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Chapter 5 - Agricultural Mechanics and Technology Systems

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are hazards faced by people working in agriculture?

a)

Machinery entanglement

b)

Grain engulfment

c)

Falls

d)

Vehicle collisions and rollovers

e)

All of the above

2.

The agriculture, forestry, fishing, and hunting industries have a nonfatal occupational injury rate of 5.5 per 100 workers.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

What are some of the health issues prevalent among people working in agriculture?

a)

Respiratory diseases, musculoskeletal disorders, and hearing loss.

b)

Vision improvement and increased height.

c)

Enhanced memory and faster reflexes.

d)

Stronger bones and improved digestion.

4.

According to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), what is one of the most dangerous industries in the United States?

a)

Agriculture

b)

Retail

c)

Education

d)

Information Technology

5.

In 2012, what percentage of tractors used on farms in the United States were equipped with rollover protection systems (ROPS)?

a)

59%

b)

35%

c)

72%

d)

48%

6.

According to the United States Department of Labor, which of the following is considered a hazardous agricultural occupation?

a)

Operating a tractor over 20 PTO horsepower

b)

Planting seeds by hand

c)

Watering crops

d)

Feeding chickens

7.

Is operating or working with a trencher or earthmoving equipment, forklift, potato combine, or power-driven circular, band, or chain saw considered a hazardous agricultural occupation?

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Working in a yard, pen, or stall occupied by a bull, boar, or stud horse maintained for breeding purposes; a sow with suckling pigs; or a cow with a newborn calf (with umbilical cord present) is considered a hazardous agricultural occupation.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Felling, buckling, skidding, loading, or unloading timber with a butt diameter of more than how many inches is considered hazardous?

a)

Six inches

b)

Ten inches

c)

Four inches

d)

Twelve inches

10.

Working from a ladder or scaffold at a height of over how many feet is considered hazardous in agricultural occupations?

a)

20 feet

b)

10 feet

c)

30 feet

d)

50 feet

11.

Is driving a bus, truck, or automobile to transport passengers, or riding on a tractor as a passenger or helper considered a hazardous agricultural occupation?

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Working inside a fruit, forage, or grain storage designed to retain an oxygen-deficient or toxic atmosphere is considered hazardous.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Handling or applying toxic agricultural chemicals identified by the words danger, poison, or warning or a skull and crossbones on the label is considered hazardous.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Handling or using explosives is considered a hazardous agricultural occupation.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Transporting, transferring, or applying anhydrous ammonia is considered a hazardous agricultural occupation.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

During the Industrial Revolution, machines were introduced in ___ in industries, including agriculture, to increase production and improve working conditions.

a)

factories

b)

schools

c)

hospitals

d)

offices

17.

What is the main purpose of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) in the United States?

a)

To regulate food safety

b)

To protect workers from potential pesticide exposure

c)

To certify safety equipment

d)

To enforce construction safety standards

18.

Which organization sets safety standards for equipment such as eye protection and foot protection in the workplace?

a)

EPA

b)

ANSI

c)

NIOSH

d)

UL

19.

Fill in the blank: The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) was created under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of _____

a)

1970

b)

1965

c)

1980

d)

1990

20.

NIOSH certifies respirators and provides recommendations for personal protective equipment.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

What does the UL listing mark on a product indicate?

a)

The product is environmentally friendly

b)

The product meets safety requirements established by Underwriters Laboratories

c)

The product is made in the USA

d)

The product is recyclable

22.

Which basic hazard category includes the risk of being struck by objects? Fill in the blank: ________

a)

Impact

b)

Chemical

c)

Electrical

d)

Ergonomic

23.

Which basic hazard category involves the risk of objects piercing or passing through materials?

a)

Penetration

b)

Compression

c)

Abrasion

d)

Chemical Exposure

24.

Which basic hazard category involves the risk of being crushed or rolled over? Fill in the blank: ________

a)

Compression (rollover)

b)

Electrical (shock)

c)

Chemical (exposure)

d)

Thermal (burn)

25.

Which basic hazard category involves exposure to hazardous substances? Fill in the blank: ________

a)

Chemical

b)

Physical

c)

Biological

d)

Ergonomic

26.

Which basic hazard category involves exposure to extreme temperatures?

a)

Heat/cold

b)

Chemical

c)

Electrical

d)

Radiation

27.

Which basic hazard category involves exposure to airborne particles that can be harmful? Fill in the blank: ________

a)

Harmful dust

b)

Electrical shock

c)

Slippery surfaces

d)

Loud noise

28.

Which basic hazard category involves exposure to harmful light or radiation?

a)

Light (optical) radiation

b)

Chemical exposure

c)

Noise pollution

d)

Ergonomic stress

29.

Which basic hazard category involves exposure to living organisms that can cause harm?

a)

Biologic

b)

Chemical

c)

Physical

d)

Ergonomic

30.

Potential eye or face injuries include ________

a)

Dust, dirt, metal, or wood chips entering the eye during activities such as chipping, brushing, grinding, sawing, hammering, or drilling.

b)

Listening to loud music for extended periods of time.

c)

Wearing sunglasses indoors.

d)

Eating spicy food.

31.

Potential eye or face injuries include chemical splashes from corrosive substances, hot liquids, solvents, or other hazardous solutions. Fill in the blank: ________

a)

Chemical splashes from corrosive substances, hot liquids, solvents, or other hazardous solutions.

b)

Exposure to loud noises and vibrations.

c)

Inhalation of dust and fumes.

d)

Slips, trips, and falls in the workplace.

32.

Which of the following is NOT a type of eye and face protection mentioned in the passage?

a)

A) Safety glasses

b)

B) Welding helmets/shield

c)

C) Face shields

d)

D) Ear plugs

33.

Which of the following is NOT a hazard that requires eye or face protection?

a)

A) Objects swinging into the eye or face

b)

B) Radiant energy from welding

c)

C) Listening to loud music

d)

D) Harmful rays from lasers

34.

What should individuals who need corrective lenses do to ensure adequate eye protection in hazardous conditions?

a)

They must wear either eye protection that incorporates the prescription into the design or wear additional eye protection over their prescription lenses.

b)

They should avoid wearing any eye protection to prevent discomfort.

c)

They can use regular sunglasses as adequate protection.

d)

They only need to wear their prescription lenses without any additional protection.

35.

Safety glasses should have side protection and must conform to which standard?

a)

American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z87.1-1989

b)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) 1910.133

c)

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 70E

d)

International Safety Equipment Association (ISEA) 2020

36.

Goggles are intended to provide protection for which of the following?

a)

The eyes and face

b)

The eyes, eye sockets, and the area immediately surrounding the eyes

c)

Only the face

d)

Only the neck

37.

Splash goggles are appropriate for chemical splash protection and also provide limited eye impact protection.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

What is the primary function of a welding helmet or shield?

a)

To protect the eyes and face from burns caused by intense light and heat during welding operations.

b)

To improve the visibility of the welding area by providing extra lighting.

c)

To keep the welder's head cool during welding.

d)

To communicate with other welders using built-in speakers.

39.

What is the purpose of wearing a face shield according to the text?

a)

To protect the face from flying debris, sparks, metal spatter, and slag chips produced during hot work operations.

b)

To improve visibility in low light conditions.

c)

To enhance communication between workers.

d)

To keep the face warm in cold environments.

40.

Which of the following is NOT a reason to wear head protection?

a)

A) Objects falling from above

b)

B) Heads bumping against fixed objects

c)

C) Protection from cold weather

d)

D) Electrical shock and burn hazards

41.

Face shields must extend from the ______ to below the chin and across the entire width of the user's head.

a)

eyebrows

b)

nose

c)

ears

d)

forehead

42.

Face shields are considered secondary eye protection and must be used in conjunction with safety glasses or goggles.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended feature of protective helmets or hard hats?

a)

Resist penetration by objects.

b)

Absorb the shock of a blow.

c)

Be water-resistant and slow-burning.

d)

Be made of transparent material.

44.

Which class of hard hats provides impact and penetration resistance along with limited voltage protection (up to 2,200 volts)?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

45.

Which class of hard hats provides the highest level of protection against electrical hazards, with high-voltage shock and burn protection (up to 20,000 volts)?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

46.

Class C hard hats provide lightweight comfort and impact protection, but offer no protection from electrical hazards.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the need to provide hearing protection?

a)

The loudness of the noise as measured in decibels (dB).

b)

The color of the equipment used.

c)

The duration of each worker's exposure to the noise.

d)

Whether individuals move between work areas with different noise levels.

48.

Fill in the blank: Tinnitus is a ringing in the ears that can be caused by damaged ______ nerves.

a)

auditory

b)

optic

c)

olfactory

d)

motor

49.

Which of the following is a type of hearing protection device?

a)

Single-use earplugs

b)

Reusable earplugs

c)

Over-the-ear earmuffs

d)

All of the above

50.

Single-use earplugs are made of ________ foam forms to your ear canal.

a)

expandable

b)

rigid

c)

liquid

d)

sticky

51.

Reusable earplugs may be made from which of the following materials?

a)

Silicone

b)

Plastic

c)

Rubber

d)

All of the above

52.

Over-the-ear earplugs, also known as earmuffs, require a good seal around the ________.

a)

ear

b)

nose

c)

mouth

d)

chin

53.

According to the Noise Exposure Limits table, what is the maximum duration of exposure per day for a sound level of 100 decibels?

a)

8 hours

b)

4 hours

c)

2 hours

d)

1 hour

54.

Fill in the blank: For a sound level of 115 decibels, the maximum duration of exposure per day is ________.

a)

1/4 hour or less

b)

1 hour

c)

2 hours

d)

8 hours

55.

Hearing protection is required if the anticipated exposure exceeds 15 minutes.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Impact or impulse noise exposures must not exceed 140 dB.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

What is the primary means to prevent exposure to respiratory hazards according to the passage?

a)

Wearing a respirator

b)

Ventilation and safe work practices

c)

Using earmuffs

d)

None of the above

58.

When ventilation and safe work practices are not feasible or available, what may be necessary to prevent exposure to respiratory hazards?

a)

Wearing a respirator

b)

Opening windows

c)

Drinking water

d)

Wearing gloves

59.

According to the passage, respirators fall into how many categories based on how they protect the user?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

60.

Fill in the blank: The first category of respirators removes ______ from the air.

a)

contaminants

b)

oxygen

c)

moisture

d)

carbon dioxide

61.

Which of the following is an example of a particulate respirator mentioned in the passage?

a)

N95 respirator

b)

Gas mask

c)

Surgical mask

d)

Oxygen mask

62.

Hearing loss may occur without protection against exposure to excessive noise. Which of the following is true about earplugs?

a)

They are expensive and hard to use

b)

They are inexpensive, easy to use, and effective against lower-decibel noises

c)

They cover the entire circumference of the ear

d)

They should be used for protection against louder sounds

63.

Hearing loss may occur without protection against exposure to excessive noise. Earmuffs cover the entire circumference of the ear and should be used for protection against exposure to ________ sounds.

a)

louder

b)

softer

c)

distant

d)

musical

64.

Which type of protective clothing is used for disposable suits to provide protection against dust and splashes?

a)

Treated wool and cotton

b)

Paper-like fiber

c)

Duck cloth

d)

Leather

65.

Which material adapts well to changing temperatures, is comfortable, fire-resistant, and protects against dust, abrasions, and rough and irritating surfaces?

a)

Duck cloth

b)

Treated wool and cotton

c)

Rubber

d)

Leather

66.

Duck cloth is closely woven cotton fabric that protects against ______ when handling heavy, sharp, or rough materials.

a)

cuts and bruises

b)

heat and fire

c)

water and moisture

d)

electric shock

67.

Leather is often used to protect against ______.

a)

dry heat and flames

b)

water and ice

c)

electric shock

d)

chemical spills

68.

Which type of gloves should be used for protection against rough, sharp, or heavy materials?

a)

Leather, canvas, or metal mesh gloves

b)

Rubber gloves

c)

Cotton gloves

d)

Disposable latex gloves

69.

Fabric and coated fabric gloves protect against which hazards?

a)

Dirt, slivers, chafing, and abrasions

b)

Electrical shocks and burns

c)

Toxic chemical exposure

d)

Extreme heat and molten metal

70.

Chemical- and liquid-resistant gloves are made from which materials?

a)

Leather

b)

Rubber or various types of plastic

c)

Metal mesh

d)

Canvas

71.

The thicker the material of chemical-resistant gloves, the more chemical resistance they provide.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

What factors should be considered when selecting the right pair of gloves?

a)

Area needing protection, duration of contact, potential hazard, comfort, and size

b)

Color and brand only

c)

Price and fashion trends

d)

Only the material type

73.

According to the text, what is the main purpose of wearing protective footwear in the workplace?

a)

To look professional

b)

To protect your feet from hazards such as slippery surfaces, sparks, and sharp objects

c)

To comply with fashion trends

d)

To keep your feet warm

74.

Select two instances when protective footwear may be needed according to the text.

a)

When working with heavy objects and in areas with sharp objects on the floor

b)

When sitting at a desk and reading a book

c)

When attending a meeting and writing a report

d)

When using a computer and making phone calls

75.

Fill in the blank: Insulating rubber gloves are typically reserved for working with ______ hazards.

a)

electrical

b)

chemical

c)

thermal

d)

biological

76.

Safety footwear must meet or exceed standards set in ANSI Z41-1991.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

It is important to check the product labeling or consult the manufacturer when selecting protective footwear because:

a)

it ensures the footwear meets safety standards and is appropriate for the intended use.

b)

it helps you find the cheapest option available.

c)

it guarantees the footwear will be fashionable.

d)

it allows you to avoid wearing any protective footwear at all.

78.

If safety eye wear is shared between individuals, what should be done?

a)

It should be cleaned and disinfected before use by another person.

b)

It should be thrown away after each use.

c)

It should be used without any cleaning.

d)

It should be stored in a common area without cleaning.

79.

It is important to be trained in the proper use of machinery and safety procedures, even while in school, because:

a)

it helps prevent accidents and injuries.

b)

it makes the work more difficult.

c)

it is only required for professional workers.

d)

it is not necessary for students.

80.

What poses the greatest hazards associated with hand tools?

a)

Proper use and regular maintenance

b)

Improper use and poor maintenance

c)

Using power tools instead

d)

Wearing safety equipment

81.

If a screwdriver is used as a chisel, the tip of the screwdriver may break off and hit the user or bystanders.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Fill in the blank: Most electric tools are ________ or have grounding to keep the user safe.

a)

double-insulated

b)

single-wired

c)

unshielded

d)

non-conductive

83.

What is a potentially fatal obstruction in blood vessels that can get stuck while traveling through the bloodstream, as mentioned in the hazards of pneumatic and hydraulic power sources?

a)

Embolism

b)

Fracture

c)

Infection

d)

Hemorrhage

84.

To prevent hazards associated with the use of power tools, is it safe to carry a tool by the cord or hose?

a)

True

b)

False

85.

To prevent hazards associated with the use of power tools, should you yank on the cord or the hose to disconnect it?

a)

True

b)

False

86.

To prevent hazards associated with the use of power tools, should cords and hoses be kept from rubbing on sharp edges?

a)

True

b)

False

87.

To prevent hazards associated with the use of power tools, when should you disconnect tools?

a)

When you are not using them, before servicing and cleaning them, and when changing accessories such as blades, bits, and cutters.

b)

Only after the tool has stopped working completely.

c)

Only when the tool feels hot to the touch.

d)

Whenever you finish a project, regardless of the tool's condition.

88.

To prevent hazards associated with the use of power tools, should all people not involved with the work be kept at a safe distance from the work area?

a)

True

b)

False