WorksheetsUnit 1B Test: 2025: Study Guide
Total questions: 126
Worksheet time: 21mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The belief that effective public policy is the result of competition among multiple different interests and groups.
a)
Direct (Participatory) Democracy
b)
Indirect (Representative) Democracy
c)
Elite Democracy
d)
Pluralist View / Pluralism
2.
A model of democracy in which the people are represented by leaders they elected.
a)
Direct (Participatory) Democracy
b)
Indirect (Representative) Democracy
c)
Elite Democracy
d)
Pluralist View / Pluralism
3.
A government in which the people govern themselves and individually vote on matters of policy.
a)
Direct (Participatory) Democracy
b)
Indirect (Representative Democracy
c)
Elite Democracy
d)
Pluralist View / Pluralism
4.
Model of democracy in which a small number of people, usually those who are wealthy or have a large share of influence, control political decisions.
a)
Direct (Participatory) Democracy
b)
Indirect (Representative) Democracy
c)
Elite Democracy
d)
Pluralist View / Pluralism
5.
Rights inherent to all people that are not dependent on the government.
a)
Bill of Rights
b)
Natural Rights
c)
Faction
d)
Great Compromise
6.
The constitution that administered America's first government, which was characterized by the loose league of friendship between states and a weak central government.
a)
Articles of Confederation
b)
New Jersey Plan
c)
Federalist Papers
d)
Amendment
7.
Meeting of delegates in 1787 that was initially called to revise the Articles of Confederation, but ultimately led to the formation of the nation's current Constitution.
a)
Writ of habeas corpus
b)
Faction
c)
Social Contract
d)
Constitutional Convention
8.
An uprising that brought attention to the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation.
a)
Federalist Papers
b)
Judicial Review
c)
Shay's Rebellion
d)
Virginia Plan
9.
Constitutional convention proposal to create a stronger national government with a bicameral legislature.
a)
New Jersey Plan
b)
Great Compromise
c)
Three-Fifths Compromise
d)
Virginia Plan
10.
Constitutional convention proposal that maintained a unicameral legislature and was preferred by smaller states.
a)
Great Compromise
b)
New Jersey Plan
c)
Virginia Plan
d)
Three-Fifths Compromise
11.
Agreement to have a popularly elected House based on state population and a state selected Senate, with equal membership for each state.
a)
Great Compromise
b)
Virginia Plan
c)
Three-Fifths Compromise
d)
New Jersey Plan
12.
Agreement that slaves would be counted as three-fifths of a person for the purposes of representation and taxation.
a)
Virginia Plan
b)
New Jersey Plan
c)
Great Compromise
d)
Three-Fifths Compromise
13.
The power of the courts to declare laws unconstitutional.
a)
Natural Rights
b)
Writ of habeas corpus
c)
Judicial Review
d)
Federalism
14.
Agreement in which the government derives their power from the consent of the governed and in exchange, the people agree to limit their rights and participate in an ordered society.
a)
Social Contract
b)
Articles of Confederation
c)
Virginia Plan
d)
Limited Government
15.
System in which power is divided between national and state or local governments.
a)
Limited Government
b)
Elite Democracy
c)
Separation of Powers
d)
Federalism
16.
A collection of essays/articles designed to rally support for the ratification of the Constitution.
a)
Articles of Confederation
b)
Federalist Papers
c)
Bill of Rights
d)
Judicial Review
17.
A group with distinct political interests; highlighted in Federalist #10.
a)
Federalists
b)
Anti-Federalist
c)
Faction
d)
New Jersey Plan
18.
Those citizens who favored a stronger national government and generally supported the ratification of the Constitution.
a)
Anti-Federalists
b)
Elite Democracy
c)
Social Contract
d)
Federalists
19.
Those citizens who favored a weaker national government and generally opposed the ratification of the Constitution.
a)
Anti-Federalists
b)
Federalists
c)
Pluralist View / Pluralism
d)
Faction
20.
Constitutional principle that grants each branch some ability to limit the authority of the other branches.
a)
Limited Government
b)
Separation of Powers
c)
Checks and Balances
d)
Natural Rights
21.
The Constitutional principle that divides the powers of government into three distinct branches.
a)
Checks and Balances
b)
Separation of Powers
c)
Limited Government
d)
Bill of Rights
22.
The principle that the authority of the government is created and sustained by the consent of its people.
a)
Popular Sovereignty
b)
Natural Rights
c)
Amendment
d)
Social Contract
23.
A new addition to the Constitution that has been proposed by Congress and ratified by the states.
a)
Bill of Rights
b)
Natural Rights
c)
Social Contract
d)
Amendment
24.
The government is restrained in their lawful use of power and may only exercise those powers assigned to it in the constitution.
a)
Separation of Powers
b)
Checks and Balances
c)
Social Contract
d)
Limited Government
25.
System in which power is divided between national and state or local governments.
a)
Expressed Powers
b)
Unitary System
c)
Federalism
d)
Reserved Powers
26.
Powers written into the Constitution that have been given to the national government
a)
Concurrent Powers
b)
Expressed Powers
c)
Reserved Powers
d)
Implied Powers
27.
Powers given to the state governments alone
a)
Reserved Powers
b)
Concurrent Powers
c)
Implied Powers
d)
Expressed Powers
28.
Powers shared by both the national and state governments
a)
Reserved Powers
b)
Expressed Powers
c)
Concurrent Powers
d)
Implied Powers
29.
Powers given to the federal government that have been reasonably inferred from the Constitution
a)
Reserved Powers
b)
Concurrent Powers
c)
Implied Powers
d)
Expressed Powers
30.
Section of the Constitution allowing Congress to pass all laws essential to carrying out its expressed duties. This provision allows the national government to carry out implied powers
a)
Commerce Clause
b)
Necessary and proper clause
c)
Unitary System
d)
Confederal/Confederate System
31.
The doctrine that a state can void a federal law that, in the state's opinion, violates the Constitution
a)
Nullification
b)
Referendum
c)
Recall
d)
Intiative
32.
Constitutional provision that gives the federal government the power to regulate interstate and foreign trade
a)
Confederal/Confederate System
b)
Unitary System
c)
Necessary and Proper Clause
d)
Commerce Clause
33.
Ruling that declared the national government's power under the commerce clause does not permit it to regulate matters not directly related to interstate commerce; in this case, banning firearms in a school zone
a)
Federalism
b)
United States v. Lopez
c)
McCulloch v. Maryland
d)
Federal Revenue Sharing
34.
Ruling that declared the feral government had the power to establish a national bank under the "necessary and proper" clause
a)
Reserved Powers
b)
United States v. Lopez
c)
McCulloch v. Maryland
d)
Federalism
35.
System in which power is centralized in one body. State or regional governments derive authority from the central government.
a)
Confederal / Confederate System
b)
Unitary
c)
Federalism
d)
Condition of Aids
36.
System in which power is help by a loose union of independent states. The central government is weak in relation to the power of the states.
a)
Unitary System
b)
Federalism
c)
Recall
d)
Confederal / Confederate System
37.
Process that permits voters to put state legislative measures directly on the ballot.
a)
Initiative
b)
Referendum
c)
Recall
d)
Federal Revenue Sharing
38.
Procedure that allows voters to reject a measure passed by the state legislature.
a)
Initiative
b)
Recall
c)
Referendum
d)
Federal Revenue Sharing
39.
Procedure whereby voters can remove an elected official from office.
a)
Referendum
b)
Initiative
c)
Federal Revenue Sharing
d)
Recall
40.
The distribution of a percentage of federal tax income to state and local governments.
a)
Federal Revenue Sharing
b)
Block Grants
c)
Conditions of aid
d)
Nullification
41.
Federal grants given to states for specific purposes, often with strings attached, such as building an airport or a highway.
a)
Mandates
b)
Initiative
c)
Block Grants
d)
Categorical Grants
42.
Federal grants given to states for broader purposes, such as healthcare or education.
a)
Block Grants
b)
Categorical Grants
c)
Mandates
d)
Recall
43.
Strings attached by the national government that states must meet if they are to receive certain federal funds.
a)
Mandates
b)
Reserved Powers
c)
Commerce Clause
d)
Conditions of aid
44.
Terms set by the national government that states are required to meet whether or not they accept federal grants.
a)
Conditions of Aid
b)
Nullification
c)
Mandates
d)
Unitary System
45.
This constitutional provision provides guarantee of citizenship, as well as equal protection which have been the sources of incorporation for key protections in the Bill of Rights.
a)
Commerce Clause
b)
Reserved Powers
c)
10th Amendment
d)
14th Amendment
46.
Provision that states all powers not given to the federal government in the Constitution, nor prohibited to the states, are reserved for the states.
a)
Commerce Clause
b)
Implied Powers
c)
10th Amendment
d)
14th Amendment
47.
**Which Article of the U.S. Constitution grants legislative powers to Congress?**
a)
Article I
b)
Article II
c)
Article III
d)
Article IV
48.
**What is the primary role of the Executive Branch as outlined in the Constitution?**
a)
To make laws
b)
To interpret laws
c)
To enforce laws
d)
To declare laws unconstitutional
49.
**Which of the following is a power of the Legislative Branch?**
a)
- A) Grant pardons
b)
- B) Declare war
c)
- C) Negotiate treaties
d)
- D) Interpret laws
50.
**What power does the President hold over Congress in terms of legislation?**
a)
- A) The power to impeach
b)
- B) The power to veto
c)
- C) The power to declare laws unconstitutional
d)
- D) The power to coin money
51.
**What does Federalist No. 51 focus on?**
a)
- A) The establishment of a strong executive branch
b)
- B) The importance of judicial review
c)
- C) Safeguards against abuse of power
d)
- D) The role of political parties
52.
**Which branch has the sole power of impeachment?**
a)
- A) Senate
b)
- B) House of Representatives
c)
- C) Supreme Court
d)
- D) Executive Branch
53.
**Which power is unique to the Senate in the checks and balances system?**
a)
- A) Approve or disapprove presidential appointments
b)
- B) Veto congressional legislation
c)
- C) Declare war
d)
- D) Impeach the president
54.
**What is one way the Judicial Branch can check the power of Congress?**
a)
- A) By declaring laws unconstitutional
b)
- B) By impeaching members of Congress
c)
- C) By vetoing legislation
d)
- D) By collecting taxes
55.
**In Federalist 51, James Madison argues that the structure of the government should prevent:**
a)
- A) Abuse of power by the majority
b)
- B) The formation of political parties
c)
- C) Foreign interference
d)
- D) An independent judiciary
56.
**Separation of Powers refers to:**
a)
- A) Each branch of government having the ability to block the others
b)
- B) Governmental powers being assigned to three branches
c)
- C) The ability of Congress to declare laws unconstitutional
d)
- D) The executive branch controlling the military
57.
**Checks and Balances primarily deals with:**
a)
- A) The creation of political parties
b)
- B) The assignment of powers to branches
c)
- C) How branches of government influence each other
d)
- D) Election processes
58.
**One way the Legislative Branch can check the President's power is by:**
a)
- A) Declaring actions unconstitutional
b)
- B) Overriding a veto with a ⅔ vote
c)
- C) Granting pardons
d)
- D) Impeaching the Supreme Court justices
59.
**What is one of the positive implications of Separation of Powers and Checks and Balances?**
a)
- A) It leads to gridlock
b)
- B) It allows multiple access points for stakeholders to influence policy
c)
- C) It makes compromise difficult
d)
- D) It reduces citizen involvement in politics
60.
**What can be considered a negative outcome of the Separation of Powers?**
a)
- A) Multiple access points for policy influence
b)
- B) Easy passage of laws
c)
- C) Potential for gridlock and lack of compromise
d)
- D) Lack of checks on power
61.
**What is an example of stakeholders using multiple access points to influence government?**
a)
- A) Meeting with a member of Congress to discuss policies
b)
- B) Overriding a presidential veto
c)
- C) Declaring war
d)
- D) Exercising judicial review
62.
**How can the public influence the Judiciary?**
a)
- A) By voting for judges
b)
- B) By submitting amicus curiae briefs
c)
- C) By vetoing laws
d)
- D) By impeaching justices
63.
**Which of the following is a theme addressed by James Madison in Federalist 51?**
a)
- A) Control of the military
b)
- B) Limiting governmental power
c)
- C) Creating stronger state governments
d)
- D) Establishing political parties
64.
**Why did Madison argue that Congress should be divided into two chambers?**
a)
- A) To ensure stronger laws are passed
b)
- B) To prevent the executive from overpowering the legislature
c)
- C) To weaken the power of Congress
d)
- D) To allow the judiciary to influence decisions
65.
**What does the term 'access points' refer to in the context of Separation of Powers?**
a)
- A) Opportunities for the government to enact policy
b)
- B) Opportunities for stakeholders to interact with government
c)
- C) The ability of the president to influence Congress
d)
- D) The places where Congress can meet to discuss legislation
66.
**How does Checks and Balances protect minority rights according to Madison?**
a)
- A) By ensuring the majority cannot overpower minority groups
b)
- B) By allowing the judiciary to veto legislation
c)
- C) By giving the president the power to override Congress
d)
- D) By preventing foreign interference in government decisions
67.
**What is Federalism?**
a)
- A) Division of power between federal, state, and local governments
b)
- B) Sovereignty is held by the central government
c)
- C) States are sovereign
d)
- D) A system where the central government has all the power
68.
**In a Unitary system, where is sovereignty held?**
a)
- A) The states
b)
- B) The local government
c)
- C) The central government
d)
- D) The federal government
69.
**Which of the following is an example of a Delegated Power?**
a)
- A) Declaring war
b)
- B) Education
c)
- C) Health and welfare
d)
- D) Licensing
70.
**What are Reserved Powers?**
a)
- A) Powers given to the federal government
b)
- B) Powers that are given to the states
c)
- C) Powers shared between the federal government and the states
d)
- D) Powers neither given to the federal government nor the states
71.
**Which of the following is an example of Concurrent Powers?**
a)
- A) Declaring war
b)
- B) Making treaties
c)
- C) Taxation
d)
- D) Coining money
72.
**What does the term 'Dynamic Federalism' refer to?**
a)
- A) A static division of powers between federal and state governments
b)
- B) A changing balance of power between states and the federal government over time
c)
- C) Complete dominance of federal government over state government
d)
- D) Equal powers for federal and state governments
73.
**What is Dual Federalism often referred to as?**
a)
- A) Marble-cake federalism
b)
- B) Layer-cake federalism
c)
- C) Cooperative federalism
d)
- D) Fiscal federalism
74.
**Which of the following best describes Cooperative Federalism?**
a)
- A) Federal and state governments are supreme in their own spheres
b)
- B) Federal and state governments share responsibilities, costs, and administration of policies
c)
- C) States have more power than the federal government
d)
- D) There is no cooperation between federal and state governments
75.
**What is the main purpose of Grants-In-Aid?**
a)
- A) To give states more independence
b)
- B) To blur the lines between federal and state powers
c)
- C) To reduce the federal government’s role in state issues
d)
- D) To prevent the federal government from gaining more power
76.
**What type of grant is given for a specific purpose?**
a)
- A) Block Grant
b)
- B) Revenue Sharing
c)
- C) Categorical Grant
d)
- D) Unfunded Mandate
77.
**What is the key feature of Block Grants?**
a)
- A) They are given with very specific conditions
b)
- B) They offer states broad discretion in spending
c)
- C) They are used to control state policies
d)
- D) They have no connection to federal money
78.
**What are Conditions-In-Aid?**
a)
- A) Requirements that states must meet to receive grants
b)
- B) Grants that are given without conditions
c)
- C) Mandates without federal funding
d)
- D) Rules that only apply to local governments
79.
**Which of the following is an example of a Mandate?**
a)
- A) Taxation
b)
- B) Education policy
c)
- C) Rules states must follow, with or without funding
d)
- D) A grant that states receive from the federal government
80.
**What is a Funded Mandate?**
a)
- A) A rule that states must follow, without receiving money
b)
- B) A rule that states must follow, with money provided by the federal government
c)
- C) A type of grant with specific conditions
d)
- D) A requirement for states to raise taxes
81.
**What is an Unfunded Mandate?**
a)
- A) A requirement that states must follow, with funding
b)
- B) A rule states must follow without receiving federal money
c)
- C) A block grant
d)
- D) A form of revenue sharing
82.
**Which of the following is NOT used any longer in federalism?**
a)
- A) Categorical Grants
b)
- B) Block Grants
c)
- C) Revenue Sharing
d)
- D) Mandates
83.
**What is Revenue Sharing?**
a)
- A) Federal money given to states with strict conditions
b)
- B) Federal money given to states with little or no strings attached
c)
- C) Money that is shared equally between the federal and state governments
d)
- D) A type of unfunded mandate
84.
**Which of the following areas does the federal government often use grants to influence state policies?**
a)
- A) Declaring war
b)
- B) Treaties
c)
- C) Education, health, and welfare
d)
- D) Coining money
85.
**Which of the following is a PRO for the states when receiving grants?**
a)
- A) They gain more power over federal government
b)
- B) They do not need to raise taxes
c)
- C) They get complete control over how the money is used
d)
- D) They lose autonomy to the federal government
86.
**Which of the following is a CON for the states regarding federal grants?**
a)
- A) States lose power to the federal government
b)
- B) States have to raise taxes
c)
- C) States get full discretion on how the money is spent
d)
- D) Grants are only given with no conditions attached
87.
The Necessary and Proper Clause is also known as:
a)
- A) Supremacy Clause
b)
- B) Commerce Clause
c)
- C) Elastic Clause
d)
- D) Due Process Clause
88.
Which of the following powers are directly written in the Constitution?
a)
- A) Implied powers
b)
- B) Reserved powers
c)
- C) Enumerated powers
d)
- D) Concurrent powers
89.
The Necessary and Proper Clause is found in:
a)
- A) Article 1, Section 8
b)
- B) Article 2, Section 4
c)
- C) Article 6
d)
- D) Article 3, Section 2
90.
Which Supreme Court case established the concept of implied powers for Congress?
a)
- A) Gibbons v. Ogden
b)
- B) Marbury v. Madison
c)
- C) McCulloch v. Maryland
d)
- D) U.S. v. Lopez
91.
The Supremacy Clause asserts that:
a)
- A) State laws are superior to federal laws
b)
- B) Federal laws are superior to state laws
c)
- C) Congress has power over the states
d)
- D) States can nullify federal laws
92.
The Supremacy Clause is found in:
a)
- A) Article 1
b)
- B) Article 6
c)
- C) The 10th Amendment
d)
- D) Article 3
93.
McCulloch v. Maryland addressed which issue?
a)
- A) Whether Congress could regulate interstate commerce
b)
- B) Whether a state could tax the federal government
c)
- C) Whether Congress could establish a national bank
d)
- D) Both B and C
94.
The Commerce Clause allows Congress to regulate:
a)
- A) Intrastate commerce
b)
- B) Interstate commerce
c)
- C) Foreign commerce only
d)
- D) Local business practices
95.
Which case established Congress's authority to regulate interstate commerce?
a)
- A) U.S. v. Lopez
b)
- B) Gibbons v. Ogden
c)
- C) McCulloch v. Maryland
d)
- D) Marbury v. Madison
96.
The decision in U.S. v. Lopez limited the power of:
a)
- A) The President
b)
- B) The states
c)
- C) Congress
d)
- D) The Supreme Court
97.
Which amendment reserves powers to the states?
a)
- A) 10th Amendment
b)
- B) 14th Amendment
c)
- C) 1st Amendment
d)
- D) 4th Amendment
98.
The 14th Amendment includes which clauses that affect federalism?
a)
- A) Necessary and Proper and Supremacy
b)
- B) Equal Protection and Due Process
c)
- C) Commerce and Elastic
d)
- D) Enumerated and Implied
99.
The Necessary and Proper Clause was first used to justify:
a)
- A) The Louisiana Purchase
b)
- B) Creating a national bank
c)
- C) The Emancipation Proclamation
d)
- D) The Bill of Rights
100.
The 10th Amendment is primarily concerned with:
a)
- A) Delegated powers
b)
- B) Reserved powers
c)
- C) Concurrent powers
d)
- D) Enumerated powers
101.
Which Supreme Court case primarily addressed the issue of Congress’s implied powers rather than the Commerce Clause?
a)
- A) U.S. v. Lopez
b)
- B) Gibbons v. Ogden
c)
- C) McCulloch v. Maryland
d)
- D) Marbury v. Madison
102.
The concept that federal laws take precedence over state laws is called:
a)
- A) Federalism
b)
- B) Judicial Review
c)
- C) Supremacy
d)
- D) Separation of Powers
103.
The Due Process Clause is part of the:
a)
- A) 10th Amendment
b)
- B) 14th Amendment
c)
- C) 5th Amendment
d)
- D) 1st Amendment
104.
Which court case challenged Congress's power under the Commerce Clause?
a)
- A) Gibbons v. Ogden
b)
- B) Marbury v. Madison
c)
- C) U.S. v. Lopez
d)
- D) McCulloch v. Maryland
105.
The 14th Amendment gives power to the federal government to protect:
a)
- A) State rights
b)
- B) Individual rights
c)
- C) Commercial rights
d)
- D) Judicial rights
106.
What was the outcome of McCulloch v. Maryland regarding state powers?
a)
- A) States can tax the federal government
b)
- B) States cannot interfere with federal actions
c)
- C) States can establish their own national banks
d)
- D) States have supremacy over federal institutions
107.
**Which of the following is an advantage of federalism?**
a)
- A) Limited political participation
b)
- B) Only the federal government can make policy
c)
- C) Multiple access points for political participation
d)
- D) States have no power to create policies
108.
**What is one reason federalism allows states to create their own policies?**
a)
- A) States can make policies based on unique regional needs
b)
- B) Federal government mandates all state laws
c)
- C) States are required to follow national policies exactly
d)
- D) Federalism removes the ability of states to experiment with policies
109.
**Which statement best describes “laboratories of democracy”?**
a)
- A) The federal government mandates state policies
b)
- B) States can test and implement policies without national involvement
c)
- C) States rely on federal government for all new policy ideas
d)
- D) National policies are tested by local governments
110.
**A disadvantage of federalism is that:**
a)
- A) The federal government can implement unified policies easily
b)
- B) States always agree on policies with the federal government
c)
- C) States’ rights have been used to perpetuate discrimination
d)
- D) Federalism ensures equal policy across all states
111.
**What is the belief behind “States' Rights”?**
a)
- A) The 10th Amendment reserves non-delegated powers to the federal government
b)
- B) The 10th Amendment reserves non-delegated powers to the states
c)
- C) All powers are reserved for the federal government
d)
- D) States must defer to federal policies in all matters
112.
**Which president is most associated with New Federalism?**
a)
- A) Franklin D. Roosevelt
b)
- B) Lyndon B. Johnson
c)
- C) Richard Nixon
d)
- D) George Washington
113.
**New Federalism is characterized by:**
a)
- A) Strengthening federal government power over the states
b)
- B) Devolution of power to states
c)
- C) Removal of all state powers
d)
- D) States relying on federal mandates for all policies
114.
**The concept of "devolution" in New Federalism refers to:**
a)
- A) Increasing federal control over state policies
b)
- B) Transferring powers from the federal government to the states
c)
- C) Eliminating state governments altogether
d)
- D) Nationalizing state-level policies
115.
**Block grants are a feature of:**
a)
- A) Cooperative federalism
b)
- B) New Federalism
c)
- C) Dual federalism
d)
- D) Creative federalism
116.
**How do block grants differ from categorical grants?**
a)
- A) Block grants give states less control over spending
b)
- B) Block grants provide states with more flexibility in how to use funds
c)
- C) Categorical grants give states more flexibility
d)
- D) Block grants are tied to specific policy areas without state input
117.
**A key goal of New Federalism was:**
a)
- A) Increasing the power of the federal government
b)
- B) Reducing the role of the states in policy-making
c)
- C) Reducing federal influence over state policies
d)
- D) Eliminating state governments
118.
**The 10th Amendment plays a key role in federalism by:**
a)
- A) Establishing the supremacy of federal laws over state laws
b)
- B) Delegating all powers to the federal government
c)
- C) Reserving powers not granted to the federal government for the states
d)
- D) Allowing the federal government to override state laws
119.
**Which of the following was NOT an outcome of New Federalism?**
a)
- A) Devolution of power
b)
- B) Increase in block grants
c)
- C) Increased federal influence over states
d)
- D) Reduced federal government control over certain policies
120.
**Which of the following would be an example of federalism at work?**
a)
- A) The federal government passing a law on state education policy
b)
- B) A state creating its own environmental regulations
c)
- C) States completely ignoring federal guidelines
d)
- D) The federal government completely controlling state budgets
121.
**What is one challenge of federalism in implementing unified national policies?**
a)
- A) States’ rights always prevent any federal law from being passed
b)
- B) States must agree to implement national policies in the same way
c)
- C) It is difficult to maintain a balance between state autonomy and national cohesion
d)
- D) The federal government easily controls state policy decisions
122.
**Which of the following terms is most associated with states having more control over how to implement policies?**
a)
- A) Categorical grants
b)
- B) Block grants
c)
- C) Federal mandates
d)
- D) Executive orders
123.
**Which of the following periods is associated with the rise of New Federalism?**
a)
- A) The 1930s under Franklin D. Roosevelt
b)
- B) The 1970s under Richard Nixon
c)
- C) The 1960s under Lyndon B. Johnson
d)
- D) The 1990s under Bill Clinton
124.
**A major criticism of federalism is that:**
a)
- A) It leads to a completely unified national policy
b)
- B) It makes it harder for the federal government to implement consistent national policies
c)
- C) It always favors federal power over state power
d)
- D) It removes all power from local governments
125.
**Federalism allows for which of the following advantages?**
a)
- A) States can never create their own policies
b)
- B) A variety of policies can be tried by states before becoming national
c)
- C) Only federal policies can be tried at the national level
d)
- D) States must follow all national laws exactly
126.
**The term “multiple access points” in the context of federalism refers to:**
a)
- A) Only federal officials having a say in policy-making
b)
- B) Citizens and local leaders having numerous levels of government to influence policy
c)
- C) No local participation in policy-making
d)
- D) The federal government being the sole policy maker in the nation
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