WorksheetsTEST - 17 - MATHS & SCIENCE (ENG)
Total questions: 110
Worksheet time: 2hrs 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
In a frequency table, the class size of 15–20, 20–25, 25–30, … is
a)
4
b)
5
c)
10
d)
15
2.
For exclusive class intervals 10–20, 20–30, 30–40…, the class mark of 20–30 is
a)
20
b)
25
c)
30
d)
35
3.
If the range of a data set is 37 and the minimum value is −12, the maximum value is
a)
25
b)
37
c)
49
d)
−49
4.
Tally marks ‘||||’ represents the frequency
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
10
5.
The mean of 12, 18, 22, 28 is
a)
18
b)
20
c)
21
d)
25
6.
The median of 7, 9, 2, 4, 6 is
a)
4
b)
6
c)
7
d)
9
7.
The mode of 3, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 7, 8 is
a)
5
b)
6
c)
7
d)
8
8.
For grouped data, the modal class is the class with
a)
least lower limit
b)
greatest upper limit
c)
maximum frequency
d)
class mark = mean
9.
In a histogram, the area of each rectangle is proportional to
a)
class mark
b)
class size
c)
frequency density
d)
cumulative frequency
10.
For equal class widths, frequency density equals
a)
frequency ÷ class width
b)
class width ÷ frequency
c)
cumulative frequency ÷ class width
d)
frequency × class width
11.
For a pie chart, data 30, 50, 40 has total 120. The central angle for 50 is
a)
120°
b)
150°
c)
90°
d)
180°
12.
If Σfi = 40 and Σfixi = 860, the mean is
a)
20
b)
21.5
c)
22
d)
23.5
13.
In the step-deviation method, if A = 50, h = 10, Σfidi = 12, Σfi = 40, then the mean is
a)
47
b)
50
c)
53
d)
56
14.
For cumulative frequency just exceeding N/2, we locate
a)
mean class
b)
modal class
c)
median class
d)
smallest class
15.
Median formula (grouped) uses
a)
lower limit of modal class
b)
upper limit of median class
c)
lower limit of median class
d)
class mark of median class
16.
In median formula, c.f. denotes
a)
class frequency
b)
cumulative frequency of median class
c)
cumulative frequency before median class
d)
total frequency
17.
If the modal class frequency is fm, the frequencies of classes just before and after are f1 and f2. The mode formula uses
a)
fm − f2 only
b)
fm − f1 only
c)
f1 + f2 only
d)
both (fm − f1) and (fm − f2)
18.
Classes 0–10, 10–20, 20–30 with frequencies 5, 12, 9. The cumulative frequency up to 20–30 is
a)
9
b)
12
c)
17
d)
26
19.
If a class is 35–45, its class mark is
a)
35
b)
40
c)
45
d)
50
20.
In exclusive classes, the upper limit of one class equals the
a)
lower limit of next class
b)
upper limit of next class
c)
class mark of next class
d)
range of next class
21.
Data taken directly from the investigator’s experiment is
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
grouped
d)
cumulative
22.
To draw a frequency polygon without a histogram, we need
a)
class marks with frequencies
b)
lower limits only
c)
upper limits only
d)
median and mode
23.
For a bar diagram, the bars must have equal
a)
areas
b)
widths
c)
frequencies
d)
angles
24.
The most affected average by extreme values is
a)
mean
b)
median
c)
mode
d)
class mark
25.
If mean = median = mode for a distribution, the distribution is
a)
positively skewed
b)
negatively skewed
c)
perfectly symmetric
d)
bimodal
26.
Given Σfi = 50, L = 30, c.f. (before) = 18, f = 12, h = 10. The median is
a)
36
b)
38
c)
40
d)
42
27.
For mode with L = 20, h = 10, fm = 18, f1 = 12, f2 = 10, the mode is
a)
22
b)
24
c)
26
d)
28
28.
If class width doubles but frequencies unchanged, frequency densities
a)
double
b)
halve
c)
unchanged
d)
become zero
29.
For data 5, 7, 7, 7, 9, 11, the range is
a)
4
b)
6
c)
7
d)
11
30.
If 20% of 360° pie chart corresponds to a sector, its angle is
a)
60°
b)
72°
c)
90°
d)
108°
31.
In a histogram with unequal widths, rectangle heights must be proportional to
a)
frequency
b)
class width
c)
frequency density
d)
cumulative frequency
32.
If Σfi = 60 and mean = 32, then Σfixi equals
a)
32
b)
60
c)
320
d)
1920
33.
Ogive is a graph of
a)
individual values
b)
frequencies vs class marks
c)
cumulative frequencies vs class boundaries
d)
angles vs categories
34.
The lower boundary of 20–30 (exclusive) when drawn on a continuous scale is
a)
19.5
b)
20
c)
20.5
d)
29.5
35.
When converting inclusive classes (10–19, 20–29) to exclusive, the adjustment made is
a)
add 0.5 to all limits
b)
subtract 0.5 from lowers, add 0.5 to uppers
c)
subtract 1 from lowers
d)
add 1 to uppers
36.
Given class 40–50 has frequency 0. In the histogram this class
a)
has tallest bar
b)
has zero-height bar
c)
merges with next class
d)
is omitted
37.
If the median lies in 30–40 and N = 80, then N/2 equals
a)
20
b)
30
c)
40
d)
60
38.
For data: Class 0–10:8, 10–20:12, 20–30:20, 30–40:10. The modal class is
a)
0–10
b)
10–20
c)
20–30
d)
30–40
39.
If two classes tie for maximum frequency, the distribution is
a)
unimodal
b)
bimodal
c)
symmetric
d)
uniform
40.
In step-deviation, di = (xi − A)/h must be
a)
only integers
b)
any real numbers
c)
only positives
d)
only negatives
41.
If every observation is increased by 7, the mean
a)
unchanged
b)
increases by 7
c)
decreases by 7
d)
multiplies by 7
42.
If every observation is multiplied by 3, the median
a)
unchanged
b)
×3
c)
3
d)
÷3
43.
For a positively skewed distribution, the usual order is
a)
mean < median < mode
b)
mode < median < mean
c)
median < mode < mean
d)
mean = median = mode
44.
The mean of first n natural numbers is
a)
n
b)
n/2
c)
(n+1)/2
d)
(n−1)/2
45.
In a grouped table, class boundaries are used for
a)
pie chart
b)
bar diagram
c)
ogive
d)
mean (direct)
46.
If Σfi = 100 and Σfidi = 0 about A = 50, then the mean is
a)
0
b)
50
c)
100
d)
cannot be found
47.
From a pie chart, a sector of 126° corresponds to what percentage?
a)
25%
b)
30%
c)
35%
d)
40%
48.
In a frequency polygon, the first and last points are connected to the midpoints of imaginary classes with
a)
zero frequency
b)
maximum frequency
c)
cumulative frequency
d)
median frequency
49.
If class 15–25 has frequency 9 and class width is 10, its frequency density is
a)
0.9
b)
9
c)
90
d)
15
50.
For data with N = 60, the median position (for ungrouped sorted data) is
a)
30th term
b)
30.5th term
c)
31st term
d)
61st term
51.
“Aquaponics” best describes
a)
Soil-less plant culture with nutrient solution only
b)
Fish + plant co-culture with microbial nutrient recycling
c)
Plant roots suspended in mist environment
d)
Fish culture in cages without plants
52.
A biofertilizer primarily adds…
a)
NPK salts directly to soil
b)
Living microbes that fix/mobilize nutrients
c)
Humic acid only
d)
Lime to correct pH
53.
Rhizobium associates mainly with
a)
Cereals
b)
Legumes
c)
Brassicas
d)
Solanaceae
54.
Azospirillum is typically linked with
a)
Wheat roots
b)
Legume nodules
c)
Cyanobacterial mats
d)
Yeast cultures
55.
Vermicompost is chiefly produced by
a)
Ants
b)
Earthworms
c)
Beetles
d)
Termites
56.
An earthworm widely used in vermicomposting
a)
Eisenia fetida
b)
Apis cerana
c)
Daphnia pulex
d)
Anabaena azollae
57.
Ideal moisture for a vermicompost bed is approx.
a)
5–10%
b)
20–30%
c)
60–70%
d)
95–100%
58.
Hydroponics differs from aeroponics mainly by
a)
Using nutrient mist only
b)
Using flowing/standing nutrient solution
c)
Using soil + compost
d)
Using only rainwater
59.
Aquaculture that combines carps of different feeding habits is called
a)
Monoculture
b)
Composite fish culture
c)
Ranching
d)
Broodstocking
60.
Fingerlings are
a)
Newly hatched larvae
b)
Market-size fish
c)
Juvenile fish ready for stocking
d)
Spent breeders
61.
Horticulture branch for vegetables
a)
Pomology
b)
Olericulture
c)
Apiculture
d)
Floriculture
62.
Apiculture mainly yields
a)
Latex
b)
Honey & wax
c)
Silk filament
d)
Lac
63.
In a standard beehive, cells for queen nutrition secrete
a)
Propolis
b)
Royal jelly
c)
Bee venom
d)
Pollen pellets
64.
Prawn culture most commonly uses
a)
Alpine lakes
b)
Brackish water farms
c)
Desert ponds
d)
Glacier melt pools
65.
A medicinal plant commonly cited for gel-based healing
a)
Jatropha curcas
b)
Aloe vera
c)
Lantana camara
d)
Parthenium hysterophorus
66.
Mushroom with easy bag cultivation for beginners
a)
Button mushroom
b)
Shiitake
c)
Oyster mushroom
d)
Morel
67.
Manuring (biomanuring) aims primarily to
a)
Increase soil salinity
b)
Improve soil organic matter and microbes
c)
Sterilize soil
d)
Replace irrigation
68.
In aquaponics, toxic fish waste ammonia is first converted to
a)
Methane
b)
Nitrite/Nitrate
c)
Sulphide
d)
Phosphate
69.
Dairy farming’s clean-milk practice avoids first streams because they may contain
a)
Only vitamins
b)
More microbes
c)
Extra fat
d)
Only water
70.
Vermicompost typically shows pH close to
a)
2–3
b)
4–5
c)
6.5–7.5
d)
9–10
71.
Nitrification converts
a)
N₂ → NH₃
b)
NH₃ → NO₂⁻/NO₃⁻
c)
NO₃⁻ → N₂
d)
Protein → NH₃
72.
Denitrification is
a)
Aerobic oxidation of NH₃
b)
Reduction of NO₃⁻ to N₂
c)
Fixation of N₂ to NH₃
d)
Assimilation of nitrate
73.
Ammonification means
a)
Plant uptake of nitrate
b)
Mineralization of organic N to NH₃
c)
Oxidation of NH₃ to nitrite
d)
N₂ fixation by lightning
74.
Carbon cycle adds CO₂ to air through
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Respiration & combustion
c)
Carbonate formation only
d)
Denitrification
75.
Hydrophyte leaf feature commonly seen
a)
Thick cuticle
b)
Sunken stomata only
c)
Large aerenchyma
d)
Needle leaves
76.
Xerophyte adaptation
a)
Broad thin leaves with many stomata
b)
Succulent tissues & reduced leaves
c)
Floating leaves with stomata on upper side
d)
No cuticle
77.
Mesophyte best example
a)
Opuntia
b)
Submerged Hydrilla
c)
Lawn grass
d)
Nymphaea
78.
Transpiration is minimal in
a)
Thin, broad leaves
b)
Sunken stomata + thick cuticle
c)
High stomatal density surface
d)
No cuticle
79.
IUCN stands for
a)
International Union for Climate and Nature
b)
International Union for Conservation of Nature
c)
International Unit for Community Nature
d)
Indian Union for Conservation of Nature
80.
Wastewater – Primary treatment chiefly removes
a)
Dissolved organics biologically
b)
Large/suspended solids by screening & sedimentation
c)
Pathogens by chlorination only
d)
Nitrates by denitrifiers
81.
Secondary treatment target is reduction of
a)
BOD via microbes
b)
Sand/grit only
c)
Heavy metals
d)
Salinity
82.
Tertiary treatment commonly addresses
a)
Coarse solids
b)
Pathogens/nutrients polishing
c)
Oil-water separation only
d)
Sludge thickening only
83.
Rainwater harvesting structure that directly recharges ground
a)
Overhead tank
b)
Recharge pit/trench
c)
Evaporation pan
d)
Windbreak
84.
Water cycle process moving water from leaves to air
a)
Percolation
b)
Transpiration
c)
Infiltration
d)
Capillarity
85.
Nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium requires enzyme
a)
Nitrate reductase
b)
Nitrogenase
c)
Amylase
d)
Urease
86.
Eutrophication is driven mainly by excess
a)
Carbonate salts
b)
Nutrients (N, P)
c)
Silica dust
d)
Chloride ions
87.
Hydrophyte stomatal distribution in floating leaves is usually
a)
Lower surface only
b)
Upper surface only
c)
Both equally
d)
None present
88.
Desert plant root system tends to be
a)
Shallow & sparse
b)
Extensive/deep or widespread
c)
Aerial only
d)
Floating
89.
Carbon sink among the following
a)
Cement kilns
b)
Tropical forests
c)
Diesel engines
d)
Flares
90.
Greywater best example
a)
Toilet flush water
b)
Kitchen sink/bath water
c)
Industrial effluent with acids
d)
Stormwater mixed with sewage
91.
Start slide show from first slide
a)
F5
b)
Shift+F5
c)
Ctrl+F5
d)
Alt+F5
92.
Start slide show from current slide
a)
F5
b)
Shift+F5
c)
Ctrl+Enter
d)
Shift+F3
93.
Duplicate (function key in Impress)
a)
F7
b)
Shift+F3
c)
F4
d)
Ctrl+D
94.
Navigator (keyboard)
a)
Ctrl+Shift+F5
b)
Ctrl+N
c)
Ctrl+F8
d)
Alt+F2
95.
Position and Size dialog
a)
F2
b)
F3
c)
F4
d)
F11
96.
Master slide controls
a)
Per-slide animation only
b)
Global formatting elements for slides
c)
Spell-check dictionary
d)
Slide sorter view
97.
To insert a duplicate slide via menu
a)
Slide → New Slide
b)
Slide → Duplicate Slide
c)
Insert → Slide Number
d)
Tools → Options
98.
Layouts in Impress are
a)
Same as templates
b)
Predefined arrangements of placeholders
c)
Only background images
d)
Only animation presets
99.
Normal view mainly used for
a)
Reordering many slides at once
b)
Editing content on a single slide
c)
Printing handouts
d)
Setting global background
100.
Slide Sorter view is ideal for
a)
Editing paragraph styles
b)
Rehearsing timings
c)
Reordering multiple slides quickly
d)
Inserting hyperlinks
101.
Notes view purpose
a)
Add presenter notes below slide
b)
Export to PDF only
c)
Set master background
d)
Record audio narration only
102.
Transition vs Animation—transition applies to
a)
Objects only
b)
Text only
c)
Slide-to-slide change
d)
Charts only
103.
To apply a theme to all slides, you typically edit
a)
Each slide manually
b)
Slide layouts only
c)
Master slide
d)
Slide show settings
104.
During slide show, next slide key
a)
Backspace
b)
Spacebar
c)
Esc
d)
F2
105.
Spell check function key
a)
F7
b)
F8
c)
F11
d)
Shift+F7
106.
Styles and Formatting (Impress)
a)
F11
b)
Ctrl+1
c)
Ctrl+Shift+F8
d)
Ctrl+F6
107.
Insert a new slide quickly
a)
Ctrl+M
b)
Ctrl+P
c)
Ctrl+S
d)
Ctrl+L
108.
To preview slideshow timings automatically, use
a)
Rehearse Timings under Slide Show
b)
AutoCorrect
c)
Format → Timings
d)
Tools → Rehearse
109.
To duplicate a slide without menu, one valid way is
a)
Right-click slide thumbnail → Duplicate Slide
b)
Press Esc twice
c)
File → Export
d)
Tools → Spelling
110.
For handouts/notes printing, use
a)
File → Export as ODT
b)
File → Print → Handouts/Notes
c)
Tools → Options
d)
Slide → Properties
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