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416 Exam 2 pt. 1

Total questions: 251

Worksheet time: 2hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

NO intervention

a)

nonexperimental design

b)

experimental design

2.

inclusion criteria

a)

subject must speak and read English

b)

subject must be 18 years or older

c)

subject must not have a terminal illness

3.

exclusion criteria

a)

subject is unable to speak and read english

b)

subject is under 18 years of age

c)

subject has a terminal illness

4.

process of selecting a part of the population to represent the entire population for a particular study

a)

sampling

b)

sample

5.

narrow the population to a researchable size and characteristics that define the population

a)

eligibility criteria

b)

ineligibility criteria

6.

the subset of the population that is chosen to represent the population for a given study

a)

sampling

b)

sample

7.

involves random selection of elements: each element has an equal, independent chance of being selected

a)

nonprobability sampling

b)

probability sampling

8.

elements chosen in nonrandom way; means not every element of population has opportunity to be chosen for the sample

a)

nonprobability samples

b)

probability samples

9.

accidental/incidental; subjects for study are chosen as they become available

a)

convenience sampling

b)

quota sampling

c)

consecutive sampling

10.

weakest form of sampling

a)

convenience sampling

b)

quota sampling

c)

consecutive sampling

11.

a sample whose key characteristics closely approximate those of the population

a)

representative sample

b)

sampling bias

c)

non-probability sample

12.

researcher takes into account some knowledge of population to build in representativeness to the sampling plan

a)

consecutive sampling

b)

quota sampling

c)

purposive sampling

13.

researcher wants to study patient satisfaction with emergency department nursing care

a)

quota sampling

b)

purposive sampling

c)

snowball sampling

14.

the systematic overrepresentation or underrepresentation of some segment of the population in terms of key characteristics

a)

sampling bias

b)

representative sample

c)

nonprobability sampling

15.

recruit all of the people from those that are accessible who meet the eligibility criteria, (1) until the specified sample is obtained or (2) the specific time interval is completed

a)

consecutive sampling

b)

purposive sampling

c)

snowball sampling

16.

researcher "hand picks" the subjects for the study; most often used in qualitative research

a)

purposive sampling

b)

snowball sampling

c)

quota sampling

17.

researcher only selects persons who have experienced loss due to a Hurricane

a)

purposive sampling

b)

snowball sampling

c)

quota sampling

18.

researcher uses subjects to access other potential subjects; used to identify people with distinctive characteristics

a)

purposive sampling

b)

snowball sampling

c)

consecutive sampling

19.

a researcher wishes to study health habits of elderly people living in a retirement community. the researcher has one subject and then asks that subject to refer other people in the building to the study

a)

snowball sampling

b)

purposive sampling

c)

consecutive sampling

20.

which type of sampling is most vulnerable to bias

a)

convenience sampling

b)

snowball sampling

c)

quota sampling

d)

purposive sampling

21.

does not involve selection of elements at random

a)

nonprobability sampling

b)

probability sampling

22.

subjects selected in random fashion; each element of the population has an equal independent chance of being chosen for the study

a)

probability sampling

b)

simple random

c)

stratified random

23.

researcher obtains list of all elements in the population (sampling frame); assigns a number to each element

a)

simple random

b)

stratified random

c)

cluster sampling

24.

size is in proportion to their representation in the population

a)

proportionate sample

b)

disproportionate sample

25.

same as non-probability quota sampling except after homogeneous subsets or strata are established, elements for each stratum are chosen by simple random sampling

a)

stratified random

b)

simple random

c)

systematic sampling

26.

different proportions of study participants sampled when comparing strata; helps make sure smaller strata are adequately represented

a)

proportionate sample

b)

disproportionate sample

27.

involves successive random sampling of units that progresses from large groups or clusters to smaller groups or clusters

a)

cluster sampling

b)

random sampling

c)

stratified sampling

28.

researcher wants to generalize to all Baccalaureate nursing student in US

a)

cluster sampling

b)

stratified sampling

c)

random sampling

29.

the researcher chooses each element of the population from a list or group

a)

systematic sampling

b)

cluster sampling

c)

stratified sampling

30.

researcher wants to sample all emergency department patients seen in last year

a)

systematic sampling

b)

cluster sampling

c)

stratified sampling

31.

all insulin dependent diabetics in Cabell County

a)

target population

b)

accessible population

c)

strata

32.

stratified random sampling enhances representativeness

a)

true

b)

false

33.

as sample size increases, sampling error

a)

increases

b)

decreases

34.

determines how large the sample size must be to detect a difference

a)

power analysis by cohen

b)

statistical conclusion validity

35.

male/female, chronically ill/acutely ill

a)

target populations

b)

accessible populations

c)

strata

36.

risk of getting it wrong increases if sample is too small

a)

power analysis by cohen

b)

statistical conclusion validity

37.

method of processing and analyzing numbers in systematic manner

a)

statistics

b)

methods

c)

probabilities

38.

subpopulations of a population

a)

target population

b)

accessible population

c)

strata

39.

used when research problem does not lend itself to an experimental design

a)

nonexperimental design

b)

experimental design

40.

those within the subjects; characteristics of the study participants

a)

external factors (confounding variables)

b)

internal factors (confounding variables)

41.

age, gender, underlying medical illness, personality traits, emotions, perceptions of an event, etc

a)

external factors (confounding variables)

b)

internal factors (confounding variables)

42.

those within the subjects; characteristics of the study participants

a)

external factors (confounding variables)

b)

internal factors (confounding variables)

43.

sex, blood type, age, etc

a)

independent variable inherently unable to manipulate

b)

independent variable ethically unable to manipulate

44.

randomly selecting subjects for each group; each member has an equal chance of being selected

a)

random sampling

b)

random assignment

c)

homogeneity

45.

smoking

a)

independent variable inherently unable to manipulate

b)

independent variable ethically unable to manipulate

46.

sample too small

a)

low statistical power

b)

weakly defined "cause"

c)

low intervention fidelity

47.

independent variable not powerful

a)

low statistical power

b)

weakly defined "cause"

c)

low intervention fidelity

48.

most effective means of controlling internal confounding variables; confounding variables will be distributed over both groups evenly

a)

random sampling

b)

random assignment

c)

homogeneity

49.

unreliable implementation of a treatment

a)

low statistical power

b)

weakly defined "cause"

c)

low intervention fidelity

50.

examine internal and external validity to evaluate the adequacy of the research design

a)

true

b)

false

51.

when effects detected in a study are a true reflection of reality and not the result of the effects of extraneous variables

a)

internal validity

b)

external validity

52.

when some event other than the experimental intervention which might influence the dependent variable; ex. news program on breast self-examination

a)

threat of history

b)

selection threat bias

c)

threat of maturation

53.

occurs when groups differ before intervention in characteristics; ex. smoking

a)

threat of history

b)

selection threat bias

c)

threat of maturation

54.

if it is impractical to manipulate independent variables such as lack of time or lack of funds

a)

nonexperimental designs

b)

experimental designs

55.

occurs when natural changes occur within subjects during a study which might affect results; ex. school nurse study of nutritional status of children

a)

threat of maturation

b)

threat of mortality

c)

threat of testing

56.

the function of random assignment is to choose a comparison group that is as much like the intervention group as possible

a)

true

b)

false

57.

controlled by use of comparison group and random assignment

a)

threat of maturation

b)

threat of mortality

c)

threat of instrument change

58.

occurs when pretest is given and the subjects may remember the answers

a)

threat of testing

b)

threat of instrument change

c)

threat of mortality

59.

occurs when different pretest and posttest instruments are used; best if the instruments have similar quality assessment values

a)

threats of mortality

b)

threat of instrument change

c)

threat of testing

60.

occurs when subject dropout rate is different between intervention and comparison groups; difficult to control

a)

threat of mortality

b)

threat of testing

c)

threat of instrument change

61.

concerns to what extent to which the findings of a study can be generalized (applied to other people or settings)

a)

external validity

b)

internal validity

62.

concerns whether the sample is representative of population is an inadequacy of sampling design threat

a)

true

b)

false

63.

ascertaining the prevalence of a health problem or trait

a)

descriptive

b)

descriptive correlational

64.

occurs when subjects in a study change behavior simply because they know they are in a study

a)

hawthorne effect threat

b)

experimenter effect threat

c)

pretest effect threat

65.

used when random assignment not feasible; researcher chooses for the study only those subjects who are alike with respect to the extraneous variables

a)

random sampling

b)

random assignment

c)

homogeneity

66.

occurs when characteristics or behavior of the researcher affect behavior or responses of subjects

a)

experimenter effect threat

b)

hawthorne effect threat

c)

pretest effect threat

67.

use subject characteristics to match subjects on one-on-one basis to make groups comparable on extraneous variables such as age, gender, and race

a)

matching

b)

homogeneity

c)

statistical control

68.

clothes, facial expressions, gender, and body build

a)

experimenter effect threat examples

b)

hawthorne effect threat examples

c)

pretest effect threat examples

69.

occurs when subjects are pre-tested; researchers cannot generalize people who were not pre-tested

a)

experimenter effect threat

b)

hawthorne effect threat

c)

pretest effect threat

70.

data must not be influenced by data collection

a)

objective data collection

b)

systematic data collection

71.

the purpose is to describe whether variables are related, without ascribing a cause-and-effect connection

a)

descriptive

b)

descriptive correlational

72.

everyone must collect data in the same way

a)

objective data collection

b)

systematic data collection

73.

existing data

a)

historical (letters, diaries, minutes of meetings, etc)

b)

records (hospital, school, and corporate)

74.

data which the researcher prospectively collects

a)

new data

b)

existing data

75.

randomly select subject in the experimental and then a subject that is similar to that subject is randomly selected for the control group

a)

matching

b)

random assignment

c)

homogeneity

76.

historical data that is convenient and economical; secondary or meta-analysis

a)

new data

b)

existing data

77.

assessment of clinical measures (e.g. blood pressure, O2 saturation, potassium level)

a)

biophysiological measures

b)

self-reports

c)

patient-reported outcome

d)

observations

78.

purpose is to observe, describe, and explain aspects of situation

a)

descriptive designs

b)

nonexperimental designs

c)

experimental designs

d)

descriptive correlational

79.

subject's perceptions (e.g. interview)

a)

biophysiological measures

b)

self reports

c)

patient-reported outcome

d)

observations

80.

what size pool of subjects do you need for matching

a)

large

b)

small

c)

medium

81.

direct questioning of study subjects

a)

biophysiological measures

b)

self-reports

c)

patient-reported outcome (self report)

d)

observations

82.

can control for confounding variables using various statistical methods

a)

statistical control

b)

threat bias

c)

homogeneity

83.

researcher's perceptions (e.g. direct observation of behavior)

a)

biophysiological measures

b)

self-reports

c)

patient-reported outcome (self report)

d)

observations

84.

the ability to detect true relationships statistically

a)

statistical conclusion valididty

b)

internal validity

c)

external validity

d)

construct validity

85.

use of special equipment to make measurements; complex or simple equipment

a)

physiological or biological measurements

b)

quantitative self-report

c)

data collection measures

86.

may compare two or more groups on an attribute but no intervention

a)

descriptive designs

b)

nonexperimental designs

c)

retrospective designs

87.

performed directly within or on living organisms (e.g. BP)

a)

in vivo measures

b)

in vitro measures

88.

the extent to which it can be inferred that the independent variable caused or influenced the deoendent variable

a)

statistical conclusion validity

b)

internal validity

c)

external validity

d)

construct validiity

89.

biophysiologic material is taken and analyzed outside the body (e.g. blood chemistry levels, cytology, etc)

a)

in vivo measures

b)

in vitro measures

90.

cause-probing questions for which manipulation is not possible are typically addressed with

a)

correlational design

b)

retrospective design

c)

prospective design

91.

data are collected with a formal instrument

a)

quantitative structured self-reports

b)

qualitative structured self-reports

92.

the generalizability of the observed relationships across samples, settings, or time

a)

statistical conclusion valididty

b)

internal validity

c)

external validity

d)

construct validity

93.

quantitative structured self-reports

a)

interview schedule (face-to-face or telephone)

b)

questionnaire (written form)

94.

allows persons to respond in their own words in a narrative fashion

a)

open-ended questions

b)

closed-ended questions

95.

an association between variables and can be detected through statistical analysis

a)

correlation

b)

coefficient

c)

convolution

96.

provide answers to choose from

a)

open-ended questions

b)

closed-ended questions

97.

when items are combined to obtain an overall score

a)

scale

b)

comparison

c)

total

98.

used to make fine quantitative discriminations among people with different attitudes, perceptions, and traits

a)

scales

b)

likert scales

c)

semantic differntial scales

99.

cause-probing questions (e.g. prognosis or harm/etiology questions) for which manipulation is not possible are typically addressed with a correlational design

a)

descriptive correlational design

b)

retrospective design

c)

prospective design

100.

summated rating scales; respondents indicate their view on a topic

a)

scales

b)

likert scales

c)

semantic differential scales

101.

consists of several declarative statements; responses are on an agree/disagree continuum

a)

likert scales

b)

semantic differential scales

102.

assign numbers to represent the amount of an attribute of characteristic present in a person or object

a)

measurement

b)

observation

103.

obtained if no error in measurement; never known

a)

true score

b)

observed score

c)

error score

104.

measure obtained

a)

true score

b)

observed score

c)

error score

105.

amount of random error in the measurement process

a)

true score

b)

observed score

c)

error score

106.

causes a person's observed score to vary in no particular manner around their true score

a)

random error

b)

systematic error

107.

rate concepts using bipolar adjectives

a)

scales

b)

likert scales

c)

semantic differential scales

108.

random error does not influence direction of the mean but increased the amount of unexplained variance

a)

true

b)

false

109.

not random in nature and occurs due to measurement of something else in addition to concept

a)

random error

b)

systematic error

110.

uses a continuum of bipolar adjectives (good/bad, strong/weak), and respondents are asked to rate a given concept, situation, or experience on a scale between each set of adjectives

a)

likert scales

b)

semantic differential scales

111.

scale not properly calibrated therefore subject's weights were lower or higher than true weight

a)

systematic error

b)

random error

112.

systematic error can affect the mean score

a)

true

b)

false

113.

on a descriptive continuum, typically bipolar

a)

rating scales

b)

visual analogue scale

c)

semantic differential scales

114.

effects of the environmental factors on scores; temperature, lighting, time of day

a)

situational contaminants

b)

response-set biases

c)

transitory personal factors

115.

includes characteristics of the subjects that interfere with accurate measurement; socially desirable responses, extreme responses, education

a)

situational contaminants

b)

response-set biases

c)

transitory personal factors

116.

give answers consistent with prevailing views in society

a)

social desirability response set bias

b)

extreme response set bias

c)

acquiescence response set bias

117.

factors with the subjects which can affect measurement; fatigue, hunger, anxiety, mood

a)

transitory personal factors

b)

administration variations

c)

response-set biases

118.

refers to whether the instrument looks as though it is an appropriate measure of the construct; based on judgement

a)

face validity

b)

content validity

c)

construct validity

d)

criterion-related validity

119.

determines that the scale adequately examines the domain of the concept, all items are relevant, and all aspects are included

a)

face validity

b)

content validity

c)

construct validity

d)

criterion-related validity

120.

indicator of the degree of instrument's validity based upon the average of ratings by the expert panel

a)

content validity index

b)

construct validity

c)

coefficient alpha

121.

consistent expression using extreme responses (e.g. strongly agree)

a)

social desirability response set bias

b)

extreme response set bias

c)

acquiescence response set bias

122.

broad term which encompasses other types of validity and determines if the instrument measures the construct it says it measures

a)

construct validity

b)

face validity

c)

content validity

d)

criterion-related validity

123.

statistical method for testing construct validity; closely related items cluster together into factors

a)

factor analysis

b)

content validity index

124.

calculated by analyzing the relationship between scores on the instrument and the criterion; desirable is 0.70 or higher

a)

validity coefficient

b)

predictive validity

c)

concurrent validity

125.

occur when variations in intervention administration or procedure for collecting data from one subject to another affect measurement; arm not in same position for BP, change in test questions by interviewer

a)

administration variations

b)

transitory personal factors

c)

instrument clarity

126.

the instrument's ability to distinguish people whose performance differs on a future criterion

a)

validity coefficient

b)

predictive validity

c)

concurrent validity

127.

the instrument's ability to distinguish individuals who differ on a present criterion

a)

validity coefficient

b)

predictive validity

c)

concurrent validity

128.

the difference between predictive validity and concurrent validity is

a)

timing of the measurement

b)

number of the measurement

c)

date of the measurement

129.

measure subjective experiences such as pain, nausea, vomiting, grief, and anxiety

a)

likert scales

b)

semantic differential scales

c)

visual analogue scales

130.

differentiate between score on GRE and grades in graduate school

a)

example of predictive validity

b)

example of concurrent validity

131.

score on the Beck Depression Inventory and nurses ratings of severity of the patients symptoms of depression

a)

example of predictive validity

b)

example of concurrent validity

132.

occurs if instruments used for measuring are vague or poorly understood; different interpretations by various respondents due to questions not being clear

a)

transitory personal factors

b)

instrument clarity

c)

item sampling

133.

the instrument's ability to correctly identify a "case" - i.e. to diagnose a condition

a)

sensitivity

b)

specificity

134.

result of poor sampling of items that are used to measure an attribute in instrument; score may vary as to what items are included on the test

a)

instrument clarity

b)

item sampling

c)

administration variations

135.

involves a plan for choosing a group of people, events, behaviors or other elements for conducting a study

a)

sampling designs

b)

method designs

c)

nonexperimental designs

136.

the instrument's ability to correctly identify noncases, that is, to screen out those without the condition

a)

sensitivity

b)

specificity

137.

the process of making the selection

a)

sampling

b)

the sample

138.

the true score is the score that would be obtained with an infallible measure

a)

true

b)

false

139.

the selected group or elements chosen to represent to the entire population

a)

sampling

b)

the sample

140.

complete set of persons, events, objects, that possess the characteristics the researcher is interested in studying

a)

population

b)

sample

141.

all insulin dependent diabetics

a)

target population

b)

accessible population

c)

strata

142.

the portion of the target population that is accessible to the researcher, from which a sample is drawn

a)

target population

b)

accessible population

c)

strata

143.

composed of entire group of people or objects in which researcher is interested

a)

target population

b)

accessible population

c)

strata

144.

indicates how consistently and accurately the research instrument (such as scale) measures the variable of interest over time; ex. thermometer

a)

reliability

b)

validity

145.

exists in degrees and is expressed in the form of a coefficient ranging from 1.00 to 0.00

a)

reliability

b)

validity

146.

always in agreement with the statement regardless of content; nay-sayers always disagreement

a)

social desirability response set bias

b)

extreme response set bias

c)

acquiescence response set bias

147.

1.00

a)

perfect reliability

b)

no reliability

148.

refers to the consistency of a tool over time; similar scores each time it is used

a)

reliability

b)

validity

149.

0.00

a)

perfect reliability

b)

no reliability

150.

a reliability coefficient less than 0.80 for a well developed instrument is

a)

good

b)

concerning

151.

a reliability coefficient of 0.80 - 0.95 is preferred

a)

true

b)

false

152.

evaluates stability over time; the same instrument is given to the same subjects at two points in time

a)

stability

b)

internal consistency

c)

equivalence

153.

stability reliability is not recommended for testing attributes that might

a)

stay the same

b)

change over time

154.

an outcome in the present (e.g. depression) is linked to a hypothesized cause occurring in the past (e.g. having had a miscarriage)

a)

retrospective design

b)

prospective design

c)

nonexperimental design

155.

as one variable increases, the other variable increases (ex. increase in salt, increase in BP)

a)

positive relationship

b)

negative (inverse) relationship

156.

refers to whether the questionnaire is measuring what it says it is measuring

a)

reliability

b)

validity

157.

increase in one variable and decrease in other (ex. increase in height, decrease in BMI)

a)

positive relationship

b)

negative (inverse) relationship

158.

tests whether the instrument items measure the same attribute; requires only one test administration

a)

internal consistency

b)

equivalence

c)

stability

159.

all behaviors of a specific type recorded, and each behavior is assigned to one mutually exclusive category

a)

exhaustive system

b)

nonexhaustive system

160.

requires only one test administration

a)

internal consistency

b)

stability

c)

equivalency

161.

assessed by coefficient alpha (Cronbach's alpha)

a)

internal consistency

b)

stability

c)

equivalency

162.

specific behaviors, but not all behaviors, recorded

a)

exhaustive system

b)

nonexhaustive system

163.

0.00 to +1.00

a)

coefficient alpha values

b)

reliability coefficient

164.

"cases" (e.g. those with lung cancer) are compared to "controls" (e.g. those without lung cancer) on prior potential causes (e.g. smoking habits)

a)

case-control design (retrospective)

b)

case-control design (prospective)

165.

used to test agreement between/among different observers or interviewers

a)

internal consistency

b)

equivalence

c)

stability

166.

when determining the reliability of a measurement tool, which value would indicate that the tool is most reliable

a)

0.50

b)

0.70

c)

0.90

d)

1.10

167.

reliability is lower in _____ than in _____ samples

a)

homogeneous than in heterogenous

b)

heterogeneous than in homogeneous

168.

formal systems for systematically recording the incidence or frequency of prespecified behaviors or events

a)

category systems

b)

idk what to put

169.

reliability is lower in ____ than in ____ multi-item scales

a)

shorter than in longer

b)

longer than in shorter

170.

the determination of the extent to which an instrument measures what it says it measures

a)

reliability

b)

validity

171.

a potential cause in the present (e.g. experiencing vs. not experiencing a miscarriage) is linked to a hypothesized later outcome (e.g. depression 6 months later)

a)

prospective correlational design

b)

retrospective correlational design

c)

experimental design

172.

validity is never proven, only supported

a)

true

b)

false

173.

determine subjects behavior under different circumstances

a)

quantitative observational methods

b)

qualitative observational methods

174.

stronger than retrospective in supporting causal inferences

a)

prospective designs

b)

nonexperimental designs

c)

retrospective designs

175.

sampling of time intervals for observation

a)

time sampling

b)

event sampling

176.

neither prospective or retrospective designs are stronger than experimental designs

a)

true

b)

false

177.

observation of integral events

a)

time sampling

b)

event sampling

178.

observational methods for capturing many clinical phenomena and behaviors

a)

true

b)

false

179.

factors that can interfere with objective observation; emotions, anticipation, personal views

a)

reactivity

b)

observational biases

180.

looks to the past

a)

retrospective

b)

prospective

181.

potential problem of this when people are aware that they are being observed

a)

reactivity

b)

observational biases

182.

looks to the future

a)

retrospective

b)

prospective

183.

same information in the same manner from all subjects

a)

structure

b)

quantifiable

c)

objectivity

184.

does not yield persuasive evidence for casual inferences

a)

disadvantage of nonexperimental research

b)

advantage of nonexperimental research

c)

disadvantage of experimental research

185.

can be collected in a way to allow statistical analysis

a)

structure

b)

quantifiable

c)

objectivity

186.

strive to be objective not subjective

a)

structure

b)

quantifiable

c)

objectivity

187.

efficient way to collect large amounts of data when intervention and/or randomization is not possible

a)

disadvantage of nonexperimental research

b)

advantage of experimental research

c)

advantage of nonexperimental research

188.

groups are formed through self selection therefore cannot assume the groups are equal or similar prior to the occurrence of the independent variable

a)

selection bias (nonexperimental designs)

b)

selection bias (experimental designs)

189.

data are collected at a single point in time

a)

cross-sectional desing

b)

longitudinal design

c)

attrition

190.

data are collected two or more times over an extended period

a)

cross-sectional design

b)

longitudinal design

c)

attrition

191.

better at showing patterns of change and at clarifying whether a cause occurred before an effect (outcome)

a)

longitudinal designs

b)

latitudinal designs

192.

challenge in longitudinal studies is _____ or the loss of participants over time

a)

attrition

b)

longitudinal design

c)

cross-sectional design

193.

better at showing patterns of change and at clarifying whether a cause occurred before an effect (outcome) but are expensive, time-consuming, and have risk of attrition

a)

longitudinal designs

b)

prospective designs

c)

retrospective designs

194.

plan for obtaining answers to research questions and/or for testing hypotheses

a)

research design

b)

hypothesis design

195.

research design determines the amount of control the researcher exerts on the research situation

a)

true

b)

false

196.

same people compared at different times or under different conditions

a)

within-subjects design

b)

between-subjects design

197.

different people are compared (e.g. men and women)

a)

within-subjects design

b)

between-subjects design

198.

when will information on independent and dependent variables be collected

a)

relative timing

b)

location timing

c)

multiple studies

199.

retrospective

a)

case-control

b)

cohort

200.

prospective

a)

case-control

b)

cohort

201.

one way to control over confounding variables is to randomly assign subjects to either experimental or control group

a)

true

b)

false

202.

most _____ research questions are about causes and effects

a)

quantitative

b)

qualitative

203.

research questions that seek to illuminate causal relationships need to be addressed with appropriate designs

a)

causality

b)

probability

204.

what would have happened to the same people exposed to a "cause" if they simultaneously were not exposed to the cause

a)

counterfactual

b)

effect

205.

represents the difference between what actually did happen when exposed to the cause and what would happen with the counterfactual condition

a)

counterfactual

b)

effect

206.

the cause must precede the effect in time

a)

temporal

b)

relationship

c)

confounder

207.

there must be a demonstrated association between the cause and the effect

a)

temporal

b)

relationship

c)

confounder

208.

the relationship between the presumed cause and effect cannot be explained by a third variable or confounder; another factor related to both the presumed cause and effect cannot be the "real" cause

a)

temporal

b)

relationship

c)

confounder

209.

the causal relationship should be consistent with evidence from basic physiologic studies

a)

biologic plausibility

b)

intervention

210.

offer the strongest evidence of whether a cause (an intervention) results in an effect (a desired outcome)

a)

experimental designs

b)

nonexperimental designs

211.

true and quasi

a)

experimental

b)

non-experimental

212.

descriptive and correlational

a)

experimental

b)

non-experimental

213.

the researcher does something to some subjects - introduces an intervention (or treatment)

a)

intervention

b)

control

214.

the researcher introduces controls, including the use of a control group counterfactual

a)

intervention

b)

control

215.

the experimenter assigns participants to a control or experimental condition on a random basis

a)

randomization

b)

intervention

c)

control

216.

a true experimental design must have

a)

manipulation of a treatment/intervention

b)

control

c)

random assignment (randomization)

217.

which of the following would be a key criterion for causality

a)

cause occurring before the effect

b)

third variable involved with cause and effect

c)

no empirical relationship between cause and effect

d)

single-source evidence about the relationship

218.

true experimental designs

a)

pretest-posttest

b)

posttest

c)

factorial designs

d)

crossover designs

219.

allow for simultaneous manipulation of 2 or more variables at one time

a)

factorial designs

b)

retrospective designs

c)

prospective designs

220.

researchers can examine the effect of combining the interventions with factorial designs

a)

true

b)

false

221.

subjects are given more than one treatment sequentially rather than concurrently

a)

factorial design

b)

crossover design

c)

prospective design

222.

subjects are exposed to 2+ conditions in random order

a)

crossover design

b)

factorial design

c)

prospective design

223.

the effects of the treatment on the same subject are compared in crossover

a)

true

b)

false

224.

whether the treatment as planned was actually delivered and received

a)

intervention fidelity

b)

placebo

225.

control group gets no treatment at all

a)

no intervention is used

b)

usual care

c)

placebo

226.

standard or normal procedures used to treat patients

a)

no intervention is used

b)

usual care

c)

placebo

d)

alternative intervention

227.

example - auditory vs. visual stimulation

a)

no intervention is used

b)

usual care

c)

alternative intervention

d)

placebo

228.

presumed to have no therapeutic value, but is used

a)

no intervention is used

b)

usual care

c)

alternative intervention

d)

placebo

229.

extra attention, but not the active ingredient of the intervention

a)

attention control

b)

delayed treatment ("wait-listed controls")

c)

alternative intervention

230.

the intervention is given at a later date

a)

attention control

b)

delayed treatment ("wait-listed controls")

c)

no intervention is used

231.

most powerful method for testing cause and effect because researcher controls research situation

a)

true experimental designs

b)

quasi experimental designs

232.

there is a high confidence in effectiveness of intervention with ____ experimental

a)

true

b)

quasi

233.

the knowledge if being in a study may cause people to change their behavior

a)

hawthorne effect of true experimental

b)

hawthorne effect of quasi experimental

234.

a true experiment requires that the researcher manipulate the independent variable by administering an experimental treatment (or intervention) to some subjects while withholding it from others

a)

true

b)

false

235.

those getting the intervention are compared with a nonrandomized comparison group

a)

nonequivalent control group designs (quasi)

b)

within-subjects designs = one group design (quasi)

236.

involve an intervention but lack either random assignment or control group

a)

quasi experimental design

b)

true experimental design

237.

one group is studied before and after the intervention and one group is studied after the intervention

a)

nonequivalent control group designs (quasi)

b)

within-subjects designs = one group design (quasi)

c)

time series (quasi)

238.

one group studied over a period of time

a)

nonequivalent control group designs (quasi)

b)

within-subjects designs = one group design (quasi)

c)

time series (quasi)

239.

involves 2 or more groups of subjects observed before and after the intervention

a)

nonequivalent control group pretest-posttest

b)

within subject designs

240.

nonequivalent control group posttest only design is much weaker

a)

true

b)

false

241.

two or more groups of subjects observed after the intervention

a)

nonequivalent control group posttest only

b)

nonequivalent control group pretest-posttest

242.

collect data over a period of time and introduce the IV or treatment during the data collection

a)

one group pretest-posttest design (within subject design)

b)

nonequivalent control group posttest only design

243.

one group of subjects observed before and after the intervention

a)

one group pretest-posttest design

b)

nonequivalent control group pretest-posttest

244.

typically yield extremely weak evidence of a causal relationship; lacks ways to control external factors that may result in differences

a)

one-group pretest-posttest design

b)

true experimental

c)

factorial design

d)

one-group posttest only design

245.

introduce the IV or treatment, then collect the data; one group of subjects observed after the intervention

a)

one group posttest-only design

b)

one group pretest-posttest design

246.

involves one group of subjects observed over multiple times both before and after the intervention

a)

time series (within subjects)

b)

one group pretest-posttest

c)

one group posttest only

247.

do time series have a comparison group

a)

no

b)

yes

248.

to be classified as an experimental design (true or quasi) there MUST be

a)

an intervention

b)

no intervention

249.

the design is automatically nonexperimental if there is

a)

no intervention

b)

an intervention

250.

those that are a result of research situation

a)

external factors (confounding variables)

b)

internal factors (confounding variables)

251.

type of setting, time of day the data was collected, how the data is collected, etc

a)

external factors (confounding variables)

b)

internal factors (confounding variables)