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AWS Networking Quiz

Total questions: 29

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

With Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC), what is the smallest size subnet you can have in a VPC? (Select the best answer.)

a)

/28

b)

/26

c)

/24

d)

/30

2.

Which AWS networking service enables a company to create a virtual network within AWS? (Select the best answer.)

a)

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

b)

AWS Config

c)

AWS Direct Connect

d)

Amazon Route 53

3.

True or False? Private subnets have direct access to the internet.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Which of the following is an optional security control that can be applied at the subnet layer of a VPC? (Select the best answer.)

a)

Network ACL

b)

Web application firewall

c)

Security group

d)

Firewall

5.

You are a solutions architect who works at a large retail company that is migrating its existing infrastructure to AWS. You recommend that they use a custom VPC. When you create a VPC, you assign it to an IP Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) block of 10.0.10.0/24 (which has 256 total IP addresses). How many IP addresses are available? (Select the best answer.)

a)

256

b)

251

c)

250

d)

246

6.

Which Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) feature is best suited for handling varying compute workloads? (Select the best answer)

a)

Amazon EC2 costs are billed on a monthly basis.

b)

Customers retain full administrative access to their Amazon EC2 instances.

c)

Customers can permanently run enough instances to handle peak workloads.

d)

Amazon EC2 instances can be launched on-demand when needed.

7.

If your project requires monthly reports that iterate through very large amounts of data, which Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) purchasing option should you consider? (Select the best answer)

a)

Spot Instances

b)

Scheduled Reserved Instances

c)

Dedicated Hosts

d)

On-Demand Instances

8.

What is included in an Amazon Machine Image (AMI)? (Select the best answer)

a)

A template for the root volume for the instance

b)

Launch permissions that control which AWS accounts can use the AMI to launch instances

c)

A block device mapping that specifies the volumes to attach to the instance when it’s launched

d)

All of the above

9.

Which Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) feature ensures your instances will not share a physical host with instances from any other AWS customer? (Select the best answer)

a)

Amazon VPC

b)

Placement groups

c)

Dedicated instances

d)

Reserved instances

10.

What is the service provided by AWS that enables developers to easily deploy and manage applications in the cloud? (Select the best answer)

a)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

b)

AWS CloudFormation

c)

AWS OpsWorks

d)

Amazon EC2

11.

You push application needs four instances to support steady traffic all of the time. On the last day of the month, the traffic triples. What is the most cost-effective way to handle this pattern? (Select the best answer)

a)

Run 12 Reserved instances all of the time.

b)

Run four On-Demand instances constantly, then add eight more On-Demand instances on the last day of each month.

c)

Run four Reserved instances constantly, then add eight On-Demand instances on the last day of each month.

d)

Run four On-Demand instances constantly, then add eight Reserved instances on the last day of each month.

12.

Which Amazon EC2 option is best for long-term workloads with predictable usage patterns? (Select the best answer)

a)

Spot Instances

b)

On-Demand Instances

c)

Reserved Instances

13.

Amazon S3 replicates all objects _____ (Select the best answer)

a)

Automatically across all regions

b)

Automatically within a region

c)

Only when configured to do so

d)

Only for specific object types

14.

Which of the following can be used as a storage class for an S3 object lifecycle policy? (Choose three)

a)

S3 Standard

b)

AWS Storage Gateway

c)

S3 Infrequent Access

d)

Simple Storage Service Glacier

e)

S3 Reduced Redundancy Storage

15.

You can use Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) to: (Select the best answer)

a)

provide simple, scalable, elastic file storage for use only within AWS.

b)

implement storage for Amazon EC2 instances that multiple virtual machines can access at the same time.

c)

host a robust CDN to deliver entire web sites with dynamic, static, and streaming content.

d)

generate user-specific content.

16.

True or False? By default, all data stored in Amazon S3 is viewable by the public.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

True or False? When you create a bucket in Amazon S3, it is associated with a specific AWS Region.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which AWS Cloud service is best suited for analyzing your data by using standard structured query language (SQL) and your existing business intelligence (BI) tools? (Select the best answer.)

a)

Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)

b)

Amazon Simple Storage Service Glacier

c)

Amazon DynamoDB

d)

Amazon Redshift

19.

In Amazon DynamoDB, an attribute is _____ (Select the best answer.)

a)

a fundamental data element

b)

a database table

c)

a collection of items

d)

a collection of attributes

e)

a partition key

20.

If you are developing an application that requires a database with extremely fast performance, fast scalability, and flexibility in the database schema, which service should you consider? (Select the best answer.)

a)

Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)

b)

Amazon ElastiCache

c)

Amazon DynamoDB

d)

Amazon Redshift

21.

A company has an application, which consists of a web layer that connects to a MySQL database. They want to move this application on to AWS and use AWS features such as high availability and automated backups. Which of the following would be an ideal database for this use case? (Select the best answer.)

a)

Amazon Aurora

b)

Amazon DynamoDB

c)

Amazon RDS

d)

Amazon Redshift

22.

Which design principles are recommended when considering performance efficiency? (Choose two.)

a)

Democratize advanced technologies

b)

Build tightly-coupled components

c)

Assume everything will fail

d)

Use as many services as possible

23.

AWS Trusted Advisor provides insight regarding which five categories of an AWS account? (Select the best answer.)

a)

Performance, cost optimization, security, fault tolerance, service limits

b)

Security, fault tolerance, high availability, connectivity, service limits

c)

Performance, cost optimization, access control, connectivity, security

d)

Security, access control, high availability, performance, service limits

24.

Which of the following is a measure of your system's ability to provide functionality when desired by the user? (Select the best answer.)

a)

Availability

b)

Fault Tolerance

c)

Reliability

d)

Performance efficiency

25.

Which service would you use to send alerts based on Amazon CloudWatch alarms? (Select the best answer)

a)

Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

b)

AWS CloudTrail

c)

AWS Trusted Advisor

d)

Amazon Route 53

26.

Which of the following must be configured on an Elastic Load Balancing load balancer to expect incoming traffic? (Select the best answer)

a)

A port

b)

A network interface

c)

A listener

d)

An instance

27.

Which of the following elements are used to create an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling launch configuration? (Choose three.)

a)

Amazon Machine Image (AMI)

b)

Load balancer

c)

Instance type

d)

Security group

28.

Which of the following services can help you collect important metrics from Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) and Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances? (Select the best answer)

a)

Amazon CloudFront

b)

Amazon CloudSearch

c)

Amazon CloudWatch

d)

AWS CloudTrail

e)

Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling

29.

What are the three types of load balancers that Elastic Load Balancing offers?

a)

Internet Load Balancer

b)

Application Load Balancer

c)

Network Load Balancer

d)

Compute Load Balancer