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SALD Assessment of Developing Language Ch 8, 10, 11

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the first step in computing the Mean Length of Utterance (MLU) from a sample of spontaneous speech?

a)

Segment the child's speech sample into utterances.

b)

Transcribe the sample, putting each utterance on a new line.

c)

Count the number of morphemes in each utterance.

d)

Identify the first 50 consecutive fully intelligible utterances.

2.

According to the rules for computing MLU, how should you transcribe the sample?

a)

Put each utterance on a new line.

b)

Write all utterances in a single paragraph.

c)

Group utterances by speaker.

d)

Only transcribe intelligible utterances.

3.

Which of the following is counted as one morpheme when calculating MLU?

a)

Each free morpheme and each bound morpheme in inflection (such as plural -s, possessive -'s, past-tense -ed, etc.)

b)

Each syllable in a word

c)

Each letter in a word

d)

Each sentence in the sample

4.

If a word is repeated for emphasis during stuttering or false starts, how should it be counted according to the MLU rules?

a)

Count each occurrence of the word.

b)

Count the word only once.

c)

Do not count the word at all.

d)

Count the word twice.

5.

How are compound words (like "birthday"), proper names (like "Mickey Mouse"), and reduplications (like "night-night") counted in MLU analysis?

a)

As one morpheme each

b)

As two morphemes each

c)

As three morphemes each

d)

Not counted at all

6.

When counting morphemes for MLU, how should irregular past-tense forms (such as "went," "saw," "came") be treated?

a)

Count as one morpheme each

b)

Count as two morphemes each

c)

Count as three morphemes each

d)

Do not count them

7.

What should you do after counting the total number of morphemes in the first 50 consecutive fully intelligible utterances?

a)

Divide by the total number of utterances to get the mean length of utterance (MLU).

b)

Multiply by the number of utterances.

c)

Add 10 to the total.

d)

Subtract the number of unintelligible utterances.

8.

A child says, "He’s running." According to the MLU rules, how many morphemes does "He’s" count as?

a)

Two morphemes

b)

One morpheme

c)

Three morphemes

d)

Zero morphemes

9.

Why is it important to eliminate utterances that are unintelligible or partially unintelligible when computing MLU?

a)

To ensure accuracy in the measurement of language production

b)

To make the process faster

c)

To include more data

d)

To focus on written language only

10.

If a child overgeneralizes a past-tense form, such as "comed" instead of "came," how should it be counted in MLU analysis?

a)

Count as two morphemes

b)

Count as one morpheme

c)

Do not count it

d)

Count as three morphemes

11.

What is the normal range of mean length of utterance (in morphemes) for a 24-month-old child?

a)

1.5–2.2

b)

1.0–1.6

c)

2.7–4.2

d)

3.2–4.3

12.

According to the table, how many different words does a 36-month-old child typically use in 50 utterances?

a)

66

b)

41

c)

56

d)

86

13.

Which age group has a normal mean length of utterance range of 3.2–5.0 morphemes?

a)

45 months old

b)

27 months old

c)

18 months old

d)

60 months old

14.

A child is 39 months old and produces 71 different words in 50 utterances. Is this within the typical range for their age, and what does this suggest about their language development?

a)

Yes, it is typical and suggests age-appropriate language development.

b)

No, it is below the typical range and suggests delayed language development.

c)

No, it is above the typical range and suggests advanced language development.

d)

Yes, but it suggests a need for further assessment.

15.

If a 60-month-old child has a mean length of utterance of 4.5, does this fall within the normal range for their age?

a)

Yes, it is within the normal range.

b)

No, it is below the normal range.

c)

No, it is above the normal range.

d)

No, it is not possible to determine.

16.

What trend is observed in the average number of different words used in 50 utterances as children age from 18 to 48 months?

a)

The number increases steadily with age.

b)

The number decreases with age.

c)

The number remains the same.

d)

The number fluctuates randomly.

17.

Which symbol in the key indicates a questionable transcription?

a)

( )

b)

[ ]

c)

//

d)

XXX

18.

According to the key, what does "C" stand for in the transcript?

a)

Child

b)

Context

c)

Conversation

d)

Correct

19.

What is the nonlinguistic context for the utterance "I think it’s an audio recorder."?

a)

[point to tape recorder]

b)

[touching buttons]

c)

[jumps up and down]

d)

[looks at car]

20.

Which utterance has the highest morpheme count in the table?

a)

C16: "Yeah, Donny always drive his car too fast."

b)

C7: "Grammy’s don’t have buttons on."

c)

C20: "He hitted a wall!"

d)

C12: "Got it!"

21.

If a transcript contains "XXX", what does it mean?

a)

The speech is unintelligible.

b)

The speaker is a child.

c)

There is a pause.

d)

It is a phonetic transcription.

22.

How would you interpret the use of brackets [ ] in the transcript?

a)

They provide gloss or contextual notes.

b)

They indicate a pause.

c)

They show questionable transcription.

d)

They mark phonetic transcription.

23.

Why might a researcher use morpheme count in analyzing child language development?

a)

To measure the complexity of the child's utterances.

b)

To identify the speaker.

c)

To indicate nonlinguistic context.

d)

To mark unintelligible speech.

24.

Based on the transcript, what might be inferred about the interaction between the child and adult?

a)

The adult is guiding the child through an activity and providing explanations.

b)

The child is teaching the adult about the tape recorder.

c)

The adult is uninterested in the child's questions.

d)

The conversation is about a storybook.

25.

Which of the following is an example of a regular plural noun inflectional morpheme?

a)

mugs

b)

sheep

c)

the man's

d)

faster

26.

What grammatical function does the possessive morpheme serve in nouns?

a)

Marks for ownership

b)

Marks as more than one

c)

Marks for comparison

d)

Marks past action

27.

Which verb form is marked by the present participle inflectional morpheme?

a)

eating

b)

proven

c)

faster

d)

the boy's

28.

Which of the following is an example of a superlative adjective inflectional morpheme?

a)

fastest

b)

faster

c)

eaten

d)

spas

29.

Which morpheme marks the past tense in regular verbs?

a)

-ed

b)

-ing

c)

-er

d)

-est

30.

What is the grammatical function of the comparative morpheme in adjectives?

a)

Marks for comparison

b)

Marks as more than one

c)

Marks for ownership

d)

Marks past action

31.

Given the word "shrunk," which type of inflectional morpheme is used?

a)

Irregular past tense

b)

Regular plural

c)

Comparative

d)

Possessive

32.

If a verb is in the form "being," which inflectional morpheme is present?

a)

Present participle

b)

Past participle

c)

Comparative

d)

Superlative

33.

Analyze the word "quicker." Which inflectional morpheme does it contain, and what is its grammatical function?

a)

Comparative; marks for comparison

b)

Superlative; marks as superlative

c)

Possessive; marks for ownership

d)

Plural; marks as more than one

34.

Which of the following best describes the function of the 3rd person singular present morpheme in verbs?

a)

Marks to agree with singular third person

b)

Marks for ownership

c)

Marks as more than one

d)

Marks for comparison

35.

What does the Type Token Ratio (TTR) measure?

a)

Functional vocabulary skills

b)

Reading comprehension

c)

Mathematical ability

d)

Physical coordination

36.

According to Templin (1957), what is the typical TTR range for children ages 3 through 8?

a)

0.45 - 0.50

b)

0.10 - 0.20

c)

0.70 - 0.80

d)

0.90 - 1.00

37.

Why might a substandard TTR be a concern in language assessment?

a)

It may indicate an expressive language disorder or delay

b)

It shows high mathematical skills

c)

It suggests advanced reading comprehension

d)

It reflects strong physical coordination

38.

How does the TTR reflect the diversity of words used by a client in a language sample?

a)

By measuring the variety of vocabulary used

b)

By counting the number of sentences

c)

By evaluating pronunciation accuracy

d)

By assessing reading speed

39.

If a child has a TTR significantly below 0.45, what might this suggest about their language development?

a)

They may have an expressive language disorder or delay

b)

They have advanced vocabulary skills

c)

They are above average in reading comprehension

d)

They have no language concerns

40.

What does TTR stand for in the context of language sample analysis?

a)

Type-Token Ratio

b)

Total Transcribed Ratio

c)

Token Type Record

d)

Transcription Total Rate

41.

Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate TTR?

a)

Number of different words divided by total number of words

b)

Total number of words divided by number of different words

c)

Number of sentences divided by total number of words

d)

Number of different words multiplied by total number of words

42.

If a child produces 75 different words in a sample of 750 total words, what is the TTR?

a)

0.10

b)

0.75

c)

0.50

d)

0.95

43.

Which of the following is NOT a step in calculating TTR?

a)

Count the number of sentences

b)

Collect a language sample

c)

Transcribe the sample

d)

Count the total number of words

44.

A child produces 95 different words in a sample of 100 total words. What does this indicate about the child's TTR and language use?

a)

The child has a high TTR, indicating a diverse vocabulary.

b)

The child has a low TTR, indicating limited vocabulary.

c)

The child’s TTR cannot be determined from this information.

d)

The child’s TTR is average for their age.

45.

Why is it important to count the number of different words produced by a child when calculating TTR?

a)

It measures the diversity of the child's vocabulary.

b)

It determines the length of the language sample.

c)

It helps to identify grammatical errors.

d)

It shows the speed of the child's speech.

46.

What is the first step in calculating TTR according to the instructions?

a)

Collect a language sample

b)

Transcribe the sample

c)

Count the total number of words

d)

Divide the number of different words by the total number of words

47.

Which of the following best describes what is meant by "unique words (types)" in the context of the provided text?

a)

Words that appear only once in the text

b)

Words that are spelled differently

c)

Words that are counted only once, even if they appear multiple times

d)

Words that are adjectives

48.

How many total words are there in the child's text about the pirate?

a)

13

b)

26

c)

50

d)

10

49.

What is the total number of unique words (types) in the child's text?

a)

26

b)

13

c)

10

d)

50

50.

If the word "pirates" appears in the text, how is it counted in the unique words (types) list?

a)

It is counted as a different word from "pirate"

b)

It is not counted at all

c)

It is counted as the same word as "pirate"

d)

It is counted twice

51.

Given a text with 26 total words and 13 unique words, what is the Type-Token Ratio (TTR)?

a)

0.13

b)

0.26

c)

0.50

d)

2.00

52.

Why might the Type-Token Ratio (TTR) be a useful measure in analyzing a piece of writing?

a)

It shows the number of sentences in the text

b)

It measures the grammatical accuracy of the text

c)

It indicates the diversity of vocabulary used in the text

d)

It counts the number of paragraphs in the text

53.

If another text had 40 total words and 20 unique words, how would its TTR compare to the example in the image?

a)

It would be higher

b)

It would be lower

c)

It would be the same

d)

It cannot be determined

54.

According to the material, how are the words "pirate" and "pirates" counted in terms of type?

a)

2 types

b)

1 type

c)

3 types

d)

0 types

55.

If you encounter the words "run" and "running" in a text, how should they be counted according to the example provided?

a)

As 2 different types

b)

As 1 type

c)

As 3 types

d)

As 0 types

56.

Based on the examples given, what is the main criterion for counting words as the same type?

a)

If they have the same root or base form

b)

If they have different spellings

c)

If they are used in different sentences

d)

If they have opposite meanings

57.

What is the main purpose of using T-unit segmentation in language analysis for the L4L phase?

a)

To provide a more realistic picture of syntactic units

b)

To make sentences longer and more complex

c)

To focus only on vocabulary development

d)

To ignore co-referential subjects in clauses

58.

Which of the following is an example of a T-unit from the transcription provided?

a)

(and) he’s always taking my stuff.

b)

Yeah, my little brother, he’s a real pain in the neck and he’s always taking my stuff.

c)

He never asks first and then he goes and loses it.

d)

My mom yells at me when I slug him and sometimes he’s not so bad.

59.

According to the passage, what is deleted from the second and third clauses in T4?

a)

Co-referential subjects

b)

Conjunctions

c)

Verbs

d)

Objects

60.

Why might T-unit segmentation be preferred over methods used for children in the developing language period?

a)

It gives a more accurate representation of syntactic units in older children.

b)

It is easier to teach to young children.

c)

It focuses only on vocabulary.

d)

It ignores sentence structure.

61.

If you were to segment the sentence "Yeah, my little brother, he’s a real pain in the neck and he’s always taking my stuff and he never asks first" into T-units, how many T-units would you create based on the example?

a)

Three

b)

One

c)

Two

d)

Four

62.

Which of the following best describes the difference between social and nonsocial utterances?

a)

Social utterances are directed to the listener, while nonsocial utterances are directed to oneself.

b)

Social utterances are always questions, while nonsocial utterances are always statements.

c)

Social utterances are written, while nonsocial utterances are spoken.

d)

Social utterances are about emotions, while nonsocial utterances are about facts.

63.

What does "topic initiation" refer to in the context of pragmatics?

a)

The ability to end a conversation politely.

b)

The proportion of new topics introduced by the child versus the adult.

c)

The use of complex vocabulary in conversation.

d)

The ability to remember previous conversations.

64.

Which of the following is an example of discourse management in conversation?

a)

Repairing misunderstandings and managing interruptions.

b)

Introducing new vocabulary words.

c)

Speaking in a louder voice.

d)

Changing the topic frequently.

65.

Why is it important for a student to modify their communication style for different interactive situations?

a)

To ensure effective communication with different listeners and contexts.

b)

To use more complex grammar.

c)

To memorize more vocabulary words.

d)

To avoid making any mistakes in speech.

66.

A teacher observes that a student can take turns on a topic during a conversation. Which pragmatic skill is being demonstrated?

a)

Topic appropriateness

b)

Turns on topic

c)

Presuppositions

d)

Topic shaping

67.

If a child is able to use a broad range of communicative functions, what does this indicate about their pragmatic skills?

a)

They can use language for various purposes such as requesting, informing, and greeting.

b)

They only use language to ask questions.

c)

They prefer to communicate nonverbally.

d)

They avoid initiating topics in conversation.

68.

How might a teacher assess a student's ability to manage presuppositions in conversation?

a)

By evaluating if the student provides enough background information for the listener.

b)

By counting the number of words the student uses.

c)

By checking if the student uses correct grammar.

d)

By observing if the student speaks loudly.

69.

What does the Functional Communication Profile (FCP) provide?

a)

Checklists for evaluation of communication skills

b)

A list of vocabulary words

c)

A guide for writing essays

d)

A set of math problems

70.

According to the Communication Function Classification System, what is characteristic of Level I?

a)

Sends and receives with familiar and unfamiliar partners effectively and efficiently

b)

Inconsistently sends and/or receives even with familiar partners

c)

Seldom effectively sends and receives, even with familiar partners

d)

Sends and receives with familiar partners effectively but not with unfamiliar partners

71.

Which level in the Communication Function Classification System describes someone who may need extra time to send and receive with familiar and unfamiliar partners?

a)

Level II

b)

Level I

c)

Level IV

d)

Level V

72.

A student can send and receive messages effectively with familiar partners, but not with unfamiliar partners. Which level of the Communication Function Classification System does this describe?

a)

Level III

b)

Level I

c)

Level IV

d)

Level V

73.

If someone inconsistently sends and/or receives even with familiar partners, which level of the Communication Function Classification System are they at?

a)

Level IV

b)

Level II

c)

Level I

d)

Level III

74.

Which of the following best describes Level V of the Communication Function Classification System?

a)

Seldom effectively sends and receives, even with familiar partners

b)

Sends and receives with familiar and unfamiliar partners effectively and efficiently

c)

Sends and receives with familiar partners effectively but not with unfamiliar partners

d)

Sends and receives with familiar and unfamiliar partners but may need extra time

75.

A therapist is using a tool to evaluate a student's communication skills across different settings. Which tool are they most likely using?

a)

Functional Communication Profile (FCP)

b)

Standardized Math Test

c)

Reading Comprehension Checklist

d)

Physical Fitness Assessment

76.

A student is able to communicate effectively with both familiar and unfamiliar partners, but only if given extra time. What level of the Communication Function Classification System does this represent, and what might this imply for their communication needs?

a)

Level II; they may need accommodations for processing time

b)

Level I; they have no communication needs

c)

Level IV; they need significant support even with familiar partners

d)

Level V; they are unable to communicate effectively

77.

Which tier in the "Delivering Services Within the Curriculum" model provides universal, school-wide instruction?

a)

Tier 1

b)

Tier 2

c)

Tier 3

d)

Tier 4

78.

What is the primary focus of Tier 2 in the curriculum service delivery model?

a)

Targeted and specific support for students who need help beyond Tier 1

b)

Universal, school-wide instruction

c)

Individually tailored support for students beyond Tier 2

d)

Core instruction for all students

79.

Which of the following best describes the services provided at Tier 3?

a)

Delivered with greater intensity than Tier 2 and individually tailored for students needing support beyond Tier 2

b)

Evidence-based instruction for all students

c)

Targeted support for students who need help beyond Tier 1

d)

Proactive and preventative instruction

80.

Compare the intensity and individualization of interventions between Tier 2 and Tier 3 in the curriculum service delivery model.

a)

Tier 3 interventions are more intense and individually tailored than Tier 2 interventions

b)

Tier 2 interventions are more intense and individually tailored than Tier 3 interventions

c)

Both tiers provide the same level of intensity and individualization

d)

Neither tier provides individualized interventions

81.

Why is evidence-based instruction emphasized in Tier 1 of the curriculum service delivery model?

a)

To ensure all students receive effective and proven teaching methods

b)

To provide individualized support for struggling students

c)

To deliver interventions with greater intensity than Tier 2

d)

To target only students who need help beyond Tier 1

82.

According to ASHA, what is the first question to consider when determining eligibility for special education services?

a)

Is there a disability?

b)

Is there a financial need?

c)

Is there a language barrier?

d)

Is there a behavioral issue?

83.

Which of the following best describes the second question ASHA advises us to ask when considering eligibility?

a)

Does the disability adversely affect educational performance?

b)

Does the student have a medical diagnosis?

c)

Does the student participate in extracurricular activities?

d)

Does the student have parental support?

84.

Why is it important to determine if special education services and specially designed instruction are needed, according to ASHA's guidelines?

a)

To ensure progress in the general education curriculum

b)

To increase school funding

c)

To reduce class sizes

d)

To improve teacher evaluations

85.

A student has a diagnosed disability, but it does not affect their educational performance. Based on ASHA's eligibility questions, what is the likely outcome regarding special education services?

a)

The student may not be eligible for special education services.

b)

The student will automatically receive special education services.

c)

The student will be placed in a gifted program.

d)

The student will be required to repeat a grade.

86.

Which of the following is NOT a method mentioned for identifying evidence of a language disorder?

a)

Standardized language test

b)

Analysis of a language sample

c)

Informal criterion-referenced assessment measures

d)

Physical fitness test

87.

According to the material, how many questions must be answered "yes" to suggest that a student likely presents with a language disorder?

a)

At least two

b)

At least three

c)

At least four

d)

All of them

88.

Which professional's judgment is specifically mentioned as supporting concern for a language disorder?

a)

School principal

b)

Speech-Language Pathologist (SLP)

c)

Classroom assistant

d)

School nurse

89.

If a teacher is concerned about a student's use of language for academic purposes, what might this indicate according to the checklist?

a)

The student is excelling academically

b)

The student may have a language disorder

c)

The student is ready for advanced classes

d)

The student needs more homework

90.

A parent expresses concern about their child's language and literacy achievement. According to the checklist, what should be considered next?

a)

Ignore the concern

b)

Consider it as one possible indicator of a language disorder

c)

Immediately diagnose a language disorder

d)

Refer the student to a math specialist

91.

Why is it important to consider multiple sources of evidence (such as teacher, parent, and SLP judgment) when identifying a language disorder?

a)

To ensure a comprehensive and accurate assessment

b)

To make the process longer

c)

To avoid involving the student

d)

To reduce paperwork

92.

According to the document, what is likely to be concluded if the answer to at least three of the listed questions about a student's language disorder is "yes"?

a)

The student’s language disorder results in an adverse effect on educational performance.

b)

The student’s language disorder has no impact on educational performance.

c)

The student’s language disorder only affects social situations.

d)

The student’s language disorder is not related to academic achievement.

93.

Which of the following is NOT one of the areas considered when determining if a student’s language disorder adversely affects educational performance?

a)

Participation in self-care and navigation of school environments

b)

Limited language comprehension or expression across school environments

c)

Participation in class

d)

Physical fitness and athletic ability

94.

A teacher is evaluating a student with a language disorder. The student has difficulty with reading, writing, and phonological awareness, and also struggles to participate in class and social situations. Based on the document, what should the teacher conclude?

a)

The student’s language disorder likely results in an adverse effect on educational performance.

b)

The student’s language disorder is unrelated to educational performance.

c)

The student’s language disorder only affects physical activities.

d)

The student’s language disorder is temporary and will resolve without intervention.

95.

When the ARD committee establishes Speech Impairment as an eligibility condition, which stage addresses the need for specially designed SLP services for student progress in the curriculum?

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

96.

What is the primary purpose of using the Language Evaluation Summary Form in the context of speech impairment eligibility?

a)

To assess the student's reading skills

b)

To document recommendations for specially designed SLP services

c)

To evaluate the teacher's performance

d)

To record attendance

97.

Suppose a student with a language disorder is not making progress in the curriculum. Based on the process described, what should the ARD committee consider?

a)

Assigning more homework

b)

Providing specially designed SLP services

c)

Changing the student's grade level

d)

Removing the student from the program

98.

What is the first stage in the recommendations to the ARD Committee for determining a language disorder?

a)

Presence of a Language Disorder

b)

Adverse Effect on Educational Performance

c)

Recommendation for SLP services

d)

Eligibility for special education

99.

According to the recommendations, what evidence is required at Stage II for determining the adverse effect on educational performance?

a)

Academic Achievement and Functional Performance

b)

Medical History and Family Background

c)

Attendance Records and Behavior Reports

d)

Physical Fitness and Sports Participation

100.

If both Stage I and Stage II are answered "Yes," what does this indicate in the ARD Committee recommendations?

a)

The Disability Determination for Language Disorder has been met

b)

The student is not eligible for any services

c)

The student must repeat the assessment

d)

The student is automatically placed in a gifted program