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NCLEX Trivia

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mr. Lopez, 68, is postoperative day 2 after a right total hip arthroplasty. He suddenly develops pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea while ambulating with PT.He is tachycardic (HR 124), mildly hypotensive (BP 98/62), RR 30, SpO₂ 86%on room air, and anxious. Lungs are clear; he has new right-calf tenderness and swelling. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. What is the nurse’s first priority?

a)

Call rapid response and prepare for intubation

b)

Apply high-flow oxygen and raise HOB

c)

Start a large-bore IV and give a fluid bolus

d)

Draw D-dimer and troponin levels

2.

Which diagnostic is most urgent to confirm PE?

a)

D-dimer

b)

CT pulmonary angiography

c)

V/Q scan

d)

Point-of-care ultrasound of the leg

3.

Which initial orders do you anticipate? (Select all that apply)

a)

IV unfractionated heparin infusion

b)

Thrombolysis with alteplase

c)

Arterial blood gas

d)

Lower-extremity duplex ultrasound

e)

Immediate warfarin loading

4.

Which finding is a major contraindication to thrombolysis?

a)

Age >65

b)

Post-op day 2 after major surgery

c)

Prophylactic heparin today

d)

SpO₂ <88%

5.

Which change signals worsening obstructive shock?

a)

Anxiety subsides

b)

BP drops to 78/48 with cool mottled skin

c)

RR falls to 20 with new wheeze

d)

Calf tenderness improves

6.

Why is IV unfractionated heparin (UFH) often preferred initially?

a)

It is more effective than LMWH

b)

It has no bleeding risk

c)

It can be rapidly titrated and reversed

d)

It cures PE faster than DOACs

7.

Mr. C., 52, presents 12 hours after his last drink with tremors, diaphoresis, nausea, anxiety, and insomnia. Vitals: BP 168/98, HR 122, RR 24, T 99.9°F. He reports drinking a fifth of liquor daily. Oriented ×2, distractible, restless. Labs pending. Which medication should be administered before IV dextrose?

a)

Lorazepam

b)

Thiamine

c)

Haloperidol

d)

Clonidine

8.

Which tool best standardizes withdrawal severity?

a)

PHQ-9

b)

COWS

c)

CIWA

d)

GAD-7

9.

Which nursing interventions are most appropriate now? (Select all that apply)

a)

Seizure precautions

b)

Quiet, low-stimulation room

c)

PRN haloperidol as first-line

d)

Replace Mg and K

e)

Dextrose before thiamine

10.

Which change most strongly suggests progression to Delirium Tremors (DTs)?

a)

Increased tremor

b)

Visual hallucinations + disorientation + 103°F

c)

Sleepiness and improving vitals

d)

Mild anxiety, BP 140/88

11.

Which lab abnormalities are most typical?

a)

Hypomagnesemia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Elevated GGT/AST

e)

Hypercalcemia

12.

Lena, 10, presents lethargic with new-onset polyuria, polydipsia,abdominal pain, and vomiting. Vitals: HR 138, RR 30 Kussmaul, BP 102/60.Labs: glucose 520, pH 7.10, HCO₃ 8, K⁺ 4.8, Na⁺ 132. Positive ketones, caprefill 3–4 sec, mucous membranes dry. What is the first intervention?

a)

IV regular insulin bolus

b)

10–20 mL/kg isotonic saline bolus

c)

0.45% saline maintenance fluids

d)

Bicarbonate infusion

13.

When is insulin infusion typically started?

a)

Immediately on arrival

b)

After initial fluid resuscitation with continuous IV infusion

c)

Only after pH normalizes

d)

Subcutaneously every hour

14.

Which potassium plan is most appropriate initially?

a)

Hold K⁺ until serum K⁺ <3.0

b)

Add K⁺ to IV fluids once urine output is established and K⁺ ≤5.5

c)

Give IV push KCl for quick replacement

d)

Avoid K⁺ because initial K⁺ is normal-high

15.

Which change most strongly suggests cerebral edema?

a)

Gradual fall in glucose from 520 to 320 in 2 hours

b)

Sudden headache, decreased LOC, bradycardia with rising BP

c)

Increased urine output after fluids

d)

Mild nausea with improving vitals

16.

A nurse is providing discharge instruction to the guardian of an adolescent who has bipolar disorder. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an indication of acute mania? (select all that apply.)

a)

Completes school projects 

b)

Naps during the daytime

c)

Eats large amounts of food

d)

Spends excessive amounts of money

e)

Speaks crassly using a loud voice

17.

A nurse is evaluating a 20 months old baby who received a hepatitis A vaccine 3 days ago. The patient reports that the child has exhibited a loss of appetite following the vaccine. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

Tell the parent that this reaction should only last for a couple of days 

b)

Notify the provider immediately

c)

Prepare an antidote to administer to the child 

d)

Request that the provider order a serum titer level

18.

A nurse administers betamethasone to a client who is at 33weeks gestation to stimulate fetal lung maturity. When planning care for the newborn, which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this conditions?

a)

Hyperthermia

b)

Decreased blood glucose

c)

Rapid pulse rate

d)

Irritability

19.

A nurse is reviewing the labs findings of a 24 hr old newborn.Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

a)

Hemoglobin 12g/dl

b)

Platelet count of 200,000/mm^3

c)

Total bilirubin 4mg/dl

d)

Glucose 50mg/dl

20.

Ms. A., 31, G3P1 at 34 + 2 weeks, arrives with painless bright-red vaginal bleeding that began after intercourse. She denies contractions, has normal fetal movement, and is hemodynamically stable. Prenatal ultrasound at 28weeks showed a complete placenta previa. Vitals: BP 112/68, HR 96, afebrile.FHR baseline 145 with moderate variability. She is Rh-negative. What is the first nursing action?

a)

Perform a digital cervical exam to assess dilation

b)

Place the patient on continuous fetal monitoring and establish an IV

c)

Encourage ambulation to assess bleeding pattern

d)

Perform a bedside speculum exam with bimanual palpation

21.

Which action is contraindicated in placenta previa?

a)

Type and crossmatch

b)

Administration of antenatal corticosteroids if delivery likely

c)

Digital vaginal examination

d)

Pelvic rest

22.

Which orders do you anticipate now? Select all that apply.

a)

Pelvic rest and abstain from intercourse

b)

Rho(D) immune globulin administration

c)

Tocolysis to stop all bleeding

d)

Scheduled cesarean at 36–37 weeks if stable,

e)

Prepare for emergent cesarean if bleeding becomes heavy or FHR non-reassuring

23.

Which statement shows correct understanding?

a)

“If the bleeding stops, I can resume intercourse.”

b)

“I should report any bleeding immediately and avoid vaginal insertion of anything.”

c)

“A vaginal delivery is still likely if the bleeding is light.”

d)

“I can have cervical checks to see if I’m dilating.”

24.

Which fetal status would most prompt urgent delivery?

a)

Moderate variability with occasional accelerations

b)

Recurrent late decelerations with minimal variability

c)

Baseline 140 with rare variables

d)

One isolated early deceleration

25.

Why is two IV access recommended even if vitals are stable?

a)

To give antibiotics quickly

b)

For potential rapid transfusion and utero tonic infusion if status changes

c)

To allow frequent blood draws only

d)

It is routine but not clinically necessary

26.

A nurse is preparing to administer anIV infusion of oxytocin for labor induction to a client who is 41 weeks of gestation. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

a)

Administer oxytocin with manual IV tubing

b)

Monitor the fetal heart rate every 15 min initially

c)

Begin the infusion at 10 milliunits/min

d)

Titrate the dosage until the client has 1 contraction every minute

27.

A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. A severe allergy to which of the following medications is contraindicated to ceftriaxone?

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Piperacillin

d)

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

28.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a deep partial-thickness and full-thickness thermal burns over 40% of his total body surface and is in the acute phase of burn injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

a)

Initiate range of motion exercises

b)

Use clean technique to provide wound care

c)

Place the client on a low protein diet

d)

Maintain the client on bed rest

29.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has chronic kidney disease. The client reports significant persistent nausea and muscle weakness. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hypomagnesemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

30.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cancer and is undergoing external radiation treatment. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a)

“ I should use petroleum-based lotions on the areas being radiated. “

b)

“I will dry the areas being radiated by rubbing in a circular pattern.”

c)

“I should use my hand, instead of a washcloth, to wash the area being radiated.”

d)

” I will apply sunscreen to the areas being radiated when I spend time in the sun.”

31.

A nurse is teaching self-administration of NPH insulin to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

a)

Alternate injecting doses between the abdomen and the thigh

b)

Rotate injection sites within the same area

c)

Shake the vial before withdrawing the dosage

d)

Discard the vial in the insulin is cloudy

32.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of breast cancer. The client becomes quiet and withdrawn and says to the nurse. “what do you think people will say about me when I’m gone?” which of the the following responses should the nurse make?

a)

“What are you worried they will say about you?”

b)

”The thought of having breast cancer may seem hopeless.”

c)

” Maintaining a positive attitude can influence your recovery.

d)

“You will be remembered as a kind person.”

33.

A nurse is planning postoperative education for a client who will undergo a radical neck dissection for cancer of the larynx. The nurse should include which of the following topics? (select all that apply.)

a)

NPO status

b)

Alternative methods of communication

c)

Endotracheal intubation

d)

Changes in body image

e)

Swallowing exercises

34.

A nurse is caring for a client at 35 weeks gestation who has severe pre-eclampsia. Which of the following assessments provides the most accurate information regarding the clients’ fluid and electrolytes status?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Intake and output

c)

Daily weight

d)

Severity of edema

35.

A nurse is preparing to perform a routine heel puncture on a newborn. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

Administer tolmetin prior to the procedure

b)

Apply an eutectic mixture of local anesthetics (EMLA) cream to the newborn’s heel after the procedure

c)

Prepare concentrated sucrose for oral administration

d)

Place the newborn in an extended position

36.

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an acute gout attack. The nurse should anticipate a prescription from the provider for which of the following medications?

a)

Naproxen

b)

Pegloticase

c)

Probenecid

d)

Allopurinol

37.

A nurse receives a report for a client who is in labor and is experiencing contractions that are 4 min apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitor tracing?

a)

Contractions that last for 60 sec each with a 4 min rest between contractions

b)

Contractions that last for 60 sec each with a 3 min rest between contractions

c)

A contraction that lasts for 4 min followed by a period of relaxation

d)

Contractions that last for 45 sec each with a 3 min rest between contractions

38.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder and performs hand hygiene to decrease anxiety. Which of the following actions by the nurse implements modeling as a behavioral intervention strategy?

a)

Setting a time between episodes of hand hygiene

b)

Demonstrating performance of hand hygiene at scheduled times

c)

Telling the client to shout “stop” each time an urge to perform hand hygiene arises

d)

Instructing the client to practice muscle relaxation when experiencing the urge to perform hand hygiene

39.

A nurse is assessing a client who has cholecystitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a)

Blumberg’s sign

b)

Ascites

c)

Gastrointestinal bleeding

d)

Kehr’s sign

40.

A nurse is planning care for a client following of a chest tube 1 hr ago. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

a)

Clamp the chest tube of there is a continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber

b)

Keep the chest tube drainage system at the level of the right atrium

c)

Tape all connection between the chest tube and drainage system

d)

Empty the collection chamber and record the amount of drainage every 8 hr

41.

A nurse in a provider’s office is reviewing the medical history of a client who asks about the use of varenicline for smoking cessation. Which of the following items in the client’s medical history indicates a precaution for the use of varenicline?

a)

The client has type I diabetes mellitus

b)

The client has a history of depression

c)

The client has rheumatoid arthritis

d)

The client has a history of GERD

42.

A nurse in the emergency room has assessed a client’s airway, breathing and circulation (Abc) following a head injury from a fall at work. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to perform next?

a)

Question the client’s coworkers about the mechanism of injury

b)

Check the client’s pupils for equality and reaction to light

c)

Measure the client’s alertness using the Glasgow Coma Scale

d)

Immobilize the client’s cervical spine

43.

A charge nurse receives notification of the admission of a client who is coughing frequently and whose sputum is pink, frothy, and copious. The client has a history of night sweats, anorexia, and weight loss. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (select all that apply?)

a)

Assign the client to a private room with negative-pressure airflow

b)

Add a contact precautions to the client’s plan of care

c)

Wear an N95 respirator when entering the client’s room

d)

Ensure the client’s environment provides 4 exchanges of fresh air per minute

e)

Institute protective environment precautions as soon as the client arrives on the unit

44.

A nurse is teaching a client who is postmenopausal and has a prescription for alendronate. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

a)

“you can lie down 15 min after taking this medication.”

b)

“Take this medication on an empty stomach.”

c)

“Crush this medication to improve absorption.”

d)

“Avoid taking antacids or supplements that contain calcium while taking this medication.”

45.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for a combination oral contraceptive. The nurse should identify that which of the  following findings is a contraindication to receiving this medication?

a)

High cholesterol levels

b)

Liver disease

c)

Family history of ovarian cancer

d)

Client report of hypermenorrhea