10 days
d)
14 days
27.
Which of the following is the fifth and last precursor?
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
28.
Which of the following is the fourth precursor?
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
29.
Which of the following is the third precursor?
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
30.
Which of the following is the second precursor?
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
31.
Which of the following is the first precursor?
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
32.
aka early normoblast
a)
Pronormoblast
b)
Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Polychromatophilic Normoblast
d)
Orthochromatic Normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte
33.
aka intermediate normoblast
a)
Pronormoblast
b)
Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Polychromatophilic Normoblast
d)
Orthochromatic Normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte
34.
aka late normoblast
a)
Pronormoblast
b)
Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Polychromatophilic Normoblast
d)
Orthochromatic Normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte
35.
When reticulocytes are found in a Wright stained smear, they are called?
a)
Polychromatophilic erythrocytes
b)
Diffusely Basophilic erythrocytes
c)
Polychromatophilic erythroblast
36.
If the areas occupied by the nucleus and the cytoplasm are approximately ___ the N:C ratio is 1:1
a)
Lower
b)
Higher
c)
Equal
37.
If the nucleus takes up < 50% of the area of the cell, the ratio is
a)
Lower
b)
Higher
c)
Equal
38.
If the nucleus takes up > 50% of the area of the cell, the ratio is
a)
Lower
b)
Higher
c)
Equal
39.
This cell gives rise to 2 prorubricytes
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
40.
Earliest recognizable erythroid precursor using the light microscope
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
41.
Has 1 to 2 nucleoli
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
42.
ׁCYTOPLASM: small in amount, dark blue (because of the concentration of ribosomes), homogenous
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
43.
gives rise to 4 rubricytes
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
44.
Most helpful criteria in distinguishing the ____ from the rubriblast include coarser chromatin, and absence of nucleoli
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
45.
Which of the following is the last stage with nucleolus?
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
46.
Which of the following is the first stage of hemoglobin synthesis?
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
47.
ׁNUCLEOLUS: 0 to 1
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
48.
ׁCYTOPLASM: deeper, richer blue and appears more abundant than in normoblast because of smaller nucleus
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
49.
ׁEach of this cell gives rise to two metarubricytes
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
50.
Last stage capable of mitosis
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
51.
First stage in which the cytoplasm becomes pink
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
52.
cytoplasm is gray
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
53.
no more nucleolus
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
54.
N:C ratio = 1:1
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
55.
-N:C ratio = 1:2
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
56.
-Nucleus is extruded at this stage, and the cell becomes a reticulocyte.
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
57.
Other names: Nucleated RBC (NRBC), Pyknotic erythroblast, Acidophilic normoblast
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
58.
Last stage with a nucleus
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
59.
Cytoplasm is salmon-pink
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
60.
ׁNUCLEUS: pyknotic (dense mass of degenerated chromatin
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
61.
• LAST STAGE OF HEMOGLOBIN SYNTHESIS
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
62.
Young RBCs containing residual RNA (last immature erythrocyte stage)
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
63.
Spends 2 to 3 days in the bone marrow and1 day in the peripheral blood before developing into a mature RBC
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
64.
Spends 2 to 3 days in the bone marrow and1 day in the peripheral blood before developing into a mature RBC
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
65.
Reticulocyte spends ___ in the bone marrow
a)
2 to 3 days
b)
5 to 7 days
c)
1 day
d)
5 days
66.
How many days does reticulocyte stays in the peripheral blood before developing into a mature RBC?
a)
2 to 3 days
b)
5 to 7 days
c)
1 day
d)
5 days
67.
Nucleus has checkerboard appearance
a)
Rubricyte
b)
Lymphocyte
68.
Color of the cytoplasm is muddy or gray
a)
Rubricyte
b)
Lymphocyte
69.
Color of the cytoplasm is sky blue or robin egg blue
a)
Rubricyte
b)
Lymphocyte
70.
nucleus appears like crushed violet
a)
Rubricyte
b)
Lymphocyte
71.
Has 4:1 N:C ratio
a)
Rubriblast
b)
Prorubricyte
c)
Rubricyte
d)
Metarubricyte
e)
Reticulocyte
72.
=enveloped extruded nucleus
=engulfed by bone marrow macrophages
=Frequently, small fragments of the nucleus are left behind if the projection is pinched off before the entire nucleus is enveloped (the fragments are called Howell-Jolly bodies when seen in the RBCs in the circulation)
a)
Pyrenocyte
b)
Reticulocyte
c)
Mature erythrocyte
73.
Which methods of obtaining the reticulocyte count is the most rapid, accurate, and precise?
a)
Routine light Microscope method
b)
Calibrated Miller Disk Method
c)
Flow cytometry
74.
Thickness of a mature erythrocyte
a)
1 to 2 um
b)
1.5 to 2.5 um
c)
2.5 to 3.5 um
d)
0.5 to 1 um
75.
Number of erythrocytes produced from each rubriblas
a)
16 to 32
b)
8 to 32
c)
15 to 32
d)
9 to 21
76.
•Normal ratio of RBCs to WBCs is approximately
a)
500:1
b)
600:1
c)
250:1
d)
1000:1
77.
Normal ratio of RBCs to platelets is approximately
a)
9:1
b)
4:1
c)
15:1
d)
21:1
78.
Which of the following is the greatest RBC membrane constituent?
a)
Proteins
b)
Lipids
c)
Carbohydrates
79.
channel ions, water, and glucose and anchor cell membrane receptors
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
80.
also provide the vertical support connecting the lipid bilayer to the underlying cytoskeleton to maintain membrane integrity
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
81.
- provide the horizontal or the lateral support for the membrane
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
82.
- The shape and flexibility of the erythrocyte depend on the cytoskeleton.
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
83.
Aquaporin 1
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
84.
Band 3
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
85.
CA2+ ATPase
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
86.
Duffy
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
87.
GLut-1
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
88.
Glycophorin A
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
89.
Glycophorin B
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
90.
Glycophorin C
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
91.
ICAM-4
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
92.
Kell
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
93.
Kidd
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
94.
RhAG
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
95.
α-spectrin β-spectrin
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
96.
Adducin
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
97.
Ankyrin
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
98.
Dematin
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
99.
Protein 4.1
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
100.
Protein 4.2
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
101.
Tropomodulin
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
102.
Tropomyosin
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
103.
F-actin
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
104.
Rh
a)
Transmembrane proteins
b)
Skeletal Proteins
105.
Water transporter
a)
Aquaporin 1
b)
Band 3
c)
Ca2+ - ATPase
d)
Duffy
106.
Anion transporter, supports ABH antigens
a)
Aquaporin 1
b)
Band 3
c)
Ca2+ - ATPase
d)
Duffy
107.
Ca2+-transporter
a)
Aquaporin 1
b)
Band 3
c)
Ca2+ - ATPase
d)
Duffy
108.
Supports Duffy antigen
a)
Aquaporin 1
b)
Band 3
c)
Ca2+ - ATPase
d)
Duffy
109.
Glucose transporter, supports ABH antigens
a)
Glut-1
b)
Glycophorin A
c)
Glycophorin B
d)
Glycophorin C
110.
Transports negatively charged sialic acid, supports MN determinants
a)
Glut-1
b)
Glycophorin A
c)
Glycophorin B
d)
Glycophorin C
111.
Transports negatively charged sialic acid, supports Ss determinants
a)
Glut-1
b)
Glycophorin A
c)
Glycophorin B
d)
Glycophorin C
112.
Transports negatively charged sialic acid, supports Gerbich system determinants
a)
Glut-1
b)
Glycophorin A
c)
Glycophorin B
d)
Glycophorin C
113.
Integrin adhesion
a)
ICAM-4
b)
Kell
c)
Kidd
d)
Rh
e)
RhAG
114.
Zn2+-binding endopeptidase, Kell antigens
a)
ICAM-4
b)
Kell
c)
Kidd
d)
Rh
e)
RhAG
115.
Urea transporter
a)
ICAM-4
b)
Kell
c)
Kidd
d)
Rh
e)
RhAG
116.
D and CcEe antigens
a)
ICAM-4
b)
Kell
c)
Kidd
d)
Rh
e)
RhAG
117.
Necessary for expression of D and CcEe antigens; Gas transporter, probably of CO2
a)
ICAM-4
b)
Kell
c)
Kidd
d)
Rh
e)
RhAG
118.
Primary cytoskeletal proteins
a)
alpha-spectrin, beta spectrin
b)
Adducin
c)
Ankyrin
d)
Dematin
e)
F-actin
119.
Caps actin filament
a)
alpha-spectrin, beta spectrin
b)
Adducin
c)
Ankyrin
d)
Dematin
e)
F-actin
120.
Anchors band 3 and protein 4.2
a)
alpha-spectrin, beta spectrin
b)
Adducin
c)
Ankyrin
d)
Dematin
e)
F-actin
121.
Actin bundling protein
a)
alpha-spectrin, beta spectrin
b)
Adducin
c)
Ankyrin
d)
Dematin
e)
F-actin
122.
Binds beta spectrin
a)
alpha-spectrin, beta spectrin
b)
Adducin
c)
Ankyrin
d)
Dematin
e)
F-actin
123.
Anchors 4.1 complex
a)
Protein 4.1
b)
Protein 4.2
c)
Tropomodulin
d)
Tropomyosin
124.
Anchors Ankyrin complex
a)
Protein 4.1
b)
Protein 4.2
c)
Tropomodulin
d)
Tropomyosin
125.
Caps actin filament
a)
Protein 4.1
b)
Protein 4.2
c)
Tropomodulin
d)
Tropomyosin
126.
Regulates actin polymerization
a)
Protein 4.1
b)
Protein 4.2
c)
Tropomodulin
d)
Tropomyosin
127.
What is the most commonly used blood collection tubes in the Hematology section?
a)
a. Sodium citrate
b)
b. Sodium fluoride
c)
c. EDTA
d)
d. Lithium heparin
128.
The anticoagulant-to-blood ratio for a light blue-top is
a)
a. 1:4
b)
b. 4:1
c)
c. 9:1
d)
d. 1:9
129.
If a blood film is not stained within 2 hours, what background color will it give on a Wright's stain?
a)
a. Red
b)
b. Blue
c)
c. Green
d)
d. Purple
130.
Proper application of tourniquet:
a)
a. 1 to 2 inches below the puncture site
b)
b. 1 to 2 inches above the puncture site
c)
c. 3 to 4 inches below the puncture site
d)
d. 3 to 4 inches above the puncture site
131.
Cleansing of the venipuncture site should be in a ________ motion
a)
a. Circular; outside to inside
b)
b. Circular; inside to outside
c)
c. Back-and-forth with friction
d)
d. Figure-of-eight direction
132.
Finger puncture should be done ___ to the fingerprint
a)
a. Parallel
b)
b. Perpendicular
c)
c. Diagonal
d)
d. In any direction
133.
Which of the following should be the last to be filled when collecting blood from skin puncture?
a)
a. Tube for blood gas
b)
b. Glass slides
c)
c. Serum micro-collection tubes
d)
d. EDTA-microcollection tube
134.
During the 5th to 7th gestational weeks, what is the main site of hematopoiesis?
a)
a. Yolk sac
b)
b. Liver
c)
c. Spleen
d)
d. Bone marrow
135.
After retrogression, active marrow is restricted to the following bones, except:
a)
a. Vertebrae
b)
b. Skull
c)
c. Radius
d)
d. Illiac crest
136.
The following cells temporarily decreases after splenectomy except:
a)
a. Leukocytes
b)
b. Platelets
c)
c. RBCs
d)
d. None of the above
137.
Which of the following is true regarding early hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs)?
a)
a. CD38+
b)
b. HLA-DR (high
c)
c. CD34+
d)
d. All of the above
138.
Which of the following follows the general trends in the appearance in erythropoiesis?
a)
a. Increase in overall diameter
b)
b. Condensation of the nuclear chromatin
c)
c. N:C ratio increases
d)
d. Appearance of the nucleoli
139.
Detectable hemoglobin synthesis occurs in the:
a)
a. Rubriblast
b)
b. Prorubricyte
c)
c. Rubricyte
d)
d. Metarubricyte
140.
The pink color associated with stained hemoglobin is seen in which of the following stages?
a)
a. Rubriblast
b)
b. Prorubricyte
c)
c. Rubricyte
d)
d. Metarubricyte
141.
The orthochromatic erythroblast stage is the last stage of ___ synthesis
a)
a. DNA
b)
b. RNA
c)
c. Protein
d)
d. Ribosome
142.
The RBC lifespan in a term neonate is:
a)
a. 35 to 50 days
b)
b. 50 to 60 days
c)
c. 60 to 70 days
d)
d. 120 days
143.
Which RBC membrane lipid has an increased distribution on the outer layer of senescent RBCs and serves as a receptor that macrophages bind to, leading to increased RBC death?
a)
a. Sphingomyelin
b)
b. Phosphatidylcholine
c)
c. Phosphatidylethanolamine
d)
d. Phosphatidylserine
144.
The M & N antigens are located in which glycophorin?
a)
a. Glycophorin A
b)
b. Glycophorin B
c)
c. Glycophorin B
d)
d. Glycophorin D
145.
Production of 2,3-disphosphoglycertae occurs in which glycolysis diversion pathway?
a)
a. Hexose monophosphate pathway
b)
b. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
c)
c. Rapoport-Luebering pathway
d)
d. Embden-Meyerhoff pathway
146.
A ring of carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen atoms with a central atom of ferrous iron
a)
a. Protoporphyrin IX
b)
b. Heme
c)
c. Hemoglobin
d)
d. Globin
147.
Heme biosynthesis begins in the ___ and ends in the ___ of erythroid precursor cells
a)
a. Mitochondria; Cytoplasm
b)
b. Mitochondria; Mitochondria
c)
c. Cytoplasm; Mitochondria
d)
d. Cytoplasm; Cytoplasm
148.
Which globin chain is coded on the short arm of chromosome 16?
a)
a. Alpha
b)
b. Epsilon
c)
c. Delta
d)
d. A and B
149.
In a normal adult, the composition of hemoglobin from the greatest to least is:
a)
a. Hb A > Hb A2 > Hb F
b)
b. Hb A > Hb F > Hb A2
c)
c. Hb F > Hb A > Hb A2
d)
d, Hb A2 > Hb A > Hb F
150.
At birth, which composition of hemoglobin is predominant?
a)
Hb A
b)
Hb F
c)
Hb A2
151.
It is formed by the irreversible oxidation of hemoglobin by drugs or exposure to chemicals in industrial or environmental settings
a)
a. Methemoglobin
b)
b. Carboxyhemoglobin
c)
c. Sulfhemoglobin
d)
d. Oxyhemoglobin
152.
The effect of hepcidin to the amount of serum iron:
a)
a. Increased
b)
b. Decreased
c)
c. No effect
d)
d. Variable effect
100 %
