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Tranquilizers and Sedatives

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which drug class produces a calming and anxiolytic effect by blocking dopamine receptors but does not provide analgesia?

a)

Phenothiazines

b)

Benzodiazepines

c)

Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists

d)

Guaifenesin

2.

Phenothiazines used perioperatively include which example?

a)

Acepromazine (Promace)

b)

Diazepam (Valium)

c)

Atipamezole (Antisedan)

d)

Guaifenesin (Gecolate)

3.

Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists produce sedation primarily by which mechanism?

a)

Blocking dopamine receptors

b)

Inhibiting release of norepinephrine

c)

Enhancing GABA activity

d)

Blocking nerve impulses

4.

Which of the following is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist?

a)

Yohimbine (Yobine)

b)

Tolazoline (Toalzine)

c)

Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor)

d)

Midazolam (Versed)

5.

Which statement best describes the perioperative uses of tranquilizers and sedatives in veterinary anesthesia?

a)

They primarily provide analgesia and increase anesthetic dose requirements.

b)

They induce sedation, cause muscle relaxation, provide restraint, and reduce amounts of anesthetic agents needed.

c)

They stimulate the central nervous system to prevent respiratory depression.

d)

They are only used postoperatively to reverse anesthesia.

6.

Which alpha-2 adrenergic agonist is commonly used in large animals and known by the trade name Rompun?

a)

Medetomidine (Domitor)

b)

Xylazine

c)

Diazepam

d)

Zolazepam

7.

Identify the correct pairing between drug class and representative examples.

a)

Phenothiazines

1.

Acepromazine (Promace)

b)

Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists

2.

Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor), xylazine

c)

Benzodiazepines

3.

Diazepam (Valium), midazolam (Versed), zolazepam (Telazol, Tilzolam)

d)

Guaifenesin

4.

Guilazin, Gecolate

e)

Alpha-2 adrenergic antagonists

5.

Atipamezole (Antisedan), yohimbine (Yobine), tolazoline (Toalzine)

8.

Which drug class is specifically noted to reverse the effects of alpha-2 adrenergic agonists?

a)

Phenothiazines

b)

Benzodiazepines

c)

Alpha-2 adrenergic antagonists

d)

Guaifenesin

9.

Which of the following is an alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist?

a)

Romifidine (Sedivet)

b)

Atipamezole (Antisedan)

c)

Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor)

d)

Zolazepam (Telazol)

10.

Benzodiazepines primarily provide which effects in veterinary anesthesia?

a)

Analgesia and deep sedation

b)

Mild to moderate skeletal muscle relaxation and amnesia

c)

Cardiac stimulation and bronchodilation

d)

Reversal of alpha-2 agonists

11.

Which list contains only benzodiazepines?

a)

Diazepam, midazolam, zolazepam

b)

Acepromazine, dexmedetomidine, xylazine

c)

Atipamezole, yohimbine, tolazoline

d)

Guaifenesin, acepromazine, romifidine

12.

Guaifenesin is best described as which of the following?

a)

An alpha-2 agonist used for sedation only

b)

A sedative and skeletal muscle relaxant that blocks nerve impulses

c)

A dopamine antagonist that provides analgesia

d)

A benzodiazepine that causes amnesia

13.

What is a common clinical use of guaifenesin in anesthetic practice?

a)

Reversing benzodiazepine effects

b)

Facilitating endotracheal intubation and easing induction and recovery

c)

Providing potent analgesia for surgery

d)

Treating cardiac arrhythmias

14.

Which alpha-2 adrenergic agonist is paired with the correct trade name Sedivet?

a)

Romifidine

b)

Dexmedetomidine

c)

Medetomidine

d)

Xylazine

15.

Which statement correctly contrasts phenothiazines and benzodiazepines?

a)

Both primarily provide analgesia.

b)

Phenothiazines block dopamine receptors causing calming effects without analgesia; benzodiazepines provide muscle relaxation and amnesia.

c)

Phenothiazines are antagonists of alpha-2 receptors; benzodiazepines are agonists.

d)

Phenothiazines facilitate intubation; benzodiazepines reverse alpha-2 agonists.

16.

Which statement best describes the typical purpose of anesthetic induction agents in veterinary anesthesia?

a)

To provide long-term pain control during recovery

b)

To facilitate passing an endotracheal tube so inhalant anesthetics can maintain general anesthesia

c)

To replace inhalant anesthetics entirely for maintenance

d)

To reverse the effects of premedications

17.

Dissociative anesthetics typically cause which combination of effects?

a)

Hypnosis with profound respiratory depression

b)

Catalepsy, amnesia, and mild analgesia

c)

Muscle relaxation with bradycardia

d)

Seizure activity and hypertension

18.

Which physiologic change is most characteristic of dissociative anesthetics?

a)

Decreased heart rate and blood pressure with marked respiratory depression

b)

Increased heart rate and blood pressure with minimal respiratory depression

c)

No cardiovascular effects with severe respiratory depression

d)

Profound hypotension and cyanosis

19.

Which agent is classified as a dissociative anesthetic?

a)

Thiopental (Pentothal)

b)

Etomidate (Amidate)

c)

Ketamine (e.g., Ketaset, VetaKet, Vetalar)

d)

Propofol (e.g., Rapinovet, PropoFlo)

20.

Tiletamine is a component of which combination products mentioned for dissociative anesthesia?

a)

Alfaxan Multidose IDX

b)

Telazol and Tilzolam

c)

Rapinovet and PropoFlo

d)

Pentothal

21.

Propofol is best described as which of the following?

a)

A long-acting oral hypnotic that antagonizes GABA

b)

A short-acting IV hypnotic sedative that binds to and stimulates inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA

c)

A neuroactive steroid with minimal cardiovascular effects

d)

A CNS stimulant used to reverse anesthesia

22.

Which adverse effect profile is associated with propofol?

a)

Minimal cardiovascular effects and mild respiratory depression

b)

Short-lived but profound adverse cardiovascular effects and significant respiratory depression and cyanosis

c)

No respiratory depression and increased blood pressure

d)

Severe long-lasting hypotension with no change in respiration

23.

Match each anesthetic induction agent with its key characteristic.

a)

Etomidate (Amidate)

1.

Short-acting injectable that modulates action of GABA; minimal cardiovascular effects

b)

Alfaxalone (Alfaxan variants)

2.

Neuroactive steroid producing hypnosis and muscle relaxation via GABA modulation; minimal cardiopulmonary effects

c)

Barbiturates (e.g., thiopental)

3.

CNS depressants used as anticonvulsants, anesthetics, and euthanasia solutions; can cause potent cardiovascular and respiratory depression

24.

Which statement accurately describes etomidate?

a)

A long-acting barbiturate with potent respiratory depression

b)

A short-acting injectable that modulates the action of GABA and produces minimal cardiovascular effects

c)

A dissociative anesthetic causing catalepsy and hypertension

d)

A neuroactive steroid used primarily for muscle relaxation with no GABA activity

25.

Alfaxalone is characterized by which mechanism and effect profile?

a)

Stimulates glutamate receptors; severe cardiopulmonary depression

b)

Modulates GABA as a neuroactive steroid; produces hypnosis and muscle relaxation with minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects

c)

Blocks acetylcholine; causes bradycardia and bronchoconstriction

d)

Antagonizes GABA; increases blood pressure

26.

Which of the following is included among barbiturates used in anesthesia?

a)

Pentothal (thiopental)

b)

Telazol

c)

PropoFlo

d)

Amidate

27.

What is a notable risk when using barbiturates for anesthesia?

a)

Severe hypertension without respiratory effects

b)

Potent cardiovascular and respiratory depression

c)

No CNS depressant activity

d)

Guaranteed muscle relaxation with zero side effects

28.

Which induction agent class is most associated with catalepsy and amnesia?

a)

Barbiturates

b)

Propofol

c)

Dissociative anesthetics

d)

Etomidate

29.

Which product names are associated with propofol preparations listed in the material?

a)

Ketaset, VetaKet, Vetalar

b)

Alfaxan Multidose IDX, Alfaxan Multidose

c)

Rapinovet, PropoFlo, PropoFlo 28, Propovan

d)

Telazol, Tilzolam

30.

Which induction agent is most appropriate when minimal cardiovascular effects are desired?

a)

Propofol due to profound adverse cardiovascular effects

b)

Etomidate because it produces minimal cardiovascular effects

c)

Barbiturates because they have no cardiovascular impact

d)

Dissociatives due to strong hypotension

31.

Which statement best describes inhalant anesthetic agents in clinical use?

a)

They are solids at room temperature and provide strong analgesia

b)

They are usually liquids at room temperature and are used to induce and maintain general anesthesia

c)

They are gases at room temperature and primarily used for local anesthesia

d)

They are liquids at room temperature and provide long-lasting postoperative pain relief

32.

Inhalant anesthetics are also commonly referred to as which of the following?

a)

Intravenous anesthetics

b)

Volatile anesthetics or gas anesthetics

c)

Local analgesics

d)

Neuromuscular blockers

33.

Which is a correct statement about analgesia with inhalant anesthetics?

a)

They reliably provide analgesia

b)

They provide mild analgesia only in humans

c)

They do not provide analgesia

d)

Analgesia depends solely on MAC value

34.

Select the typical administration routes for inhalant anesthetic agents.

a)

Endotracheal tube (ETT)

1.

Common route for controlled ventilation

b)

Supraglottic airway device

2.

Alternative airway device placed above the glottis

c)

Fitted facemask

3.

Face-applied interface for spontaneous breathing

d)

Induction chamber

4.

Box used to induce anesthesia in small animals

35.

What occupational risk is associated with the use of inhalant anesthetics?

a)

Exposure to waste anesthetic gas (WAG)

b)

High risk of electrical burns

c)

Radiation exposure

d)

Latex allergy development

36.

Vapor pressure of an inhalant anesthetic is best defined as:

a)

The measure of oxygen concentration in the breathing circuit

b)

The measure of the tendency for molecules in the liquid state to enter the gaseous state

c)

The minimum concentration needed to produce analgesia

d)

The solubility of the gas in blood

37.

Why are drugs with high vapor pressure considered volatile?

a)

They have low MAC values

b)

They are highly soluble in blood

c)

They readily exist as a gas

d)

They cause strong analgesia

38.

Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is defined as the:

a)

Highest alveolar concentration preventing movement in 50% of patients

b)

Lowest alveolar concentration preventing movement in response to noxious stimuli in 50% of patients

c)

Average blood concentration causing unconsciousness

d)

Dose required to achieve analgesia in all patients

39.

MAC is primarily used to:

a)

Estimate gas solubility in blood

b)

Compare the relative potency of inhalant anesthetic agents

c)

Predict risk of WAG exposure

d)

Measure ventilatory compliance

40.

Gas solubility in blood for inhalant anesthetics is expressed as which parameter?

a)

Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)

b)

Blood-gas partition coefficient (BGPC)

c)

Oil-gas partition coefficient

d)

End-tidal CO2

41.

Match each inhalant anesthetic to one of its brand examples.

a)

Isoflurane

1.

IsoFlo, Isosol, Aerrane

b)

Sevoflurane

2.

SevoFlo, Petrem, Flurovess, Ultane

c)

Desflurane

3.

Suprane

42.

Which list correctly identifies the class characteristics of the named inhalant agents?

a)

Flammable, non-halogenated, intravenous agents

b)

Nonflammable, halogenated, inhalant anesthetic agents

c)

Local anesthetics used for nerve blocks

d)

Nonvolatile, water-soluble sedatives

43.

Which statement about sevoflurane is accurate based on the material?

a)

It is a flammable, non-halogenated gas

b)

It is listed as a nonflammable, halogenated inhalant anesthetic with brands such as SevoFlo and Ultane

c)

It provides analgesia through high BGPC

d)

It is administered only via IV routes

44.

Identify the parameter that compares anesthetic potency among inhalants and the parameter that expresses solubility in blood.

a)

Potency comparison parameter

1.

Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)

b)

Blood solubility parameter

2.

Blood-gas partition coefficient (BGPC)

c)

Clinical endpoint for MAC

3.

Prevention of movement to noxious stimuli in 50% of patients

45.

Which combination correctly pairs an anesthetic with one of its brand names?

a)

Isoflurane — Suprane

b)

Desflurane — Aerrane

c)

Sevoflurane — SevoFlo

d)

Isoflurane — Ultane

46.

Which statement best describes the mechanism of action of local anesthetic drugs?

a)

They enhance neurotransmitter release at synapses.

b)

They block nerve conduction at the site of administration or application.

c)

They stimulate the spinal cord to increase pain perception.

d)

They dilate blood vessels to reduce inflammation.

47.

Select the typical methods by which local anesthetics are administered.

a)

Oral tablets only

b)

Local infiltration, application to corneal or mucous membranes, epidural or intrathecal injection, and regional nerve blocks

c)

Intravenous infusion exclusively

d)

Transdermal patches only

48.

Match each anesthetic category to its key characteristic.

a)

Amides

1.

Very stable, metabolized in liver, predominantly nonallergenic

b)

Esters

2.

Shorter duration of action, highly allergenic

c)

Amide examples

3.

Lidocaine, bupivacaine, ropivacaine, mepivacaine

49.

Which of the following is an amide local anesthetic?

a)

Proparacaine

b)

Tetracaine

c)

Bupivacaine

d)

Alcaine

50.

Which statement about ester local anesthetics is correct?

a)

They are predominantly nonallergenic and have long durations of action.

b)

They have shorter durations of action and are highly allergenic.

c)

They are metabolized in the liver and very stable.

d)

They are only used for intrathecal injection.

51.

Identify the correct pairing of drug and its category.

a)

Lidocaine — ester

b)

Ropivacaine — amide

c)

Proparacaine — amide

d)

Mepivacaine — ester

52.

Which list contains only ester local anesthetics cited in the material?

a)

Proparacaine and tetracaine

b)

Lidocaine and bupivacaine

c)

Ropivacaine and mepivacaine

d)

Lidocaine and proparacaine

53.

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is known as the "fight-or-flight" system and increases heart rate, respiratory rate, blood flow to muscles, decreases GI function, and causes pupillary dilation?

a)

Sympathetic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Somatic nervous system

d)

Enteric nervous system

54.

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is described as homeostatic, normalizing heart rate and respiratory rate and returning GI function and pupil size to normal?

a)

Sympathetic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Central nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

55.

In the parasympathetic nervous system, which neurotransmitter is identified as the only neurotransmitter?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Dopamine

56.

Anticholinergic drugs are used to counteract which parasympathetic effects caused by surgical manipulation?

a)

Hypertension and tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia and AV block

c)

Hyperthermia and hypotension

d)

Bronchoconstriction and edema

57.

Which of the following is an example of an anticholinergic drug mentioned in the material?

a)

Atropine (Atrocare and generic)

b)

Dobutamine (generic)

c)

Norepinephrine (Levophed)

d)

Vasopressin (Vasostrict)

58.

Which of the following is also listed as an anticholinergic drug?

a)

Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Alpha-adrenergic antagonist

d)

Dopamine (generic)

59.

Match each autonomic division with its primary description.

a)

Sympathetic nervous system

1.

Fight-or-flight; increases HR, RR, blood flow to muscles; decreases GI; dilates pupils

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

2.

Homeostatic; normalizes HR and RR; returns GI function and pupil size to normal

c)

Anticholinergic drugs

3.

Counteract parasympathetic effects such as bradycardia and AV block

60.

Adrenergic receptors of the sympathetic nervous system include which set of receptor types?

a)

Alpha-1, beta-3, gamma-2

b)

Alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1, beta-2

c)

Alpha-2, beta-2, muscarinic

d)

Muscarinic M1, M2, nicotinic

61.

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists (α-blockers) primarily promote which physiological effect?

a)

Vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure

b)

Bronchodilation and tachycardia

c)

Vasodilation and decrease in blood pressure

d)

Increased GI motility and pupil constriction

62.

Adrenergic drugs mimic the effects of which endogenous compounds and can cause a sympathetic response?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Catecholamines

c)

Histamines

d)

Serotonin

63.

What is inotropy as defined in the material?

a)

Cardiac electrical conduction speed

b)

Cardiac contraction force

c)

Heart rate variability

d)

Vascular resistance

64.

Inotropes work primarily by stimulating which receptors?

a)

Muscarinic receptors

b)

Alpha-adrenergic receptors

c)

Beta-adrenergic receptors

d)

Dopamine receptors only

65.

Which of the following is an inotropic agent commonly used in anesthetized patients, according to the material?

a)

Atropine

b)

Dobutamine

c)

Glycopyrrolate

d)

Alpha-1 blocker

66.

Select the drug correctly matched to its trade name as listed.

a)

Norepinephrine — Vasostrict

b)

Vasopressin — Levophed

c)

Epinephrine — Robinul

d)

Norepinephrine — Levophed

67.

Which list includes only agents identified as inotropes commonly used in anesthetized patients?

a)

Dobutamine, dopamine, norepinephrine, ephedrine, vasopressin, epinephrine

b)

Atropine, glycopyrrolate, ephedrine, vasopressin

c)

Alpha-1 blockers, muscarinic agonists, epinephrine

d)

Dopamine, acetylcholine, atropine

68.

Barbiturates are an example of which type of anesthetic?

a)

Local anesthetic

b)

Autonomic nervous system drug

c)

Inhalant anesthetic agent

d)

Anesthetic induction agent