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Foot and Ankle Anatomy and Assessment Preparation: Title Page

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which muscle label is shown on the plantar surface in the foot diagram?

a)

Extensor hallucis longus

b)

Peroneus brevis

c)

Abductor hallucis

d)

Extensor digitorum longus

2.

Functional activities of the foot, as listed, involve dynamic movement and weight-bearing. Which of the following is given as an example of a functional activity?

a)

Static stretching

b)

Isolated ankle inversion with a band

c)

Hopping

d)

Holding a balance pose without moving

3.

Match each subsystem of the foot core system with its description.

a)

Passive subsystem

1.

Ligaments, joint capsules, plantar fascia, bone structure

b)

Active subsystem

2.

Muscles that create movement

c)

Neural subsystem

3.

Sensory receptors for balance and coordination

4.

Fill in the blank: The slide states that three subsystems work together for _______

a)

foot stability

b)

hand movement

c)

knee extension

d)

spinal alignment

5.

A coach asks which activity from the list would be least functional for training foot performance. Using the slide's categories, which should you choose?

a)

Carioca drill

b)

Jogging

c)

Cutting

d)

Static stretches

6.

According to the diagram and bullet points, how many tarsal bones form the rear and midfoot?

a)

Five

b)

Six

c)

Seven

d)

Eight

7.

Which bones are listed as articulating with the navicular in the slide?

a)

Talus

b)

Metatarsals

c)

Cuneiforms

d)

Cuboid

e)

Phalanges

8.

Match each colored label in the tarsal bone diagram to its named bone.

a)

Purple

1.

Calcaneus

b)

Yellow

2.

Talus

c)

Teal

3.

Navicular

d)

Green

4.

Cuboid

e)

Red

5.

Cuneiforms

9.

Which statement best describes the action permitted at the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joints, based on the diagram and notes?

a)

Rotation similar to the wrist

b)

Hinge action of the toes, similar to finger movement at knuckles

c)

Ball-and-socket motion for multidirectional movement

d)

No movement occurs at these joints

10.

The MTP joints are essential during walking and running because they:

a)

provide hinge action for toe dorsiflexion during push-off, efficiently directing force forward

b)

allow rotation of the toes for balance during gait

c)

absorb shock by flexing in multiple directions

d)

stabilize the ankle during heel strike

11.

Which structure reduces pressure during weight-bearing according to the slide?

a)

Sesamoid bones

b)

Plantar fascia

c)

Talus

d)

Lateral longitudinal arch

12.

During locomotion, the _______ provides the main support, as stated in the weight-bearing structures list.

a)

First metatarsal joint

b)

Calcaneus

c)

Talus

d)

Navicular bone

13.

Which statement best describes the role of the medial longitudinal arch from the content shown?

a)

It initiates dorsiflexion

b)

It distributes body weight

c)

It stabilizes the talus during plantarflexion

d)

It connects the calcaneus to the tibia

14.

Based on the talocrural joint stability content, which ankle position is most stable?

a)

Neutral

b)

Plantarflexion

c)

Dorsiflexion

d)

Inversion

15.

Select ALL statements supported by the talocrural joint stability slide.

a)

Talus is broader anteriorly, fitting tightly in the ankle mortise

b)

Average dorsiflexion range is 10 degrees

c)

Plantarflexion relies more on ligaments for stability

d)

Dorsiflexion decreases stability of the ankle

16.

What tissue described in the plantar fascia support system runs from the calcaneus to the metatarsal heads?

a)

Achilles tendon

b)

Plantar fascia

c)

Deltoid ligament

d)

Peroneal tendons

17.

Explain why the plantar fascia is critical during impact activities, using the specific role stated in the slide.

a)

It is critical for shock absorption, supporting the foot against downward forces and helping maintain arch structure.

b)

It helps the toes grip the ground during running.

c)

It increases flexibility in the ankle joint.

d)

It prevents blisters from forming on the sole of the foot.

18.

Which movements are allowed at the subtalar joint according to the diagram and notes?

a)

Dorsiflexion

b)

Plantarflexion

c)

Inversion

d)

Eversion

e)

Pronation/Supination

19.

The subtalar joint does NOT allow _______.

a)

dorsiflexion or plantarflexion

b)

inversion

c)

eversion

d)

circumduction

20.

In the gait cycle diagram, which subphase range is labeled as Mid Stance?

a)

0–10%

b)

10–30%

c)

30–50%

d)

50–60%

21.

Match each named foot joint classification to its described components.

a)

Midtarsal joint (Chopart's)

1.

calcaneocuboid + talonavicular

b)

Lisfranc joint

2.

tarsometatarsal articulations

c)

Interosseous ligaments

3.

connect metatarsal shafts

22.

During running, the stance phase occupies what proportion of the gait cycle, as stated on the slide?

a)

One half

b)

One third

c)

Two thirds

d)

Varies unpredictably

23.

Which subtalar movement is most critical for adapting to uneven surfaces and helps you walk on a slope, based on the slide's Compass Points prompt?

a)

Dorsiflexion

b)

Plantarflexion

c)

Inversion/Eversion

d)

Toe flexion

24.

Which statement best describes the effect of excessive pronation on foot stability?

a)

It creates an unstable, loose foot

b)

It forms a rigid lever for propulsion

c)

It increases arch stiffness

d)

It improves ligament integrity

25.

Prolonged pronation prevents _______ formation during gait, reducing efficient push-off.

a)

rigid lever

b)

flexible arch

c)

soft tissue

d)

mobile base

26.

During history taking for a foot assessment, which topic should be asked about directly?

a)

Dorsalis pedal pulse strength

b)

Mechanism of injury and pain location

c)

Ligament integrity tests

d)

Subtalar neutral position

27.

Select ALL items that belong in the foot assessment history section, not clinical testing or palpation.

a)

Previous occurrences

b)

Muscle weakness

c)

Dorsalis pedal pulse

d)

Clinical tests

28.

In observation and palpation, what CAN palpation reveal according to the content?

a)

Ligament integrity

b)

Subtalar neutral position

c)

Swelling, pain, and deformities

d)

Color changes only

29.

A patient presents with knee pain and reports excessive pronation. Which reasoning best connects the foot issue to proximal joint pain?

a)

Excessive pronation creates instability in the foot, alters alignment and gait, and increases stress on the knee or hip.

b)

Excessive pronation strengthens the foot muscles, reducing stress on the knee or hip.

c)

Excessive pronation improves rigid lever formation, protecting the knee and hip from pain.

d)

Excessive pronation has no effect on the mechanics of the knee or hip.

30.

According to the slide, calcaneal fractures most commonly occur due to _______.

a)

falls or high jumps

b)

running on uneven surfaces

c)

direct blows to the heel

d)

twisting injuries

31.

Which mechanism is specifically linked to talar fractures in the tarsal region?

a)

Direct blow to the heel

b)

Severe inversion with dorsiflexion

c)

Overuse from repetitive running

d)

Eversion sprain without dorsiflexion

32.

Sever's disease primarily affects which location and population?

a)

Anterior heel in adults

b)

Posterior heel in adolescents

c)

Midfoot in adolescents

d)

Lateral heel in children under 5

33.

Metatarsalgia is best described as causing pain in which specific region of the foot?

a)

Heel

b)

Arch

c)

Ball of the foot

d)

Lateral border

34.

Based on the slide, which metatarsal is the most common site for stress fractures?

a)

First metatarsal

b)

Second metatarsal

c)

Third metatarsal

d)

Fifth metatarsal

35.

Turf toe results from which movement of the great toe?

a)

Hyperflexion

b)

Hyperextension

c)

Abduction

d)

Adduction

36.

The slide notes that a Jones fracture is characterized by a high ______ rate.

a)

non-union

b)

healing

c)

infection

d)

fusion

37.

Which statement correctly matches the deformity with its described feature on the slide?

a)

Pes planus

1.

Navicular bulging and forefoot valgus

b)

Hallux valgus

2.

Bunion at first MTP joint

c)

Hallux rigidus

3.

Bony spurs limiting toe movement

38.

Using the provided details, explain how hallux rigidus could impair an athlete’s performance in activities requiring explosive push-off. Include the slide’s specific feature of the condition in your reasoning.

a)

Hallux rigidus involves bony spurs that limit toe movement, reducing effective push-off and propulsion during sprinting or jumping.

b)

Hallux rigidus causes increased flexibility in the great toe, improving push-off during athletic activities.

c)

Hallux rigidus leads to swelling in the ankle, which enhances sprinting performance.

d)

Hallux rigidus results in stronger foot muscles, increasing explosive power during jumping.

39.

According to the diagram, which treatment modality is described as effective for repair/remodeling tissue phases?

a)

Ultrasound

b)

Cross-friction massage

c)

Night splints

d)

Joint mobilization techniques

40.

Fill in the blank: __________ helps plantar fasciitis, as stated under Treatment Modalities and Techniques.

a)

Cross-friction massage

b)

Ultrasound therapy

c)

Cryotherapy

d)

Electrical stimulation

41.

Which treatment is specifically noted to maintain static stretch positions, and what is its primary purpose as listed?

a)

Night splints; they maintain static stretch positions.

b)

Physical therapy; it increases muscle strength.

c)

Heat packs; they reduce inflammation.

d)

Massage therapy; it improves circulation.

42.

The special test used to identify Morton's neuroma is the:

a)

Tinel's sign at the ankle

b)

Metatarsal squeeze test

c)

Thompson test

d)

Anterior drawer test

43.

Select ALL statements that directly match the diagram content under Special Tests and Diagnosis.

a)

Tarsal tunnel syndrome has multiple contributing factors

b)

Subungual hematoma results from direct trauma

c)

Special tests are unnecessary for accurate diagnosis

d)

Morton's neuroma causes severe pain and numbness

44.

According to the Foot Shape Metrics shown, which metric specifically measures the height of the arch?

a)

Length

b)

Arch Height

c)

Ball Girth

d)

Ecliptic Girth

45.

Match each foot posture term with its visual depiction label provided in the review: Pronation, Neutral, Supination.

a)

Image labeled "Pronation" (red foot)

1.

Pronation

b)

Image labeled "Neutral" (tan foot)

2.

Neutral

c)

Image labeled "Supination" (blue foot)

3.

Supination

46.

List any three specific Foot Shape Metrics from the review.

a)

Length, width (forefoot & heel), Arch Height

b)

Toe nail color, Shoe size, Sock material

c)

Running speed, Jump height, Shoe brand

d)

Hair color, Eye color, Skin tone

47.

Based on the assessment review, how would you distinguish between functional vs. non-functional activities during a practical exam, and which joint movement should be practiced?

a)

Functional activities are used in daily movement tasks; non-functional activities are not typical patterns. Practice ankle dorsiflexion.

b)

Functional activities are only for sports; non-functional activities are for rest. Practice shoulder abduction.

c)

Functional activities involve only upper limbs; non-functional activities involve lower limbs. Practice wrist flexion.

d)

Functional activities are not assessed; non-functional activities are always assessed. Practice knee extension.

48.

Identify the group of bones highlighted in blue in the diagram: These seven bones form the rear and midfoot region.

a)

Metatarsals

b)

Phalanges

c)

Tarsal bones

d)

Sesamoid bones

49.

How many metatarsals are in the forefoot, and what do they connect to?

a)

Seven; connect to the ankle

b)

Five; connect to the toes

c)

Five; connect to the tibia

d)

Three; connect to the heel

50.

Fill in the blank: Phalanges are the toe bones, similar to _______.

a)

finger bones

b)

heel bones

c)

ankle bones

d)

shin bones

51.

Which statement best describes sesamoid bones in the foot?

a)

Large bones that form the heel

b)

Small bones that reduce pressure during weight-bearing

c)

Long bones connecting toes to the ankle

d)

Flat bones that form the arch

52.

Match each bone group to its description.

a)

Tarsal bones

1.

Seven bones forming the rear and midfoot

b)

Metatarsals

2.

Five long bones in the forefoot that connect to the toes

c)

Phalanges

3.

The toe bones, similar to finger bones

53.

Which joint is described as the main ankle joint where the tibia and fibula meet the talus?

a)

Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint

b)

Talocrural joint

c)

Subtalar joint

d)

Interphalangeal joint

54.

During dorsiflexion, in which direction does the foot move relative to the shin, as shown in the diagram?

a)

Downward away from the shin

b)

Upward toward the shin

c)

Outward rolling motion

d)

Inward rolling motion

55.

Fill in the blank: Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joints are the joints where toes connect to _______.

a)

metatarsals

b)

phalanges

c)

tarsals

d)

calcaneus

56.

Which movement term correctly matches its definition: Turning the sole of your foot inward?

a)

Eversion

b)

Pronation

c)

Supination

d)

Inversion

57.

A runner shows outward rolling motion of the foot during weight-bearing. Based on the terminology, which alignment term describes this pattern, and what is the ideal foot position used for assessment and measurement?

a)

Pronation; Subtalar neutral

b)

Supination; Subtalar neutral

c)

Eversion; Inversion

d)

Inversion; Eversion

58.

Which term describes the thick fibrous tissue supporting the foot arch?

a)

Medial longitudinal arch

b)

Plantar fascia

c)

Pes planus

d)

Foot core system

59.

The medial longitudinal arch is defined as _______.

a)

The main arch running along the inside of your foot

b)

The arch formed by the heel and toes only

c)

The outermost arch of the foot

d)

The arch located at the base of the fingers

60.

Which term is the medical diagnosis for a flat feet condition?

a)

Pes planus

b)

Hallux valgus

c)

Forefoot valgus

d)

Navicular bulging

61.

According to the content, the foot core system consists of _______ working together for foot stability.

a)

three subsystems

b)

two muscles

c)

four ligaments

d)

five bones

62.

Using the image showing a foot arch support sleeve, which structures are specifically targeted for support according to the package label?

a)

Plantar fascia

b)

Metatarsals

c)

Arch

d)

Heel

e)

Achilles tendon

63.

Metatarsalgia refers to which specific symptom?

a)

Pain in the heel

b)

Pain in the ball of your foot

c)

Pain from hyperextension of the great toe

d)

Pain at the fifth metatarsal

64.

Identify the injury termed “turf toe.”

a)

Pain in the ball of the foot

b)

Hyperextension injury of the great toe

c)

Specific fifth metatarsal fracture

d)

Heel pain in adolescents

65.

Which statement best matches a Jones fracture?

a)

General metatarsal stress fracture

b)

Specific type of fifth metatarsal fracture

c)

Fracture of the talus

d)

Lisfranc joint sprain

66.

Sever's disease is characterized as _______.

a)

a heel pain condition affecting adolescents

b)

a chronic knee disorder in adults

c)

an autoimmune disorder affecting the spine

d)

a viral infection causing joint pain

67.

Match each deformity/structural term to its definition.

a)

Hallux valgus

1.

Medical term for bunion formation

b)

Hallux rigidus

2.

Stiffness and limited motion of the great toe

c)

Navicular bulging

3.

Outward prominence of the navicular bone

d)

Forefoot valgus

4.

Angling of the forefoot away from the midline

68.

Which deformity involves angling of the forefoot away from the midline?

a)

Hallux valgus

b)

Forefoot valgus

c)

Navicular bulging

d)

Hallux rigidus

69.

Palpation is defined as using touch to examine tissues for pain, swelling, or abnormalities. Which assessment term best matches this definition?

a)

Observation

b)

Palpation

c)

Mechanism of injury

70.

During a foot exam, a clinician visually reviews foot structure and alignment without touching. What is this process called?

a)

Palpation

b)

Observation

c)

Sensory examination

71.

Where is the dorsalis pedal pulse felt according to the assessment terms shown?

a)

On top of the foot

b)

Behind the knee

c)

On the wrist

d)

On the neck

72.

Which statement best describes 'mechanism of injury' as used in foot and ankle assessment?

a)

The visual appearance of the injury

b)

How an injury occurred or what caused it

c)

The specific ligament torn

73.

Based on the gait diagram, which phase refers to the period when your foot is in contact with the ground?

a)

Swing phase

b)

Stance phase

c)

Initial swing

74.

In the gait cycle diagram, 'Terminal stance' is identified as the final portion of the stance phase before toe-off. Which percentage range does terminal stance occupy in the stance phase segment shown?

a)

0–10%

b)

10–30%

c)

30–50%

75.

Single limb support is defined as the phase when only one foot supports your body weight. Which gait phase generally contains single limb support according to the diagram and terms?

a)

Stance phase

b)

Swing phase

76.

Match each gait sub-phase with its percentage range shown in the diagram.

a)

Loading Response

1.

0–10%

b)

Mid Stance

2.

10–30%

c)

Terminal Stance

3.

30–50%

d)

Pre Swing

4.

50–60%

e)

Initial Swing

5.

60–73%

77.

Which joint complex is located between the hindfoot and midfoot and is also called Chopart's joint?

a)

Lisfranc joint

b)

Midtarsal joint

c)

Ankle mortise

78.

The Lisfranc joint refers to the tarsometatarsal joint where the midfoot meets the forefoot. Which description correctly identifies this joint?

a)

Joint between hindfoot and midfoot

b)

Tarsometatarsal joint where midfoot meets forefoot

c)

Fibrous structures surrounding synovial joints

79.

Interosseous ligaments are defined in the material as connective tissue between metatarsal bones. Provide the term that matches this definition.

a)

Interosseous ligaments

b)

Collateral ligaments

c)

Plantar fascia

d)

Dorsal aponeurosis

80.

Joint capsules are described as fibrous structures surrounding synovial joints. Which option correctly names these structures?

a)

Interosseous ligaments

b)

Joint capsules

c)

Ankle mortise