WorksheetsMICRO-2
Total questions: 153
Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Principle: Irreversible denaturation of enzymes and proteins
a)
Moist heat
b)
Dry heat
c)
Incineration
d)
Filtration
e)
Ionizing or gamma radiation
2.
Oven
a)
Moist heat
b)
Dry heat
c)
Incineration
d)
Filtration
e)
Ionizing or gamma radiation
3.
Most commonly used autoclave
a)
Horizontal autoclave
b)
Vertical autoclave
c)
Gravity displacement autoclave
d)
Any of the choices
4.
change of white to black diagonal lines is a positive indicator that an autoclave performance is successful upon exposure to 121 degree Celsius if you used..
a)
Autoclave tape
b)
Autoclave strip
5.
change of white to black color only is a positive indicator that an autoclave performance is successful upon exposure to 121 degree Celsius if you used..
a)
Autoclave tape
b)
Autoclave strip
6.
autoclave temperature to sterilize broth and media
a)
121 degree Celsius, 15 psi
b)
132 degree Celsius, 15 psi
c)
100 degree Celsius
d)
70 to 80 degree Celsius
7.
autoclave temperature for medical waste w/ blood/body fluids Best sterilization & decontamination of “used media”
a)
121 degree Celsius, 15 psi
b)
132 degree Celsius, 15 psi
c)
100 degree Celsius
d)
70 to 80 degree Celsius
8.
Tyndallization or fractional sterilization involves moist heating at?
a)
121 degree Celsius, 15 psi
b)
132 degree Celsius, 15 psi
c)
100 degree Celsius
d)
70 to 80 degree Celsius
9.
Inspissation involves moist heating at?
a)
121 degree Celsius, 15 psi
b)
132 degree Celsius, 15 psi
c)
100 degree Celsius
d)
70 to 80 degree Celsius
10.
How long would you perform autoclave sterilization at 121 degree Celsius, 15 psi to eliminate spores only?
a)
15-30 min
b)
30-60 min
c)
30 min for 3 consecutive days
d)
2 hours for 3 consecutive days
11.
How long would you perform autoclave sterilization at 132 degree Celsius, 15 psi to eliminate spores and prions?
a)
15-30 min
b)
30-60 min
c)
30 min for 3 consecutive days
d)
2 hours for 3 consecutive days
12.
Tyndallization / Fractional sterilization is done for how long?
a)
15-30 min
b)
30-60 min
c)
30 min for 3 consecutive days
d)
2 hours for 3 consecutive days
13.
Inspissation is done for how long?
a)
15-30 min
b)
30-60 min
c)
30 min for 3 consecutive days
d)
2 hours for 3 consecutive days
14.
Biological indicator – change of color after incubation
a)
Autoclave
b)
Tyndallization or Fractional sterilization
c)
Inspissation
15.
1st day – Vegetative cells are killed;
2nd day - spores are killed;
3rd day – remaining cells are killed
a)
Autoclave
b)
Tyndallization or Fractional sterilization
c)
Inspissation
16.
Recommended sterilization for Lowenstein Jensen
a)
Autoclave
b)
Tyndallization or Fractional sterilization
c)
Inspissation
17.
What is skilled on the first day when performing tyndallization?
a)
Spores
b)
Vegetative cells
c)
Remaining cells
18.
What is skilled on the second day when performing tyndallization?
a)
Spores
b)
Vegetative cells
c)
Remaining cells
19.
What is skilled on the third day when performing tyndallization?
a)
Spores
b)
Vegetative cells
c)
Remaining cells
20.
For drying; Glassware, cotton swab, oils, petrolatum, powder
a)
Oven
b)
Incineration
c)
Membrane filtration
d)
HEPA filter
e)
Ionizing or gamma radiation
21.
For research animals and medical/laboratory waste; for Prions; Safest method to ensure no infective materials remain in samples
a)
Oven
b)
Incineration
c)
Membrane filtration
d)
HEPA filter
e)
Ionizing or gamma radiation
22.
For heat-sensitive materials (antibiotic solutions, toxic chemicals, radioisotopes, vaccines, carbohydrates)
a)
Oven
b)
Incineration
c)
Membrane filtration
d)
HEPA filter
e)
Ionizing or gamma radiation
23.
Usual pore size: 0.45-0.80 µm Critical sterilizing for parenteral solutions: 0.22 µm
a)
Oven
b)
Incineration
c)
Membrane filtration
d)
HEPA filter
e)
Ionizing or gamma radiation
24.
Pulling liquids through a membrane (cellulose acetate or cellulose nitrate) with a vacuum
a)
Oven
b)
Incineration
c)
Membrane filtration
d)
HEPA filter
e)
Ionizing or gamma radiation
25.
Used in isolation rooms, operating rooms, biological safety cabinets
a)
Oven
b)
Incineration
c)
Membrane filtration
d)
HEPA filter
e)
Ionizing or gamma radiation
26.
For disposables such as plastic syringe, vacutainer blood tubes, catheters, gloves
a)
Oven
b)
Incineration
c)
Membrane filtration
d)
HEPA filter
e)
Ionizing or gamma radiation
27.
Composed of short wavelength, high energy gamma rays
a)
Oven
b)
Incineration
c)
Membrane filtration
d)
HEPA filter
e)
Ionizing or gamma radiation
28.
0.3 um filtration
a)
Oven
b)
Incineration
c)
Membrane filtration
d)
HEPA filter
e)
Ionizing or gamma radiation
29.
Incineration temperature
a)
870 to 980 degree Celsius
b)
160 to 170 degree Celsius
c)
70 to 80 degree Celsius
d)
100 degree Celsius
30.
Dry heat temperature
a)
870 to 980 degree Celsius
b)
160 to 170 degree Celsius
c)
70 to 80 degree Celsius
d)
100 degree Celsius
31.
Oven sterilization duration in dry heat
a)
30 min 3 consecutive days
b)
2 hours 3 consecutive days
c)
15 to 30 minutes
d)
1.5 to 3 hours
32.
No toxic by-products
a)
Ethylene oxide
b)
Vapor-phase hydrogen peroxide
33.
Oxidizing agent
a)
Ethylene oxide
b)
Vapor-phase hydrogen peroxide
34.
Used in sterilizing HEPA filter in BSCs, metals, and medical instruments like scissors.
a)
Ethylene oxide
b)
Vapor-phase hydrogen peroxide
35.
For heat-sensitive materials
a)
Ethylene oxide
b)
Vapor-phase hydrogen peroxide
36.
Disadvantage: lengthy cycle times and health hazard
a)
Ethylene oxide
b)
Vapor-phase hydrogen peroxide
37.
What is the biological indicator of autoclave?
a)
Geobacillus (Bacillus) stearothermophilus
b)
Bacillus subtilis
c)
Bacillus atrophaeus
d)
Bacillus pumilus
38.
What is the biological indicator of radiation?
a)
Geobacillus (Bacillus) stearothermophilus
b)
Bacillus subtilis
c)
Bacillus atrophaeus
d)
Bacillus pumilus
39.
What is the new name of B. subtilis var. niger and B. subtilis var. globigi?
a)
Geobacillus (Bacillus) stearothermophilus
b)
Bacillus subtilis
c)
Bacillus atrophaeus
d)
Bacillus pumilus
40.
What is the biological indicator of dry heat or oven?
a)
Geobacillus (Bacillus) stearothermophilus
b)
Bacillus subtilis
c)
Bacillus atrophaeus
d)
Bacillus pumilus
41.
What is the biological indicator of gas sterilant or ethylene oxide?
a)
Geobacillus (Bacillus) stearothermophilus
b)
Bacillus subtilis
c)
Bacillus atrophaeus
d)
Bacillus pumilus
42.
Which of the following physical methods of disinfection involves heating at 100 degree Celsius for 15 minutes?
a)
Boiling
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Non-ionizing radiation
43.
Which of the following physical methods of disinfection involves batch method and flash method?
a)
Boiling
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Non-ionizing radiation
44.
Which of the following physical methods of disinfection involves using ultraviolet rays -- long wavelength, low energy?
a)
Boiling
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Non-ionizing radiation
45.
Used in working surfaces of BSC and contaminated rooms
a)
Boiling
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Non-ionizing radiation
46.
Disadvantage: does not penetrate well, needs direct surface exposure
a)
Boiling
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Non-ionizing radiation
47.
kills food pathogens without damaging the nutritional value or flavor.
a)
Boiling
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Non-ionizing radiation
48.
Kills vegetative bacteria; NOT sporicidal
a)
Boiling
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Non-ionizing radiation
49.
Properly pasteurized milk should have a NEGATIVE result in this test
a)
ALP
b)
ACP
c)
ALT
d)
AST
50.
Boiling
a)
63 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
b)
72 degree Celsius for 15 seconds
c)
70 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
d)
100 degree Celsius for 15 minutes
51.
Batch method
a)
63 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
b)
72 degree Celsius for 15 seconds
c)
70 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
d)
100 degree Celsius for 15 minutes
52.
Flash method
a)
63 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
b)
72 degree Celsius for 15 seconds
c)
70 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
d)
100 degree Celsius for 15 minutes
53.
Pasteurization according to Bailey's
a)
63 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
b)
72 degree Celsius for 15 seconds
c)
70 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
d)
100 degree Celsius for 15 minutes
54.
Which of the following chemical sterilant Kills bacteria, mycobacteria, virus, & fungi?
a)
Alcohol
b)
Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)
c)
Aldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid plus Hydrogen Peroxide
55.
Which of the following chemical sterilant are substitute to handwashing at 60-62% waterless concentration?
a)
Alcohol
b)
Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)
c)
Aldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid plus Hydrogen Peroxide
56.
Which of the following chemical sterilant Kills bacteria, mycobacteria, virus, fungi, spores?
a)
Alcohol
b)
Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)
c)
Aldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid plus Hydrogen Peroxide
57.
Which of the following chemical sterilant is Effective even in the presence of organic material?
a)
Alcohol
b)
Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)
c)
Aldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid plus Hydrogen Peroxide
58.
Which of the following chemical sterilant is Used in surface sterilization of surgical instruments?
a)
Alcohol
b)
Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)
c)
Aldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid plus Hydrogen Peroxide
59.
Which of the following chemical sterilant is Kills bacteria, fungi, and even their spores?
a)
Alcohol
b)
Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)
c)
Aldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid plus Hydrogen Peroxide
60.
Disadvantage: can cause ocular, oropharyngeal, esopharyngeal irritation
a)
Alcohol
b)
Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)
c)
Aldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid plus Hydrogen Peroxide
61.
Recommended preparation: Daily; but Stable for 1 month stored in dark and 1 week if exposed to light
a)
Alcohol
b)
Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)
c)
Aldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid plus Hydrogen Peroxide
62.
Which of the following chemical sterilant is not sporicidal?
a)
Alcohol
b)
Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)
c)
Aldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid plus Hydrogen Peroxide
63.
What is the recommended preparation of Sodium hypochlorite?
a)
Daily
b)
Weekly
c)
Monthly
d)
Yearly
64.
NaOCl is stable for how long if stored in dark?
a)
1 week
b)
1 month
c)
1 year
d)
1 day
65.
NaOCl is stable for how long if exposed to light?
a)
1 week
b)
1 month
c)
1 year
d)
1 day
66.
Most common concentration of hypochlorite and referred to as
a)
Formaldehyde
b)
Glutaraldehyde
c)
Ortho-Phthaladehyde
d)
Chlorine
e)
Household bleach
67.
37% solution or in gas form
a)
Formaldehyde
b)
Glutaraldehyde
c)
Ortho-Phthaladehyde
d)
Chlorine
e)
Household bleach
68.
Gas form is used for disinfecting BSC hoods
a)
Formaldehyde
b)
Glutaraldehyde
c)
Ortho-Phthaladehyde
d)
Chlorine
e)
Household bleach
69.
Disadvantage: Carcinogen, MTB survives despite formalin treatment
a)
Formaldehyde
b)
Glutaraldehyde
c)
Ortho-Phthaladehyde
d)
Chlorine
e)
Household bleach
70.
Sporicidal/Sterilant in medical equipment within 3-10 hours contact time.
a)
Formaldehyde
b)
Glutaraldehyde
c)
Ortho-Phthaladehyde
d)
Chlorine
e)
Household bleach
71.
Do not corrode lens, metal, rubber): bronchoscope
a)
Formaldehyde
b)
Glutaraldehyde
c)
Ortho-Phthaladehyde
d)
Chlorine
e)
Household bleach
72.
Disadvantage: can cause ocular and nasal irritation
a)
Formaldehyde
b)
Glutaraldehyde
c)
Ortho-Phthaladehyde
d)
Chlorine
e)
Household bleach
73.
Same as glutaraldehyde but more stable and requires no activation, does not require exposure monitoring, and not mucous membrane irritant
a)
Formaldehyde
b)
Glutaraldehyde
c)
Ortho-Phthaladehyde
d)
Chlorine
e)
Household bleach
74.
used to disinfect drinking water.
a)
Formaldehyde
b)
Glutaraldehyde
c)
Ortho-Phthaladehyde
d)
Chlorine
e)
Household bleach
75.
CDC recommends that tabletops be cleaned after blood spills with a ____ DILUTION of 5.25% NaOCl (Sodium hypochlorite).
a)
1:5
b)
1:10
c)
1:15
d)
1:20
e)
1:25
76.
NaOCl concentration
a)
5.20 to 6.10% NaOCl
b)
5.25 to 6.15% NaOCl
c)
5.26 to 6.10% NaOCl
d)
5.34 to 6.25 NaOCl
77.
Alcohol conc.
a)
50 to 80% v/v
b)
60 to 90% v/v
c)
75 to 90% v/v
d)
40 to 60% v/v
78.
Example: Zephiran (Benzalkonium chloride)
a)
Hydrogen peroxide
b)
Quarternary ammonium compounds
c)
Phenolics
79.
2-5% used for cleaning bench tops
a)
Hydrogen peroxide
b)
Quarternary ammonium compounds
c)
Phenolics
80.
Kills bacteria, mycobacteria, virus, fungi, spores
a)
Hydrogen peroxide
b)
Quarternary ammonium compounds
c)
Phenolics
81.
Kills bacteria, mycobacteria, virus, fungi, not sporicidal
a)
Hydrogen peroxide
b)
Quarternary ammonium compounds
c)
Phenolics
82.
Derivatives of Carbolic acid
a)
Hydrogen peroxide
b)
Quarternary ammonium compounds
c)
Phenolics
83.
Ortho-phenylphenol
a)
Hydrogen peroxide
b)
Quarternary ammonium compounds
c)
Phenolics
84.
Non-tuberculocidal, non-sporicida
a)
Hydrogen peroxide
b)
Quarternary ammonium compounds
c)
Phenolics
85.
Ortho-benzyl-para- chlorophenol
a)
Hydrogen peroxide
b)
Quarternary ammonium compounds
c)
Phenolics
86.
concentration of H2O2 used in household cleaning materials and wounds
a)
3%
b)
30%
c)
50%
d)
100%
87.
Kills bacteria, mycobacteria, virus, fungi; Not sporicidal
a)
Ethyl alcohol
b)
Tincture of iodine
c)
Iodophor
88.
Iodine + Alcohol
a)
Ethyl alcohol
b)
Tincture of iodine
c)
Iodophor
89.
Iodine + Neutral polymer (Povidone-Iodine, Poloxamer-Iodine)
a)
Ethyl alcohol
b)
Tincture of iodine
c)
Iodophor
90.
must be removed completely from the skin to avoid irritation. Must be diluted properly
a)
Ethyl alcohol
b)
Tincture of iodine
c)
Iodophor
91.
Contact time for iodine must be _______ (Pg64, Mahon6E) and should be allowed to dry for another ____.
a)
20 seconds
b)
30 seconds
c)
60 seconds
d)
15 seconds
92.
The iodine should remain intact on the skin for at least --- --seconds (Harr 6E)
a)
20 seconds
b)
30 seconds
c)
60 seconds
d)
15 seconds
93.
Is alcohol sporicidal?
a)
Yes
b)
No
94.
Is iodine sporicidal?
a)
Yes
b)
No
95.
Is Ortho-phenylphenol Ortho-benzyl-parachlorophenol sporicidal?
a)
Yes
b)
No
96.
Stable in the presence of organic materials
a)
Ortho-phenylphenol Ortho-benzyl-parachlorophenol
b)
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
c)
Hexachlorophene
d)
Triclosan
97.
Kills all microorganisms except spores.
a)
Ortho-phenylphenol Ortho-benzyl-parachlorophenol
b)
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
c)
Hexachlorophene
d)
Triclosan
98.
More effective on gram(+) than in gram(-)
a)
Ortho-phenylphenol Ortho-benzyl-parachlorophenol
b)
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
c)
Hexachlorophene
d)
Triclosan
99.
Primarily effective against gram(+)
a)
Ortho-phenylphenol Ortho-benzyl-parachlorophenol
b)
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
c)
Hexachlorophene
d)
Triclosan
100.
Effective against gram(+), gram(-), and viruses; Fair effectivity on Mycobacteria
a)
Ortho-phenylphenol Ortho-benzyl-parachlorophenol
b)
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
c)
Hexachlorophene
d)
Triclosan
101.
Added to many household products: clothing, kitchenware, toothpaste, and toys to prevent bacterial contamination
a)
Ortho-phenylphenol Ortho-benzyl-parachlorophenol
b)
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
c)
Hexachlorophene
d)
Triclosan
102.
Less effective on fungi
a)
Ortho-phenylphenol Ortho-benzyl-parachlorophenol
b)
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
c)
Hexachlorophene
d)
Triclosan
103.
For outbreaks of gram(+) infections
a)
Ortho-phenylphenol Ortho-benzyl-parachlorophenol
b)
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
c)
Hexachlorophene
d)
Triclosan
104.
Has high antimicrobial activity (better than povidone iodine and disinfectants below CHG in this table) and has low toxicity.
a)
Ortho-phenylphenol Ortho-benzyl-parachlorophenol
b)
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
c)
Hexachlorophene
d)
Triclosan
105.
Stable in the presence of organic materials
a)
Ortho-phenylphenol Ortho-benzyl-parachlorophenol
b)
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
c)
Hexachlorophene
d)
Triclosan
106.
Used as skin antiseptic BEFORE.
a)
1% silver nitrate
b)
Mercurial chloride
c)
0.5% erythromycin
107.
Prevents ophthalmia neonatorum (neonatal conjunctivitis) caused by N. gonorrhoeae or C. trachomatis
a)
1% silver nitrate
b)
Mercurial chloride
c)
0.5% erythromycin
108.
Crede’s prophylaxis
a)
1% silver nitrate
b)
Mercurial chloride
c)
0.5% erythromycin
109.
Incineration
a)
134 degree Celsius for 18 minutes
b)
134 degree Celsius for 1 hour
c)
121 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
d)
132 degree Celsius for 1 hour
e)
870 to 980 degree Celsius
110.
To kill prions using 1 N NaOH upon immersion for 1 hour then autoclave in Gravity displacement sterilizer
a)
134 degree Celsius for 18 minutes
b)
134 degree Celsius for 1 hour
c)
121 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
d)
132 degree Celsius for 1 hour
e)
870 to 980 degree Celsius
111.
To kill prions using 1 N NaOH upon immersion for 1 hour then autoclave in prevacuum sterilizer
a)
134 degree Celsius for 18 minutes
b)
134 degree Celsius for 1 hour
c)
121 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
d)
132 degree Celsius for 1 hour
e)
870 to 980 degree Celsius
112.
To kill prions using autoclave in prevacuum sterilizer
a)
134 degree Celsius for 18 minutes
b)
134 degree Celsius for 1 hour
c)
121 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
d)
132 degree Celsius for 1 hour
e)
870 to 980 degree Celsius
113.
To kill prions using autoclave in gravity displacement sterilizer
a)
134 degree Celsius for 18 minutes
b)
134 degree Celsius for 1 hour
c)
121 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
d)
132 degree Celsius for 1 hour
e)
870 to 980 degree Celsius
114.
Substitutes in 1% silver nitrate: Ointment of ___________________
or 1% tetracycline or povidone-iodine (not that
recommended
a)
1% silver nitrate
b)
Mercurial chloride
c)
0.5% erythromycin
115.
Classification, nomenclature, and identification of organisms
a)
Taxonomy
b)
Epigenetics
c)
Classification
d)
Identification
116.
Deals with variations in gene expression not caused by nucleic acid sequence similarities or differences
a)
Taxonomy
b)
Epigenetics
c)
Classification
d)
Identification
117.
It is a method of organizing microorganisms into groups or taxa based on similar morphologic, physiologic, and genetic traits.
a)
Taxonomy
b)
Epigenetics
c)
Classification
d)
Identification
118.
s the process consisting of a series of methods designed to provide the microbiologist with relevant and useful clinical information about a microorganism
a)
Taxonomy
b)
Epigenetics
c)
Classification
d)
Identification
119.
Naming of microorganisms according to rules of International Code of Nomenclature of Prokaryotes (ICNP).
a)
Nomenclature
b)
Biotype/biovar
c)
Serotype/serovar
d)
Strain
e)
Strain typing
120.
Same species but differential physiologic characteristics
a)
Nomenclature
b)
Biotype/biovar
c)
Serotype/serovar
d)
Strain
e)
Strain typing
121.
Same species but differential antigenic characteristics
a)
Nomenclature
b)
Biotype/biovar
c)
Serotype/serovar
d)
Strain
e)
Strain typing
122.
A specific version of an organism; a subtype of a specific organism with some minor differences
a)
Nomenclature
b)
Biotype/biovar
c)
Serotype/serovar
d)
Strain
e)
Strain typing
123.
Characterization of etiologic agents using molecular techniques important during an outbreak or epidemic.
a)
Nomenclature
b)
Biotype/biovar
c)
Serotype/serovar
d)
Strain
e)
Strain typing
124.
The ability of the microorganism to produce disease in a host.
a)
Pathogenicity
b)
Virulence
c)
Infection
d)
Disease
e)
Intoxication
125.
The degree of damage caused by the microorganism to the host; degree of pathogenicity.
a)
Pathogenicity
b)
Virulence
c)
Infection
d)
Disease
e)
Intoxication
126.
Growth of microorganisms that result in damage to host.
a)
Pathogenicity
b)
Virulence
c)
Infection
d)
Disease
e)
Intoxication
127.
Results when infection produces notable changes in human physiology associated with damage or loss of function to one or more of the body’s organ system.
a)
Pathogenicity
b)
Virulence
c)
Infection
d)
Disease
e)
Intoxication
128.
Ingestion of preformed bacterial toxins present in food.
a)
Pathogenicity
b)
Virulence
c)
Infection
d)
Disease
e)
Intoxication
129.
Infection is transmitted by direct contact between reservoir and host
a)
Direct transmission
b)
Livestock-associated infection
c)
Outbreak
d)
Surveillance
e)
Indirect transmission
130.
Infection is transmitted to host via intervening agents (Vectors or Vehicles)
a)
Direct transmission
b)
Livestock-associated infection
c)
Outbreak
d)
Surveillance
e)
Indirect transmission
131.
A result of regular interaction with animals for food production
a)
Direct transmission
b)
Livestock-associated infection
c)
Outbreak
d)
Surveillance
e)
Indirect transmission
132.
A larger than normal number of diseased or infected individuals that occurs over a relatively short period
a)
Direct transmission
b)
Livestock-associated infection
c)
Outbreak
d)
Surveillance
e)
Indirect transmission
133.
Any type of epidemiologic investigation that involves data collection for characterizing circumstances surrounding the incidence or prevalence of a particular disease or infection.
a)
Direct transmission
b)
Livestock-associated infection
c)
Outbreak
d)
Surveillance
e)
Indirect transmission
134.
Father of microbiology; 1st microbiologist, 1st to describe bacteria
a)
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
b)
John Snow
c)
Carl von Linne
d)
Ignaz Semmelweis
135.
Father of Epidemiology
a)
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
b)
John Snow
c)
Carl von Linne
d)
Ignaz Semmelweis
136.
Father of Taxonomy
a)
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
b)
John Snow
c)
Carl von Linne
d)
Ignaz Semmelweis
137.
Father of Handwashing/Hospital hygiene
a)
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
b)
John Snow
c)
Carl von Linne
d)
Ignaz Semmelweis
138.
Father of virology (discovery of virus); use of enrichment and selective media
a)
Martinus Beijerinck
b)
Luc Montagnier
c)
Hans Christian Gram
d)
Julius Richard Petri
139.
Discovered HIV that causes AIDS
a)
Martinus Beijerinck
b)
Luc Montagnier
c)
Hans Christian Gram
d)
Julius Richard Petri
140.
Developed Gram stain technique
a)
Martinus Beijerinck
b)
Luc Montagnier
c)
Hans Christian Gram
d)
Julius Richard Petri
141.
Developed petri dish
a)
Martinus Beijerinck
b)
Luc Montagnier
c)
Hans Christian Gram
d)
Julius Richard Petri
142.
Carbolic acid (Phenol) as antimicrobial; Aseptic technique
a)
Joseph Lister
b)
Louis Pasteur
c)
Robert Koch
d)
Ferdinand Cohn
143.
Germ theory; Pasteurization
a)
Joseph Lister
b)
Louis Pasteur
c)
Robert Koch
d)
Ferdinand Cohn
144.
Koch postulates; Anthrax & Tuberculosis
a)
Joseph Lister
b)
Louis Pasteur
c)
Robert Koch
d)
Ferdinand Cohn
145.
Endospore survival on boiling
a)
Joseph Lister
b)
Louis Pasteur
c)
Robert Koch
d)
Ferdinand Cohn
146.
Theory of chemolithotrophs; use of enrichment and selective media
a)
Sergei Winogradsky
b)
Maurice Hilleman
c)
Karry Mullis
d)
Fanny Hesse
147.
Developed >40 vaccines: against Hepatitis A and B, Measles, Mumps, Rubella, S. meningitidis, S. pneumoniae
a)
Sergei Winogradsky
b)
Maurice Hilleman
c)
Karry Mullis
d)
Fanny Hesse
148.
Inventor of PCR
a)
Sergei Winogradsky
b)
Maurice Hilleman
c)
Karry Mullis
d)
Fanny Hesse
149.
Use of agar as culture media instead of gelatin
a)
Sergei Winogradsky
b)
Maurice Hilleman
c)
Karry Mullis
d)
Fanny Hesse
150.
The microorganism must be present in diseased organisms and not in healthy organisms
a)
Postulate 1
b)
Postulate 2
c)
Postulate 3
d)
Postulate 4
151.
The microorganism must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture
a)
Postulate 1
b)
Postulate 2
c)
Postulate 3
d)
Postulate 4
152.
The cultured microorganism must cause disease when introduced into a healthy organism
a)
Postulate 1
b)
Postulate 2
c)
Postulate 3
d)
Postulate 4
153.
The microorganism must be re-isolated from the new host and must be identical to the original microorganism
a)
Postulate 1
b)
Postulate 2
c)
Postulate 3
d)
Postulate 4
100 %