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CPPHC 2ND EXAMINATION

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 28-year-old woman visits the prenatal clinic for her first check-up. She states her last menstrual period (LMP) started on June 10, 2024. Using Naegele's rule, what is her estimated date of confinement (EDC)?

a)

March 17, 2025

b)

March 10, 2025

c)

September 17, 2025

d)

March 3, 2025

2.

A patient tells you she is pregnant for the fourth time. Her first pregnancy was a full-term boy. Her second pregnancy ended in a miscarriage at 10 weeks. Her third pregnancy was twin girls born at 35 weeks. What is her correct gravida and para?

a)

Gravida 3, Para 3

b)

Gravida 3, Para 2

c)

Gravida 4, Para 2

d)

Gravida 4, Para 3

3.

A 32-year-old woman, currently pregnant, has one living child who was born at 39 weeks. She also had a pregnancy that ended at 15 weeks. How would you document her status using the G/P system?

a)

G3 P1

b)

G3 P2

c)

G2 P2

d)

G2 P1

4.

A woman's LMP was November 20, 2023. What is the most accurate EDC for her?

a)

August 27, 2024

b)

August 13, 2024

c)

February 27, 2024

d)

September 3, 2024

5.

A patient is documented as G5 P3 T2 P1 A1 L3. She is currently pregnant. What does this information indicate?

a)

She is pregnant with her third child.

b)

She has had 5 pregnancies, with 2 term births, 1 preterm birth, 1 abortion, and 3 living children.

c)

She has had 5 pregnancies, 3 of which went to term.

d)

She has had 3 preterm births and 2 term births.

6.

A midwifery student prepares to measure the fundic height of a pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation. Which landmark should the student use as the starting point when placing the tape measure?

a)

Umbilicus

b)

Symphysis pubis

c)

Xiphoid process

d)

Costal margin

7.

During antenatal care, the fundic height of a woman at 24 weeks AOG measures 20 cm. What does this finding most likely indicate?

a)

The fetus is large for gestational age

b)

The fetus is smaller than expected

c)

The woman has polyhydramnios

d)

The woman is in active labor

8.

A midwife is about to measure the fundic height of a 32-week pregnant woman. The patient has just finished urinating. What should the midwife do next to ensure an accurate reading?

a)

Position the woman standing upright

b)

Place the woman in a supine position with legs bent

c)

Place the woman in a supine position with knees straight

d)

Ask the woman to lie on her left side

9.

During a prenatal exam, the midwife first uses inspection. Which of the following should be noted during abdominal inspection of a pregnant woman?

a)

Fetal heart tone

b)

Fundic height

c)

Abdominal contour and skin changes

d)

Cervical dilation

10.

A 32-week pregnant woman asks why the midwife is pressing on her abdomen during Leopold's maneuver. What should the midwife explain?

a)

To listen to the baby's heart

b)

To feel the baby's position and presentation

c)

To measure uterine contractions

d)

To assess cervical dilation

11.

During physical assessment, percussion is least commonly used in pregnant women. Which finding may be assessed by percussion?

a)

Estimating amniotic fluid

b)

Detecting bladder distension

c)

Checking fetal position

d)

Measuring uterine height

12.

A 24-week pregnant woman asks what the midwife is listening to with a Doppler. What is the best response?

a)

“I am checking your bowel sounds.”

b)

“I am listening to your baby’s heartbeat.”

c)

“I am measuring your blood pressure.”

d)

“I am listening for uterine contractions.”

13.

The midwife notes pitting edema in the ankles of a 34-week pregnant woman. What should the midwife do next?

a)

Document as normal in pregnancy

b)

Assess blood pressure

c)

Reassure the patient only

d)

Ignore unless the patient complains

14.

During Leopold’s maneuver, the midwife palpates a hard, round, ballotable part in the lower abdomen. What does this indicate?

a)

Breech presentation

b)

Cephalic presentation

c)

Transverse lie

d)

Shoulder presentation

15.

At 30 weeks, the fetal heart rate (FHR) is auscultated at 180 bpm. What should the midwife do?

a)

Reassure the mother this is normal

b)

Refer immediately for further evaluation

c)

Record and schedule a recheck after 1 month

d)

Encourage the mother to drink water

16.

In physical assessment, which sequence of techniques is correct for examining the abdomen of a pregnant woman?

a)

Inspection → Palpation → Auscultation → Percussion

b)

Inspection → Auscultation → Palpation → Percussion

c)

Palpation → Auscultation → Inspection → Percussion

d)

Percussion → Palpation → Inspection → Auscultation

17.

The midwife palpates the uterine fundus at the level of the xiphoid process. What does this indicate?

a)

20 weeks AOG

b)

28 weeks AOG

c)

36 weeks AOG

d)

40 weeks AOG

18.

A 26-week pregnant woman presents with abdominal pain. On assessment, the midwife finds: fundic height appropriate, fetal heart tones normal, and no uterine tenderness. What is the most appropriate action?

a)

Reassure the patient and advise rest

b)

Refer immediately for emergency care

c)

Order antibiotics

d)

Induce labor

19.

A midwife interviews a pregnant woman during her first prenatal visit. Which question is MOST important to include in obtaining an obstetric history?

a)

“Do you exercise daily?”

b)

“When was the first day of your last menstrual period?”

c)

“How many meals do you eat per day?”

d)

“Have you experienced colds recently?”

20.

During history-taking, a pregnant woman reports having preeclampsia in her previous pregnancy. What should the midwife consider?

a)

This is irrelevant in the current pregnancy.

b)

This increases her risk in the current pregnancy.

c)

This indicates she will definitely have preeclampsia again.

d)

This means she cannot have a normal delivery.

21.

A patient with a history of hypertension is seeking prenatal care. What should the midwife prioritize during health history-taking?

a)

Family history of allergies

b)

Current medications being taken

c)

Usual sleep patterns

d)

Past surgical history only

22.

A mother brings her 2-year-old child for consultation. The midwife notes that the child has not received measles vaccination and is delayed in walking. What does this suggest?

a)

The child is developing normally

b)

The child may need further evaluation for developmental delay

c)

The child does not need immunization anymore

d)

The child’s history is unimportant since he is only 2 years old

23.

A pregnant woman at 10 weeks reports vaginal bleeding and a history of miscarriage. What is the best action of the midwife?

a)

Reassure her that bleeding is normal in early pregnancy

b)

Refer her immediately for medical evaluation

c)

Advise her to monitor at home for 1 week

d)

Record the history and continue routine care

24.

During a rural health visit, the midwife interviews an adult client with diabetes mellitus. Why is it important to ask about lifestyle habits (diet, exercise, smoking)?

a)

Because lifestyle factors may worsen chronic conditions

b)

Because it is only routine questioning

c)

Because lifestyle is more important than medical history

d)

Because it can replace laboratory results

25.

A 24-year-old pregnant woman in her second trimester attends her first prenatal check-up. Which topic should the midwife emphasize first during health education?

a)

Family planning methods

b)

Importance of regular prenatal checkups

c)

Exercise programs after delivery

d)

Home remedies for labor pain

26.

During a rural health mission, a 40-year-old client asks why the midwife is stressing hygiene and chronic disease prevention. What should the midwife explain?

a)

Because most patients prefer hygiene education over medicines

b)

Preventive care reduces disease burden and improves long-term outcomes

c)

Because laboratory services are unavailable in rural areas

d)

To replace medical treatments with health teaching

27.

A mother of a 6-month-old baby asks what the most important health practice is at this stage. Which should the midwife recommend?

a)

Exclusive breastfeeding and timely immunization

b)

Early toilet training

c)

Regular solid meals with family food

d)

Use of vitamins only

28.

A pregnant woman at 32 weeks reports severe headache and blurred vision. What is the most appropriate health education the midwife should provide?

a)

“This is normal in late pregnancy; just rest.”

b)

“Drink more fluids and avoid bright lights.”

c)

“These are danger signs; you must seek immediate medical attention.”

d)

“Ignore unless abdominal pain develops.”

29.

A 22-year-old pregnant woman in her 2nd trimester visits the RHU for regular antenatal care. She is stable, with normal vital signs, and no complications are noted. What is the appropriate action?

a)

Refer her to the nearest tertiary hospital

b)

Admit her in the RHU for close monitoring

c)

Provide antenatal check-up and routine health education

d)

Send her home without documentation

30.

What does admission of patients in an RHU primarily mean?

a)

Transferring patients to higher facilities for advanced care

b)

Formally accepting patients for treatment within the RHU

c)

Recording patients’ names in the barangay health registry

d)

Discharging patients after consultation

31.

A midwife assesses a child with high-grade fever, convulsions, and difficulty breathing. The RHU lacks oxygen and IV medication. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

a)

Manage the patient with paracetamol only

b)

Refer the patient immediately to a higher-level facility

c)

Ask the parents to bring the child back tomorrow

d)

Keep the child under observation until fever subsides

32.

Why is standardizing admission and referral procedures important in rural health practice?

a)

To save time and reduce paperwork

b)

To ensure continuity of care and patient safety

c)

To avoid midwives’ accountability in patient care

d)

To limit referrals to tertiary hospitals

33.

During admission of a patient with suspected pneumonia in the RHU, what is the FIRST step the midwife should perform?

a)

Prescribe antibiotics immediately

b)

Register the patient and conduct initial assessment

c)

Refer the patient without assessment

d)

Request the patient to buy medications from the pharmacy

34.

A midwife decides to refer a patient in labor with eclampsia. What should be included in the referral slip?

a)

Only the patient’s name and age

b)

The patient’s medical findings, management done, and reason for referral

c)

The midwife’s name and address only

d)

The receiving hospital’s bed availability

35.

Which of the following is NOT an indication for referral from RHU to a higher-level facility?

a)

Normal spontaneous delivery without complications

b)

Obstructed labor

c)

Severe preeclampsia

d)

Severe trauma from an accident

36.

While preparing to transfer a patient with postpartum hemorrhage, what is the priority action of the midwife?

a)

Wait for the ambulance without providing care

b)

Stabilize the patient as much as possible before transfer

c)

Ask the family to arrange transport without informing the hospital

d)

Transfer the patient without medical records

37.

Which statement BEST describes the role of documentation in admission and referral?

a)

It is optional and only for legal purposes

b)

It ensures patient data is available for continuity of care

c)

It replaces verbal communication with the patient’s family

d)

It is only required in hospital settings

38.

A patient arrives at the RHU with a deep laceration from a motorcycle accident. The wound is bleeding heavily, and the RHU has no surgical facility. What should the midwife do?

a)

Clean and dress the wound, then refer the patient immediately

b)

Ask the patient to wait until the doctor arrives the next day

c)

Provide pain medication and send the patient home

d)

Attempt to suture the wound despite lack of facility

39.

What is the main purpose of monitoring admitted patients in the RHU?

a)

To document patient names in the logbook

b)

To adjust care plans and ensure timely interventions

c)

To reduce the workload of the midwife

d)

To prepare for early discharge regardless of condition

40.

A midwife is monitoring a postpartum patient admitted in the RHU. The patient suddenly develops a fever and abdominal pain. What should the midwife do FIRST?

a)

Document and wait for the fever to subside

b)

Adjust the care plan and provide immediate intervention

c)

Discharge the patient since she can be managed at home

d)

Refer without initial management

41.

Why is it important to follow up with the referral facility after transferring a patient?

a)

To confirm bed availability in the hospital

b)

To ensure care was transferred successfully and get updates

c)

To lessen RHU workload

d)

To discharge the patient earlier

42.

A 5-year-old child with severe pneumonia was referred to the provincial hospital. Two days later, the midwife calls the hospital to check on the outcome of the referral. What principle is being demonstrated?a. Patient debriefing

a)

Patient debriefing

b)

Referral follow-up

c)

Admission monitoring

d)

Discharge planning

43.

Which of the following BEST describes the role of documentation in monitoring admitted patients?

a)

It is optional and can be skipped if the patient is stable

b)

It ensures that patient progress and discharge plans are recorded

c)

It replaces the need for verbal handover

d)

It is only required for complicated cases

44.

A patient was referred to a higher facility for emergency care. The family is anxious and confused about the next steps. What should the midwife do?

a)

Ignore the family to focus on paperwork

b)

Debrief the family, explain the plan of care, and answer questions

c)

Ask the family to talk to the hospital instead

d)

Give written instructions only

45.

What is the PRIMARY purpose of closure after admission or referral?

a)

To finish paperwork quickly

b)

To reassure the family and provide clear instructions

c)

To prepare for patient billing

d)

To reduce patient visits to the RHU

46.

After a referral, the patient’s husband asks what treatment will be given in the hospital. The midwife is unsure of the specific details. What is the BEST response?

a)

“I don’t know, just wait and see.”

b)

“I am not sure, but the hospital has the resources to provide advanced care. I will also follow up with them.”

c)

“You should not ask too many questions.”
d. “Go to the hospital immediately without explanation.”

d)

“Go to the hospital immediately without explanation.”

47.

Why should community health workers be involved in post-discharge follow-up?

a)

To reduce the responsibility of the RHU midwife

b)

To ensure continuity of care at the community level

c)

To replace hospital care completely

d)

To limit patient access to services

48.

A patient treated for tuberculosis at the RHU has been discharged. What is the BEST way to ensure adherence to treatment?

a)

Stop monitoring once the patient leaves the RHU

b)

Coordinate with community health workers to track medication compliance

c)

Tell the patient to visit only when symptoms worsen

d)

Leave the responsibility entirely to the family.

49.

Which statement BEST reflects the importance of integrating follow-up and closure in patient care?

a)

It reduces the need for RHU midwives

b)

It improves outcomes and builds patient-family trust

c)

It avoids unnecessary referrals

d)

It prevents midwives from making errors

50.

A midwife notices that a hypertensive patient referred for follow-up at the hospital has not returned to the RHU. What is the MOST appropriate action?

a)

Ignore the case since referral was already made

b)

Document the case only without follow-up

c)

Contact the hospital or community health worker to check on the patient

d)

Wait until the patient voluntarily returns