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[LRH] Bacteriology Primer Mycology and Virology

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select all true about fungi

a)

Perfect fungi: fungi that produces sexually

b)

Mold phase consists f cottony mycelial mass and yeast phase resembles bacterial colony

c)

Mold phase: 35-37C

d)

Yeast Phase: 25-30C

2.

Medically important dimorphic fungi except

a)

H. capsulatum

b)

Piedraia hortai

c)

Blastomyces dermatitidis

d)

Penecilliu marneffei

3.

True all except;

a)

Aseptate means no crosswall and examples of these are the zygomycetes

b)

zygomycetes are the rhizopud, absidia, mucor

c)

all zygmocyetes are dimorphic fungi

d)

septate hyphae means there are crosswalls

4.

basic structural unit of fungi

(a)  

5.

Spores involved in sexual production except

a)

ascospores

b)

zygospores

c)

oospores

d)

blastoconidia

6.

spores that are contained in a saclike ascus

(a)  

7.

involve the fusion of cells from two separate non identical hyphae

(a)  

8.

sexual spores that is contained in a club-shaped basidium

a)

blastoconidia

b)

oospores

c)

zygospores

d)

ascospores

9.

asexual spores that is produced singly or multply in long chains or clusters

a)

conidia

b)

blastoconidia

c)

chlamydoconidia

d)

arthroconidia

e)

sporangiospores

10.

True about chlamydoconidia

a)

thick walled, resistant, resting spores produced by rounding up and enlargement of terminal hyphal cells.

b)

type of chlamydoconidia where spores are located within the hypha is called INTERCALARY

c)

Involves from simple budding

d)

where spores are contained in a sporangia or sacs that are produced terminally. Unique to zygomycetes

11.

the olive oil loving fungi, has an appearance of spaghetti and meatballs, and causes tinea versicolor

a)

M. furfur

b)

Piedraia hortai

c)

T. beigelii

d)

Microsporum

12.

Tinea capitis, tinea barbae, tinea corporis

a)

superficial mycosis

b)

cutaneous mycosis

c)

subcutaneous mycosis

d)

systemic mycosis

13.

chromoblastomycosis, mycetoma, phaeohyphomycosis, sporotrichosis

a)

superficial mycosis

b)

cutaneous mycosis

c)

subcutaneous mycosis

d)

systemic mycosis

14.

causative agent of white piedra

a)

epidermophyton

b)

trichophyton

c)

microsporum

d)

trichosporon beigelii

15.

microsporum infects

a)

skin, hair

b)

skin only

c)

skin, nails

d)

skin, hair, nails

16.

epidermophyton infects

a)

skin, hair

b)

skin only

c)

skin, nails

d)

skin, hair, nails

17.

fungi that invades the skin and hair, fluoresce on wood's lamp and does not grow in rice medium, apple green fluorescence

a)

M. gypseum

b)

M. canis

c)

M. auodoinii

18.

fungi that invades the skin and hair, fluoresce on wood's lamp and grows in rice medium, yellow green fluorescence, spindle-shaped macroconidia

a)

M. gypseum

b)

M. canis

c)

M. auodoinii

19.

fungi that infects the hair, skin, and nails, shows a scant red pigment, positive in hair baiting test and positive in urease test

a)

M. canis

b)

T. rubrum

c)

T. schoenleinii

d)

t. mentagrophytes

20.

fungi that infects the hair, skin, and nails. exhibits favic chandelier or also known as the 'antler'. can cause alopecia and has a mousy odor to scalp

a)

M. canis

b)

T. rubrum

c)

T. schoenleinii

d)

t. mentagrophytes

21.

all true except;

a)

chromoblastomycosis is caused vt dematiaceous fungi that exhibits sclerotic bodies

b)

mycetoma is a granulomatous tumor of subcutaneous tissue

c)

phaeohyphomycosis is caused by dematiaceous saprobes which invade organs of immunosuppressed hosts

d)

sporotrichosis is also known as rose gardener's diseases caused by sporothrix schenckii, a dimorphic fungus

e)

none

22.

true between actinomyces and nocardia except

a)

they are both gram positive

b)

actinomyces is aerobic while nocardia is anaerobic thus, they are both catalase positive

c)

actinomyces contain sulfur granules

d)

nocardia is partially acid fast

23.

exophiala jeanselmei, phialophora, wangiella dermatitidis

a)

chromoblastomycosis

b)

mycetoma

c)

phaeohyphomycosis

d)

sporotrichosis

24.

exophiala, pseudoallescheria boydii

a)

chromoblastomycosis

b)

mycetoma

c)

phaeohyphomycosis

d)

sporotrichosis

25.

its mycelial form shows flowerette conidia but its yeast forms cigar-shaped yeast cells

a)

phialophora

b)

s. schenckii

c)

exophiala

d)

nocardia

26.

causative agent of north american blastomycosis or the gilchrist's diseases

a)

blastomyces dermatitidis

b)

paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

c)

histoplasma capsulatum

d)

coccidiodes immitis

27.

mold form resembles lollipops and yeast form looks like a round/oval cell with single budding

a)

blastomyces dermatitidis

b)

paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

c)

histoplasma capsulatum

d)

coccidiodes immitis

28.

causative agent of san joaquin valley fever

a)

blastomyces dermatitidis

b)

paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

c)

histoplasma capsulatum

d)

coccidiodes immitis

29.

the yeast form is spherules with endospores and not considered as a true yeast

a)

blastomyces dermatitidis

b)

paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

c)

histoplasma capsulatum

d)

coccidiodes immitis

30.

its mold form is barrel-shaped, rectangular arthroconidia that alternate with empty disjunctor cells

a)

blastomyces dermatitidis

b)

paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

c)

histoplasma capsulatum

d)

coccidiodes immitis

31.

causative agent of Darling's diseases

a)

blastomyces dermatitidis

b)

paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

c)

histoplasma capsulatum

d)

coccidiodes immitis

32.

mold form is thick-walled knobby tuberculated macroconidia forms and has a round to oval yeast

a)

blastomyces dermatitidis

b)

paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

c)

histoplasma capsulatum

d)

coccidiodes immitis

33.

causative agent of south american blastomycosis and yeast form resembles ship wheel due to multiple budding

a)

blastomyces dermatitidis

b)

paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

c)

histoplasma capsulatum

d)

coccidiodes immitis

34.

most frequently encountered opportunistic fungal infections

(a)  

35.

positive in germ tube formation

a)

candida krusei

b)

candida glabrata

c)

candida dubliniensis

d)

candida tropicalis

36.

encapsulated yeast cell in bird and bat droppings

a)

candida albicans

b)

coccidiodes immitis

c)

cryptococcus neoformans

d)

candida glabrata

37.

starburst pattern

a)

candida albicans

b)

coccidiodes immitis

c)

cryptococcus neoformans

d)

candida glabrata

38.

for fungal culture, we wipe the nails or skin with 30% ethanol then treat it with iodophore

a)

true

b)

false

39.

for fungal culture, we collect hairs with intact shaft and scrape skin at leading edge of lesion

a)

true

b)

false

40.

for fungal culture, we incubate at what temperature and how many days?

a)

25-30C, 21Days

b)

37C for 1 month

41.

how do you demonstrate the chlamydospore of Candida albicans

a)

culture it in SDA

b)

culture in mycosel that contains cycloheximide

c)

culture in cornmeal agar and put 1% glucose to differentiate T. rubrum from T. mentagrophytes

d)

czapeks agar

42.

agar for aspergillus

a)

Cornmeal agar

b)

birdseed agar

c)

cottonseed agar

d)

czapeks agar

43.

agar to demonstrate the pigment f c neoformans

a)

Cornmeal agar

b)

birdseed agar

c)

cottonseed agar

d)

czapeks agar

44.

pigment exhibited by c. neoformans in birdseed agar

a)

black

b)

brown

c)

colorless

d)

green

45.

fungi positive for phenol oxidase in L-dopa ferric citrate test

a)

p. brasiliensis

b)

c. neoformans

c)

s. schenkii

d)

h. capsulatum

46.

in exoantigen test, specific A bands are unique to

a)

blastomyces

b)

histoplasma

c)

coccidiodes

d)

trichosporum

47.

B. SUBTILIS

a)

BSL 1

b)

BSL 2

c)

BSL 3

d)

BSL 4

48.

HIV

a)

BSL 1

b)

BSL 2

c)

BSL 3

d)

BSL 4

49.

MYCOBACTERIUM

a)

BSL 1

b)

BSL 2

c)

BSL 3

d)

BSL 4

50.

Correct sequence for viral replication

a)

attachment - penetration - synthesis - uncoating - viral assembly - release

b)

uncoating - release - attachment - penetration - synthesis - assembly

c)

attachment - penetration - uncoating - synthesis - assembly - release

d)

assembly - penetration - synthesis - uncoating - release

51.

storage temperature for viral specimen

(a)  

52.

transport temperature for viral specimen

(a)  

53.

In general, DNA virsuses

a)

are double stranded, icosahedral, and replicates in nucleus

b)

are single stranded, icosahedral, and replicates in nucleus

c)

are double stranded, icosahedral, and does not replicate in nucleus

d)

are single stranded, helical, and replicates in nucleus

54.

In general, RNA virsuses

a)

are single stranded RNA, helical capsid, enveloped and replicates in nucleus

b)

are single stranded RNA, helical capsid, enveloped and replicates in cytoplasm

c)

are double stranded RNA, helical capsid, enveloped and replicates in nucleus

d)

are single stranded RNA, no capsid, enveloped and replicates in nucleus

55.

double stranded DNA viruses except

a)

poxviridae

b)

parvovirus

c)

adenoviridae

d)

papoviridae

56.

icosahedral capsid and replicates in the nuclear are DNA viruses except

a)

poxviridae

b)

parvovirus

c)

adenoviridae

d)

papoviridae

57.

select one out

a)

herpesviridae

b)

poxvirus

c)

adenoviridae

d)

hepadnaviridae

58.

smallest dna viruses

(a)  

59.

largest dna viruses

(a)  

60.

true about HEPADNAVIRIDAE

a)

Formerly known as serum hepatitis

b)

common route is sexual, parenteral, fecal route, perinatal

c)

hepatitis B virus

d)

can cause fulminant hepatitis

61.

can cause keratoconjunctivitis, pneumonia, hemorrhagic cystitis

a)

adenoviridae

b)

hepadnaviridae

c)

herpesviridae

d)

papovaviridae

62.

true about herpesviridae

a)

it has icosahedral capsid

b)

HSV 1 causes herpes labialis

c)

varicella zoster virus is a causative agent of chicken pox and shingles

d)

epstein virus, and cytomegalovirs

63.

infectious mononucleosis, and burkitts lymphoma

a)

epstein barr virus

b)

cytomegalovirus

c)

kaposis sarcoma

d)

roseola

64.

6th childhood disease

(a)  

65.

skin and genital warts

a)

poxvirus

b)

parvovirus

c)

papovaviridae

d)

iridovirus

66.

causative agent of smallpox and molluscum contagiosum and orf diseases

a)

poxvirus

b)

parvovirus

c)

papovaviridae

d)

iridovirus

67.

causative agent of african swine virus

a)

poxvirus

b)

parvovirus

c)

papovaviridae

d)

iridovirus

68.

odd one out

a)

picornaviridae

b)

caliciviridae

c)

reoviridae

d)

retroviridae

69.

All RNA viruses replicate in cytoplasm except

a)

orthomyxoviridae

b)

reoviridae

c)

retroviridae

d)

caliciviridae

70.

largest RNA virus

(a)  

71.

odd one out

a)

bunyaviridae

b)

picornaviridae

c)

flaviviridae

d)

togaviridae

72.

arenaviridae

a)

lacrosse virus

b)

lymphocytic choriomeningitis

c)

lass virus

d)

machupo virus

73.

crimean congo hemorrhagic fever

a)

calicivirus

b)

bunyavirus

c)

cornovirus

d)

flavivirus

74.

norwalk and hepatitis e

a)

calicivirus

b)

bunyavirus

c)

cornovirus

d)

flavivirus

75.

ebola and marburg virus

a)

calicivirus

b)

bunyavirus

c)

filoviridae

d)

flavivirus

76.

yellow fever, west nile, japanese encephalitis, St louis encephalitis

a)

calicivirus

b)

bunyavirus

c)

filoviridae

d)

flavivirus

77.

hepatitis c

a)

calicivirus

b)

bunyavirus

c)

filoviridae

d)

flavivirus

78.

infleunza a and influenza b

a)

orthomyxoviridae

b)

paramyxoviridae

c)

picornaviridae

d)

flavivirus

79.

Measles, mumps, RSV, parainfluenza

a)

orthomyxoviridae

b)

paramyxoviridae

c)

picornaviridae

d)

flavivirus

80.

rhinovirus, polivirus, coxsackie virus, hepatitis A

a)

orthomyxoviridae

b)

paramyxoviridae

c)

picornaviridae

d)

flavivirus

81.

human lymphotrophic virus types 1 and 2

a)

reoviridae

b)

retroviridae

c)

rhabdoviridae

d)

togaviridae

82.

rabies virus

a)

reoviridae

b)

retroviridae

c)

rhabdoviridae

d)

togaviridae

83.

shepherds hook

a)

coronavirus

b)

ebola

c)

marburg

d)

hantavirus

84.

multinucleated virus that is the common cause of respiratory infection in infants

a)

coronavirus

b)

RSV

c)

marburg

d)

Parainfluenza

85.

hand foot mouth disease

a)

rhinovirus

b)

echovirus

c)

coxsackie A

d)

coxsacki B

86.

infection of upper airway which obstructs breathing or the barking cough

a)

pharyngitis

b)

bronchitis

c)

croup

d)

gastroenteritis