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Lesson 1: The Family

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the basic unit of society that should be strengthened and included in the process of development?

a)

The Family

b)

The Government

c)

The School

d)

The Corporation

2.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a family as described in the lesson?

a)

The family has a boundary which means that the other people can recognize its members and those are not.

b)

The family is a collection of people who are integrated, interacting and interdependent.

c)

The family is always composed of at least four generations.

d)

The parts (family members) interact with each other and the action of one affects the other members.

3.

A person may be identified primarily as a member of a particular __ to its member.

a)

family

b)

school

c)

team

d)

company

4.

Which of the following best describes a 'Nuclear Family'?

a)

A family with four or more generations

b)

A type of family composed of father, mother, and a child or children

c)

A family composed of unrelated individuals

d)

A family with only one parent

5.

What type of family is composed of the nuclear family plus the relatives of one or both spouses, who usually live with the nuclear family?

a)

Extended Family

b)

Nuclear Family

c)

Single-Parent Family

d)

Childless Family

6.

Which type of family is described as a family with four or more generations, each of them small, and as each generation lives longer, parent-child relationships last longer?

a)

Beanpole Family

b)

Nuclear Family

c)

Extended Family

d)

Joint Family

7.

A family composed of either a father or mother with his/her biological or adopted children is called a ________.

a)

Single-Parent Family

b)

Extended Family

c)

Nuclear Family

d)

Childless Family

8.

Step family/Blended family/Reconstituted family is composed of:

a)

Only biological parents and children

b)

Separated/divorced or widowed adult with his/her children and a new spouse, and children born to this union

c)

Unrelated individuals living together

d)

Only one parent and children

9.

Which type of family is characterized by the never-married, separated, divorced, or widowed individual, often characterized by privacy, independence, job mobility, and opportunity to develop skills and knowledge?

a)

Single state

b)

Nuclear family

c)

Joint family

d)

Extended family

10.

A traditional family form is viewed as an autonomous unit in which the father, mother, and child/children live together under one roof.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which type of family may involve the household chores, bringing up the children and family life in general, with the father not necessarily as the head?

a)

Non-traditional form

b)

Patriarchal family

c)

Extended family

d)

Nuclear family

12.

A family composed of gay or lesbian partners living together with or without an adopted child or a child from a previous relationship is called a ________.

a)

Same-sex or Homosexual family

b)

Nuclear family

c)

Extended family

d)

Single-parent family

13.

Which type of family consists of unrelated individuals or families who live together under one roof for companionship, sharing resources and household management?

a)

Cohabiting or Communal family

b)

Nuclear family

c)

Extended family

d)

Single-parent family

14.

A union in which the man has the main authority and decision-making power is called a ________.

a)

Patrifocal or Patriarchal Family

b)

Matrifocal Family

c)

Egalitarian Family

d)

Nuclear Family

15.

A union in which the woman has the main authority and decision-making power is called a ________.

a)

Matrifocal or Matriarchal Family

b)

Patrifocal or Patriarchal Family

c)

Nuclear Family

d)

Extended Family

16.

Which type of family is characterized by the husband-and-wife exercising more or less an equal amount of authority?

a)

Egalitarian

b)

Patriarchal

c)

Matriarchal

d)

Extended

17.

The prolonged absence of the father, as in the case of families of overseas Filipino Workers (OFWs), gives the mother a dominant position in the family. This is called ________.

a)

Matricentric

b)

Patricentric

c)

Egalitarian

d)

Avunculocal

18.

Which type of residence requires the newly wed couple to live with or near the residence of the parents/family of the bride?

a)

Matrilocal

b)

Patrilocal

c)

Neolocal

d)

Avunculocal

19.

Which type of residence requires the newly wed couple to live with or near the residence of the parents/family of the groom?

a)

Patrilocal

b)

Matrilocal

c)

Neolocal

d)

Avunculocal

20.

Which type of residence provides the newlywed couple the choice of staying with either the groom’s or bride’s parents, depending on various factors?

a)

Bilocal

b)

Neolocal

c)

Patrilocal

d)

Matrilocal

21.

Which type of residence permits the couple to reside independently from their parents?

a)

Neolocal

b)

Patrilocal

c)

Matrilocal

d)

Avunculocal

22.

What is the term for a family system where the newlywed couple resides with or near the maternal uncle of the groom?

a)

Avunculocal

b)

Patrilocal

c)

Matrilocal

d)

Neolocal

23.

Which type of family is based on descent through the father?

a)

Patrilineal

b)

Matrilineal

c)

Nuclear

d)

Joint

24.

Which type of family is based on descent through the mother?

a)

Matrilineal

b)

Patrilineal

c)

Nuclear

d)

Joint

25.

Which type of family is based on descent through both parents?

a)

Bilateral

b)

Patrilineal

c)

Matrilineal

d)

Unilineal

26.

According to Maglaya et al., 2003, which of the following is NOT a family health task?

a)

Recognize the presence of a wellness state or health conditions or problem

b)

Make decisions about taking an appropriate health action

c)

Provide nursing care to the sick, disabled, dependent, or at-risk member

d)

Ignore community resources for health care

27.

Which of the following is a characteristic of family?

a)

The family is a very close and intimate group

b)

Family contact and relationships are rare

c)

The family is not important in social life

d)

The family is not continuous

28.

Which family development task is associated with the beginning family stage?

a)

Establishing a mutually satisfying marriage and planning to have or not to have children

b)

Coping with the death of a family member

c)

Adjusting to retirement and reduced income

d)

Launching children and accepting new members into the family

29.

What is one of the main tasks of a child-bearing family?

a)

Having and adjusting to infant

b)

Buying a new house

c)

Traveling the world

d)

Starting a business

30.

Which family development stage involves adjusting to costs of family life and adapting to needs of pre-school?

a)

Family with a pre-school child

b)

Family with adolescents

c)

Launching family

d)

Family in later life

31.

Maintaining open communication among members is a task of which family development stage?

a)

Family with teenagers and young adults

b)

Family with infants and toddlers

c)

Family in retirement

d)

Family with newly married couples

32.

Which family development stage involves maintaining ties with younger and older generations and adjusting to retirement?

a)

Aging family

b)

Launching family

c)

Expanding family

d)

Beginning family

33.

What are some situational crises affecting parental assumption of their role?

a)

Single parenthood

b)

Birth of handicapped/special children

c)

Separation/Divorce

d)

Adopting a child

e)

Death of a spouse

34.

Divorce is a legal separation of marriage. It needs legal formalities, and is an end to a marriage and domestic life.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Separation needs no such formalities. It takes place when the couples decide to live separately but not separated legally.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Assessment in family health nursing deals with collecting, organizing, validating, and recording data about a client's health status.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Which of the following is NOT an activity involved in the diagnosis phase of the family health nursing process?

a)

A. Interpreting and analyzing client data

b)

B. Writing goals/outcomes

c)

C. Identifying client strengths and health problems

d)

D. Formulating and validating nursing diagnoses

38.

The planning phase in the nursing process involves which of the following activities?

a)

Establishing priorities

b)

Writing goals/outcomes and developing an evaluative strategy

c)

Selective nursing interventions

d)

Communicating the plan of nursing care

e)

All of the above

39.

Implementation in the nursing process includes which of the following activities?

a)

Carrying out the plan of care

b)

Continuous data collection and modification of the plan of care as needed

c)

Documentation of care

d)

All of the above

40.

Evaluation in the nursing process is a planned, ongoing, purposeful activity in which clients and health care professionals determine the client's progress toward goal achievement and the effectiveness of the care plan.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

First level assessment in family nursing practice involves determining which of the following?

a)

Wellness condition

b)

Health threats

c)

Health deficit

d)

Stress point/Foreseeable crisis situation

e)

All of the above

42.

For first level assessment, which type of data is NOT gathered?

a)

Health assessment of each member

b)

Environmental factors

c)

Favorite color of each member

d)

Socio-economic and cultural factors

e)

Family structure and characteristics

43.

Second level assessment identifies the nature or type of nursing problems the family experiences in the performance of their health task with respect to a certain health condition or health problem.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four criteria in prioritizing health conditions?

a)

A. Nature of the problem

b)

B. Modifiability of the condition

c)

C. Preventative potential

d)

D. Family income

e)

E. Salience

45.

Nature of the problem refers to whether the problem is a:

a)

Wellness condition

b)

Health deficit

c)

Health threat

d)

Foreseeable crisis

e)

All of the above

46.

Modifiability of the condition refers to the probability of success in enhancing the wellness state, improving the condition, minimizing, alleviating, or totally eradicating the problem through intervention.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Preventative potential refers to the nature and magnitude of future problems that can be minimized or totally prevented if intervention is done on the problem under consideration.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Salience refers to the family's perception and evaluation of the problem in terms of seriousness and urgency of attention needed.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

In the scoring system for prioritizing health conditions, what is the weight assigned to 'Modifiability of the condition'?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

50.

What is the highest possible score for a criterion in the scoring system for prioritizing health conditions?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

10

d)

2

51.

A GOAL is a desired outcome or change in the client's behavior.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

OBJECTIVES are more specific statements about the effects of the nursing intervention.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

EXPECTED OUTCOMES are the most specific measurable criteria to evaluate whether the goal has been met.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which of the following is NOT a cue or defining characteristic of nursing diagnosis?

a)

Nursing diagnosis or problem list

b)

Goals and outcome criteria

c)

Nursing interventions and rationale

d)

Patient's financial status

55.

List the three main skills required from the nurse during IMPLEMENTATION.

a)

Cognitive skills, Interpersonal skills or communication skills, Technical skills or hands-on skills

b)

Managerial skills, Financial skills, Marketing skills

c)

Legal skills, Artistic skills, Culinary skills

d)

Research skills, Literary skills, Athletic skills

56.

Which of the following is a guideline for implementing nursing activities?

a)

Nursing actions should be based on scientific knowledge

b)

Nursing actions should always be unsafe

c)

Client should not participate in implementing the nursing action

d)

Nursing actions should ignore the dignity of the client

57.

What does ONGOING evaluation mean in nursing?

a)

Done after discharge

b)

Done while or immediately after implementing an order

c)

Done only at the start of care

d)

Done by the patient only

58.

INTERMITTENT evaluation is performed at specified time intervals to show the extent of progress toward the goal and enables to correct any deficiencies and modify care plan.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

According to the example, what is the total floor area required for 11 adults, 3 children, and 1 infant in a multi-purpose room?

a)

24 sq.m.

b)

33 sq.m.

c)

37.5 sq.m.

d)

48 sq.m.

60.

The Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) was established in ______ to ensure that infants/children and mothers have access to routinely recommended infant/childhood vaccines.

a)

1976

b)

1982

c)

1965

d)

1990

61.

Which Republic Act mandates the immunization of infants and children in the Philippines?

a)

Republic Act No. 10152

b)

Republic Act No. 9003

c)

Republic Act No. 1425

d)

Republic Act No. 10918

62.

According to the WHO Standard Case Definition, which of the following is NOT a criterion for diagnosing tuberculosis in an ill child?

a)

B) Does not return to normal health after measles or whooping cough

b)

D) Has abdominal swelling due to hard, painless mass and free fluid

c)

A) History of contact with PTB suspect or patient

d)

E) Has painful, firm or soft swelling of lymph nodes

e)

C) Has a runny nose and mild cough

63.

Fill in the blank: The infectious agent of tuberculosis is __________.

a)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

64.

Which of the following is the mode of transmission for tuberculosis?

a)

Droplet infection

b)

Fecal-oral route

c)

Vector-borne

d)

Direct skin contact

65.

Fill in the blank: The incubation period for tuberculosis is about __________ weeks from infection to the appearance of a demonstrable primary lesion.

a)

4-12

b)

1-2

c)

13-20

d)

21-30

66.

Which of the following statements about the period of communicability for tuberculosis is correct?

a)

Only children are communicable

b)

A person who excretes tubercle bacilli is communicable

c)

Only after 6 months is a person communicable

d)

Communicability is not possible

67.

Fill in the blank: Susceptibility to tuberculosis is highest in children under __________ years of age.

a)

three

b)

five

c)

one

d)

ten

68.

What is the infectious agent of diphtheria?

a)

Bordetella pertussis

b)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

69.

Fill in the blank: The reservoir for diphtheria is __________.

a)

Man

b)

Dog

c)

Water

d)

Soil

70.

Which of the following is the mode of transmission for diphtheria?

a)

Fecal-oral

b)

Respiratory droplets (nasal and throat discharge)

c)

Blood transfusion

d)

Vector-borne

71.

Fill in the blank: The incubation period for diphtheria is usually __________ days, but may be longer.

a)

2-5

b)

10-14

c)

7-10

d)

15-20

72.

Which of the following statements about the period of communicability for diphtheria is correct?

a)

It lasts for 1 day only

b)

It may last for 2-3 weeks, but may be shortened in patients with antibiotic treatment

c)

It is not communicable

d)

Only adults are communicable

73.

Fill in the blank: Susceptibility to diphtheria is highest in infants born to __________ mothers.

a)

immune

b)

non-immune

c)

vaccinated

d)

healthy

74.

What is the infectious agent of pertussis?

a)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b)

Bordetella pertussis

c)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

d)

Streptococcus pyogenes

75.

Fill in the blank: The reservoir for pertussis is __________.

a)

Man

b)

Dog

c)

Water

d)

Soil

76.

Which of the following is the mode of transmission for pertussis?

a)

Direct contact with discharge from respiratory mucous membrane

b)

Fecal-oral

c)

Blood transfusion

d)

Vector-borne

77.

Fill in the blank: The incubation period for pertussis usually ranges from __________ days.

a)

5-15

b)

1-3

c)

20-30

d)

16-25

78.

Which of the following statements about the period of communicability for pertussis is correct?

a)

Patient is highly communicable in the early catarrhal stage

b)

Only after paroxysmal cough develops is the patient communicable

c)

Communicability is not possible

d)

Only adults are communicable

79.

Fill in the blank: Susceptibility to pertussis is such that one attack confers __________ immunity.

a)

prolonged

b)

temporary

c)

lifelong

d)

partial

80.

What is the infectious agent for Neonatal Tetanus?

a)

Clostridium tetani

b)

Poliovirus

c)

Measles virus

d)

Hepatitis B virus

81.

What is the reservoir for Poliomyelitis?

a)

Soil

b)

Man

c)

Horses

d)

Water

82.

Fill in the blank: The incubation period for Measles is usually about ___ days with a range of 8 to 13 days from exposure to onset of fever.

a)

10

b)

7

c)

15

d)

20

83.

Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for Hepatitis B?

a)

From child to child

b)

From mother to child after birth

c)

Droplet spread

d)

Blood transfusion

84.

What is the WHO standard case definition for Poliomyelitis?

a)

A viral disease

b)

A bacterial toxin disease

c)

A highly communicable disease with history of rash

d)

A liver infection caused by Hepatitis B virus

85.

Fill in the blank: The period of communicability for Poliomyelitis is maximal infectivity ___ to ___ days before and in the first few days after onset of symptoms.

a)

7 to 16

b)

1 to 3

c)

10 to 20

d)

20 to 30

86.

What is the susceptibility period for infants born to immune mothers for Neonatal Tetanus?

a)

1 month

b)

3 months

c)

5 months

d)

12 months

87.

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of Measles?

a)

Muscle weakness

b)

Botchy rash

c)

Stiffness of the body

d)

Liver inflammation

88.

Fill in the blank: The infectious agent for Hepatitis B is _______.

a)

Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

b)

Hepatitis A virus (HAV)

c)

Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

d)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

89.

What is the mode of transmission for Neonatal Tetanus?

a)

Fecal-oral route

b)

Transmission to the newborn due to unhygienic cutting of the umbilical cord or improper handling of cord stump

c)

Droplet spread

d)

Blood transfusion

90.

Frequently Asked Questions: What if the child failed to return after the first dose of the vaccine, can we still give it?

a)

Yes, the vaccine can still be given if the child returns after missing the scheduled dose.

b)

No, the vaccine cannot be given if the child misses the scheduled dose.

c)

The child must restart the entire vaccination schedule.

d)

The vaccine should be given only during the original scheduled time.

91.

Frequently Asked Questions: Is it necessary to repeat the first dose?

a)

Yes, it is necessary to repeat the first dose.

b)

No, it is not necessary to repeat the first dose.

c)

Only if advised by a doctor.

d)

It depends on the type of medication.

92.

Frequently Asked Questions: The maximum age up to which immunization can be given is:

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

20 years

93.

Frequently Asked Questions: Is there any contraindication to giving DPT, OPV, Hepa-B?

a)

Yes, there are contraindications to giving DPT, OPV, Hepa-B.

b)

No, there are no contraindications to giving DPT, OPV, Hepa-B.

c)

Contraindications depend on the age of the child.

d)

Contraindications only apply to Hepa-B.

94.

If a child has a fever of 38.5°C or less, mild respiratory infection, and diarrhea, should the child be given the vaccine?

a)

Yes, the child can be given the vaccine.

b)

No, the vaccine should be postponed.

c)

Only give the vaccine if the fever is below 37.5°C.

d)

The vaccine should never be given in this situation.

95.

Frequently Asked Questions: What should be done if the child is malnourished?

a)

Provide appropriate nutritional support and consult a healthcare professional.

b)

Ignore the condition and wait for improvement.

c)

Give only water and avoid food.

d)

Restrict the child from physical activity.

96.

According to the ROUTINE IMMUNIZATION SCHEDULE FOR INFANTS, what is the minimum age for the first dose of BCG vaccine?

a)

Birth or anytime after birth

b)

1 month

c)

6 weeks

d)

3 months

97.

According to the ROUTINE IMMUNIZATION SCHEDULE FOR INFANTS, how many doses of DPT vaccine are required?

a)

3 doses

b)

1 dose

c)

2 doses

d)

4 doses

98.

According to the ROUTINE IMMUNIZATION SCHEDULE FOR INFANTS, what is the minimum interval between doses for OPV?

a)

4 weeks

b)

2 weeks

c)

6 weeks

d)

8 weeks