wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

California Insurance Licensing and Market Conduct Questions

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In California, who regulates insurance licensing and market conduct?

a)

The U.S. Department of Commerce

b)

The California Department of Insurance (CDI)

c)

The Federal Reserve Board

d)

The Securities and Exchange Commission

2.

Which law established the authority of the California Insurance Commissioner?

a)

California Administrative Code

b)

California Insurance Code (CIC)

c)

McCarran-Ferguson Act

d)

Civil Code

3.

An individual must be at least what age to apply for a California P&C license?

a)

16

b)

17

c)

18

d)

21

4.

How often must a Property & Casualty Broker-Agent renew their license?

a)

Every year

b)

Every two years

5.

A licensee must complete how many hours of continuing education (CE) per renewal period?

a)

12 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

36 hours

d)

40 hours

6.

How many hours of ethics training are required within each renewal period?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

7.

If a licensee changes their business address, they must notify the CDI within:

a)

10 days

b)

15 days

c)

20 days

d)

30 days

8.

A person who transacts insurance without a valid license is guilty of:

a)

An infraction

b)

A misdemeanor

c)

A felony

d)

An administrative violation only

9.

Which of the following acts requires insurers to protect customers’ private financial information?

a)

HIPAA

b)

California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA)

c)

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

d)

Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA)

10.

The act of “transacting insurance” does not include which of the following?

a)

Soliciting insurance

b)

Negotiating insurance

c)

Executing a contract of insurance

d)

Paying a claim

11.

A broker represents the _____ ; an agent represents the _____

a)

Insurer ; insured

b)

Insured ; insurer

c)

Insurer ; broker

d)

Public ; state

12.

When an agent acts as both broker and agent in the same transaction, this is:

a)

Allowed if disclosed in writing to all parties

b)

Illegal under California law

c)

Allowed only for surplus lines brokers

d)

Permitted only for personal-lines policies

13.

“Fiduciary responsibility” refers to:

a)

Handling client money with honesty and trust

b)

Selling multiple lines of insurance

c)

Providing free legal advice

d)

Disclosing all financial records

14.

Commingling premiums with personal funds is considered:

a)

Acceptable for small accounts

b)

A fiduciary violation

c)

Permitted if approved by insurer

d)

Ethical under the CIC

15.

Which term refers to the illegal practice of offering anything of value to induce someone to buy insurance?

a)

Rebating

b)

Twisting

c)

Defamation

d)

Misrepresentation

16.

The unfair act of persuading someone to cancel an existing policy to purchase another is called:

a)

Rebating

b)

Twisting

c)

Churning

d)

Sliding

17.

What is the penalty for violating California’s Unfair Practices Act?

a)

Revocation only

b)

Fine of up to 5,000perviolation(5,000 per violation ( 10,000 if willful)

c)

Imprisonment only

d)

Administrative suspension for 1 year

18.

Which document must a P&C agent provide when making a home-insurance quote?

a)

Privacy Notice

b)

California Residential Property Insurance Disclosure

c)

Application Summary

d)

Loss History Report

19.

The California Fair Access to Insurance Requirements (FAIR) Plan was created to:

a)

Subsidize flood insurance

b)

Provide property coverage when standard insurers decline risk

c)

Offer earthquake coverage

d)

Provide low-income auto insurance

20.

A “binder” provides:

a)

Temporary insurance coverage until the policy is issued

b)

Proof of permanent insurance

c)

Extended reporting coverage

d)

No coverage without payment

21.

What is the California Low-Cost Automobile Insurance Program designed for?

a)

Teen drivers

b)

High-income individuals

c)

Low-income drivers who need liability insurance

d)

Unlicensed drivers

22.

Which coverage part of a Homeowners policy protects against liability for injury to others?

a)

Coverage A – Dwelling

b)

Coverage B – Other Structures

c)

Coverage C – Personal Property

d)

Coverage E – Personal Liability

23.

Which peril is excluded in most Homeowners policies but available through separate coverage?

a)

Fire

b)

Windstorm

c)

Flood

d)

Lightning

24.

The California Earthquake Authority (CEA) provides what kind of coverage?

a)

Flood

b)

Fire

c)

Earthquake

d)

Tsunami

25.

In California, the cancellation notice for nonpayment of premium on a personal-lines policy must give at least:

a)

5 days’ notice

b)

10 days’ notice

c)

20 days’ notice

d)

30 days’ notice

26.

If a homeowners policy is cancelled for reasons other than nonpayment, how many days’ notice must be given?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

60

27.

Under the California Insurance Code, a “binder” cannot be valid for longer than:

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

120 days

28.

Which of the following is not a type of property insurance?

a)

Dwelling Fire

b)

Homeowners

c)

Commercial Auto

d)

Business Owners Policy (BOP)

29.

An HO-4 policy is intended for:

a)

Homeowners

b)

Condo owners

c)

Renters

d)

Landlords

30.

A commercial policy that combines property and liability coverages for small businesses is called:

a)

BOP (Business Owners Policy)

b)

CGL (Commercial General Liability)

c)

DIC (Difference in Conditions)

d)

Umbrella Policy

31.

California’s “Good Driver Discount” requires insurers to offer a minimum discount of:

a)

10 %

b)

15 %

32.

A California auto policy must provide minimum liability limits of:

a)

10/20/5

b)

15/30/5

c)

25/50/10

d)

30/60/15

33.

Uninsured Motorist Coverage (UIM) is designed to protect the insured against:

a)

Damage to their own vehicle

b)

Injury caused by an uninsured or hit-and-run driver

c)

Weather losses

d)

Mechanical failure

34.

California’s Compulsory Financial Responsibility Law is found in the:

a)

Civil Code

b)

Vehicle Code

c)

Insurance Code

d)

Penal Code

35.

Which of the following would be covered by Workers’ Compensation?

a)

An employee injured off the job

b)

A business owner without employees

c)

An employee injured during work-related activities

d)

An independent contractor

36.

Who administers Workers’ Compensation claims in California?

a)

Department of Labor

b)

Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB)

c)

Department of Justice

d)

CDI

37.

A surplus lines broker may place insurance only when:

a)

They prefer a non-admitted carrier

b)

Coverage is not available from admitted insurers

c)

The premium is lower

d)

They get permission from the insured

38.

Which agency licenses surplus lines brokers in California?

(a)  

39.

A “domestic” insurer is an insurer that:

a)

Is chartered in California

b)

Is licensed in another state

c)

Is chartered in a foreign country

d)

Operates without a license

40.

A foreign insurer is:

a)

Licensed outside the U.S.

b)

Chartered in another state but authorized in California

c)

Unauthorized

d)

Part of the FAIR Plan

41.

A California insurer chartered in London is classified as a(n):

a)

Domestic insurer

b)

Foreign insurer

c)

Alien insurer

d)

Surplus lines broker

42.

Which type of 3rd-party bond guarantees faithful performance of duties?

a)

Fidelity bond

b)

Surety bond

c)

Performance bond

d)

Blanket bond

43.

In a surety bond, the obligee is the:

a)

Principal who promises

b)

Surety company

c)

Party protected by the bond

d)

Broker

44.

Which type of insurer is owned by its policyholders?

a)

Mutual

b)

Stock

c)

Reciprocal

d)

Lloyd’s

45.

A Lloyd’s of London association is best described as:

(a)  

46.

What does “admitted” insurer mean?

a)

Licensed to transact in California

b)

Foreign only

c)

Federal reinsurer

d)

Unauthorized but bonded

47.

When an insurer transfers part of its risk to another insurer, this is called:

a)

Subrogation

b)

Reinsurance

c)

Coinsurance

d)

Assignment

48.

The California Insurance Guarantee Association (CIGA) protects policyholders when:

a)

An insurer goes insolvent

b)

A policy is canceled

c)

A claim is denied

d)

A deductible is too high

49.

CIGA covers all the following except:

a)

Workers’ Compensation claims

b)

Life and health insurance

c)

Auto liability

d)

Homeowners policies

50.

The maximum CIGA benefit for most covered claims is:

a)

$100,000

b)

$300,000

c)

$500,000

d)

Unlimited

51.

Under California law, an insurance company may cancel a commercial policy for nonpayment of premium after giving at least:

a)

5 days’ notice

b)

10 days’ notice

c)

20 days’ notice

d)

30 days’ notice

52.

The California Fair Claims Settlement Practices Regulations require insurers to acknowledge a claim within:

a)

5 calendar days

b)

10 calendar days

c)

15 calendar days

d)

21 calendar days

53.

Once a proof of loss is submitted, an insurer must accept or deny the claim within:

a)

10 days

b)

20 days

54.

If additional time is needed to investigate a claim, the insurer must notify the claimant every:

a)

10 days

b)

20 days

c)

30 days

d)

45 days

55.

In California, the maximum deductible allowed under the California FAIR Plan policy for residential property is typically:

a)

$500

b)

$1,000

c)

$2,500

d)

$5,000

56.

Which of the following is not considered an unfair claims practice?

a)

Misrepresenting policy provisions

b)

Failing to acknowledge claim letters

c)

Prompt payment of claims

d)

Failing to conduct reasonable investigations

57.

A “binder” in California is valid for a maximum of:

a)

60 days

b)

90 days

c)

120 days

d)

6 months

58.

What is the “grace period” for payment of renewal premiums on most property-casualty policies?

a)

5 days

b)

10 days

c)

15 days

d)

None

59.

A loss ratio compares:

a)

Premiums earned to losses paid

b)

Expenses to premiums

c)

Retention to reinsurance

d)

Claims frequency to severity

60.

An agent who fails to disclose a material fact in an insurance transaction is guilty of:

a)

Rebating

b)

Concealment

c)

Twisting

d)

Defamation

61.

A misrepresentation occurs when an agent:

a)

Gives false information about policy terms or benefits

b)

Fails to file taxes

c)

Offers a rebate

d)

Transfers a policy without consent

62.

An agent who makes a false statement about a competing insurer to harm its reputation commits:

a)

Twisting

b)

Defamation

c)

Churning

d)

Coercion

63.

A person who offers to share commissions with a client violates which prohibition?

a)

Rebating

b)

Coercion

64.

“Churning” in insurance refers to:

a)

Misrepresentation to replace a policy within the same company for commission gain

b)

Canceling policies early

c)

Rebating practices

d)

Creating fraudulent claims

65.

An insurance “endorsement” is:

a)

A separate policy

b)

A modification or addition to an existing policy

c)

A binder

d)

A cancellation notice

66.

Under a Personal Auto Policy, “Collision” coverage applies when:

a)

A vehicle is stolen

b)

A vehicle overturns

c)

Damage is caused by hail

d)

The car is vandalized

67.

“Other-Than-Collision” coverage applies to:

a)

Collision with another vehicle

b)

Theft, vandalism, or fire

c)

Liability claims

d)

Rental car reimbursement

68.

Which of the following is not a covered auto under a Personal Auto Policy?

a)

A vehicle owned by the insured

b)

A newly acquired vehicle

c)

A friend’s car borrowed occasionally

d)

A vehicle used as a taxi

69.

Under California law, insurance rates must be:

a)

Excessive, inadequate, or unfairly discriminatory

b)

Approved by the Federal Reserve

c)

Adequate, not excessive, and not unfairly discriminatory

d)

Determined solely by the insurer

70.

Proposition 103 in California primarily regulates:

a)

Life insurance licensing

b)

Auto and property insurance rates

c)

Health insurance rates

d)

Broker commissions

71.

Under Proposition 103, auto rates must primarily consider:

a)

A. Driving record, annual mileage, and years of experience

b)

B. Gender, income, and education

c)

C. Credit score only

d)

D. Zip code only

72.

A personal lines broker-agent may transact:

a)

Commercial property only

b)

Workers’ compensation only

c)

Personal auto, homeowners, and personal liability

d)

Surplus lines

73.

A commercial lines broker-agent may transact:

a)

Personal auto only

b)

Homeowners only

c)

Business property, liability, and commercial auto

d)

Life insurance

74.

When an agent collects a premium from the insured, they hold it in:

a)

A. A general account

b)

B. A fiduciary capacity

c)

C. Trust for the insurer

d)

D. Either B or C

75.

A premium trust account must not be used for:

a)

Depositing premiums

b)

Paying insurer obligations

c)

Personal or business expenses

d)

Returning unearned premiums

76.

The California Code defines a “premium” as:

a)

The agent’s commission

b)

The consideration for an insurance contract

c)

A deductible

d)

A filing fee

77.

An insurance solicitor may:

a)

Transact directly with the public

b)

Act only on behalf of a licensed agent or broker

c)

Represent multiple insurers

d)

Hold fiduciary funds

78.

In California, what must appear on all printed insurance advertisements?

a)

A. A state license number

b)

B. Agent’s home address

c)

C. Company profit statement

d)

D. Commissioner’s signature

79.

Failure to display a license number on advertising materials may result in:

a)

License suspension or fine

b)

No consequence

c)

Automatic renewal denial

d)

Referral to federal authorities

80.

A person whose license has been revoked must wait how long before reapplying?

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

81.

The Notice of Appointment must be filed by the insurer with the CDI within:

a)

5 days

b)

14 days

c)

30 days

d)

45 days

82.

If an agent’s appointment is terminated, the insurer must notify the CDI within:

a)

10 days

b)

15 days

c)

30 days

d)

45 days

83.

Under California law, a binder must include:

a)

The policy number only

b)

The name of the insured, type of coverage, and limits

c)

Premium only

d)

Claims phone number

84.

In a dwelling policy, Coverage C refers to:

a)

Dwelling

b)

Other Structures

c)

Personal Property

d)

Loss of Use

85.

A moral hazard refers to:

a)

Physical conditions increasing risk

b)

Dishonesty or character traits increasing likelihood of loss

c)

Environmental factors

d)

Geographic location

86.

A morale hazard is:

a)

Intentional fraud

b)

Careless attitude toward risk (e.g., “I’m insured”)

c)

Poor construction quality

d)

Increased frequency of theft

87.

Which of the following is considered a peril?

a)

Fire

b)

Negligence

c)

Slippery floors

d)

Unsafe wiring

88.

Under property insurance, a direct loss is:

a)

Damage resulting directly from an insured peril

b)

Consequential financial loss

c)

Business interruption

d)

Extra expense

89.

Actual Cash Value (ACV) equals:

a)

Replacement cost

b)

Replacement cost minus depreciation

c)

Market value

d)

Stated value

90.

A homeowners policy provides replacement cost coverage when the insured carries at least:

a)

50% of replacement cost

b)

60%

c)

80%

d)

100%

91.

The Standard Fire Policy (California) insures against:

a)

Fire only

b)

Fire and lightning

c)

Fire, lightning, and removal

d)

All perils

92.

The liberalization clause provides that:

a)

The insurer can change rates without notice

b)

Any policy broadening that benefits insureds automatically applies

c)

The insured must reapply for benefits

d)

Policies may be canceled more easily

93.

Which policy condition prevents the insured from collecting twice for the same loss?

a)

Other insurance clause

b)

Subrogation clause

c)

Insuring agreement

d)

Deductible

94.

Subrogation allows the insurer to:

a)

Pay a claim immediately

b)

Sue the at-fault party after paying the insured

95.

Which clause states that the insured must protect property after a loss?

a)

Duties after loss

b)

Liberalization

c)

Subrogation

d)

Insuring agreement

96.

An insurer’s consideration in an insurance contract is:

a)

The premium paid

b)

The promise to pay covered claims

c)

The application

d)

The deductible

97.

Which element is not required for a valid insurance contract?

a)

A. Offer and acceptance

b)

B. Consideration

c)

C. Competent parties

d)

D. Profit motive

98.

An aleatory contract means:

a)

Equal value is exchanged

b)

Performance depends on an uncertain event

c)

Both parties are insured

d)

It can’t be canceled

99.

A unilateral contract means:

a)

Both parties promise performance

b)

Only the insurer makes a legally enforceable promise

c)

Only the insured promises performance

d)

Both must act at the same time

100.

A conditional contract means:

a)

Coverage applies regardless of conditions

b)

The insured must meet policy conditions before the insurer’s duty arises

c)

The insurer can cancel anytime

d)

The policy has no limits