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HEMA-2

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following major component of the bone marrow is considered as the hematopoietically active marrow?
a)
Red marrow
b)
Yellow marrow
2.
Which of the following major component of the bone marrow is considered as the hematopoietically inactive marrow?
a)
Red marrow
b)
Yellow marrow
3.
Which of the following major component of the bone marrow has the ability of reverting back to active marrow in cases of increased demand on the bone marrow (examples: excessive blood loss and hemolysis)?
a)
Red marrow
b)
Yellow marrow
4.
Which of the following major component of the bone marrow is composed of adiposytes?
a)
Red marrow
b)
Yellow marrow
5.
(the process of replacing the active marrow with adipocytes or yellow marrow) which eventually results in restriction of active marrow to Vertebrae Proximal end of large bones Skull Ileac crest Sternum Ribs
a)
Retrogression
b)
Agression
c)
Retrograde
d)
Renegade
6.
What is the largest cell in the bone marrow?
a)
Megakaryocytes
b)
Macrophages
c)
Mast cells
d)
Osteoblast
e)
Osteoclast
7.
Synthesizes new bone matrix
a)
Megakaryocytes
b)
Macrophages
c)
Mast cells
d)
Osteoblast
e)
Osteoclast
8.
Has a characteristic “waterbug/comet” appearance.
a)
Megakaryocytes
b)
Macrophages
c)
Mast cells
d)
Osteoblast
e)
Osteoclast
9.
The largest secondary lymphoid organ in the body.
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Heart
10.
Major organ in the body in which antibodies are synthesized and from which they are released into the circulation
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Heart
11.
an increased incidence of bacterial sepsis caused primarily by S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, and H. influenzae due to splenectomy is often seen in?
a)
In children
b)
In adults
12.
less adverse effects, although it leads to some increase in blood-borne bacterial infections or bacteremia as a result of splenectomy is often seen in?
a)
In children
b)
In adults
13.
solid tumor neoplasm of lymphoid tissue
a)
splenectomy
b)
splenomegaly
c)
lymphoma
d)
myeloma
14.
-removal of the spleen
a)
splenectomy
b)
splenomegaly
c)
lymphoma
d)
myeloma
15.
-enlargement of the spleen
a)
splenectomy
b)
splenomegaly
c)
lymphoma
d)
myeloma
16.
– to detect and respond to antigens in the respiratory and alimentary secretions
a)
Tonsils
b)
Appendix
c)
Peyer's patches
d)
MALT
17.
clusters of lymphocytes distributed in the lining of the small intestine; detect substances that diffuse across the intestinal epithelium
a)
Tonsils
b)
Appendix
c)
Peyer's patches
d)
MALT
18.
general term for the unencapsulated lymphoid tissues present in regions underlying the mucosal areas
a)
Tonsils
b)
Appendix
c)
Peyer's patches
d)
MALT
19.
Vital but not essential for life and functions as an indiscriminate filter of the circulating blood
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Heart
20.
Which of the following can maintain hematopoietic stem cells and progenitor cells to generate various blood cells (a process called extramedullary hematopoiesis) as a response to infectious agents or in pathologic myelofibrosis of the bone marrow?
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Heart
21.
Contains about 20 – 40 mL of blood.
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Heart
22.
Serves as the major site of blood cell production during the second trimester of fetal development.
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Heart
23.
Maintains HSCs and progenitor cells to produce blood cells (extramedullary hematopoiesis) as a response to infectious agents or in pathologic myelofibrosis of the bone marrow.
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Lymph nodes
24.
Located along the lymphatic arteries that are parallel to but are not part of the circulatory system
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Lymph nodes
25.
Located along the lymphatic arteries that are parallel to but are not part of the circulatory system
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Lymph nodes
26.
Serves as a site of lymphocyte proliferation; involved in the initiation of specific immune response to foreign antigen; filtering particulate matter, debris, and bacteria entering the lymph node via the lymph.
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Lymph nodes
27.
Lymph node outer region; involves primary follicles, secondary follicles (follicles with germinal centers (foci of activated B cell proliferation)
a)
Cortex
b)
Medullar
c)
Paracortex
28.
Inner region; cords is consist of plasma cells and B cells
a)
Cortex
b)
Medullar
c)
Paracortex
29.
Located between the cortex and the medulla; contains predominantly T cells and numerous macrophages
a)
Cortex
b)
Medullar
c)
Paracortex
30.
Utilized for the analysis of individual cell morphology
a)
Bone marrow aspirate
b)
Bone marrow biopsy
31.
Spread as a smear on a slide, stained, and examined for hematologic or systemic disease
a)
Bone marrow aspirate
b)
Bone marrow biopsy
32.
Disturbs the bone marrow architecture.
a)
Bone marrow aspirate
b)
Bone marrow biopsy
33.
The marrow is removed intact without disturbing the bone architecture (cylinder of gelatinous red marrow)
a)
Bone marrow aspirate
b)
Bone marrow biopsy
34.
A cylinder of gelatinous red marrow (fixed in formalin, sectioned, stained, and studied for hematologic or systemic disease)
a)
Bone marrow aspirate
b)
Bone marrow biopsy
35.
Provides a better picture of the real structure of bone marrow.
a)
Bone marrow aspirate
b)
Bone marrow biopsy
36.
Used for analysis of bone marrow architecture
a)
Bone marrow aspirate
b)
Bone marrow biopsy
37.
In marrow differential, recommended number of cells counted is at least?
a)
100 cells
b)
250 cells
c)
400 cells
d)
500 cells
e)
1000 cells
38.
In marrow differential, preferred number of cells counted is at least?
a)
100 cells
b)
250 cells
c)
400 cells
d)
500 cells
e)
1000 cells
39.
Preferred sites for Bone marrow ASPIRATION In ADULTS
a)
Posterior superior iliac crest
b)
Anterior superior iliac crest
c)
Sternum
d)
Anterior medial surface of the tibia
e)
Spinous process of the vertebrae, ribs, or other red marrow-containing bones
40.
Preferred site for Bone marrow ASPIRATION in children <2 years old
a)
Posterior superior iliac crest
b)
Anterior superior iliac crest
c)
Sternum
d)
Anterior medial surface of the tibia
e)
Spinous process of the vertebrae, ribs, or other red marrow-containing bones
41.
Occurs MAINLY in the liver and spleen (hepatomegaly and/or splenomegaly often accompany this)
a)
Adult Hematopoiesis
b)
Extramedullary Hematopoiesis
42.
Occurs under the following conditions: 1. When bone marrow becomes dysfunctional such as in aplastic anemia, infiltration by malignant cells, or overproliferation of a cell line (for example, leukemia) 2. When bone marrow is incapable of meeting the demands placed on it (as observed in hemolytic anemias)
a)
Adult Hematopoiesis
b)
Extramedullary Hematopoiesis
43.
✓ Blood cell production outside the bone marrow
a)
Adult Hematopoiesis
b)
Extramedullary Hematopoiesis
44.
-In healthy adult individuals, the M:E ratio varies from roughly
a)
1.3 : 1 to 3.3:1
b)
1.5 : 1 to 3.3:1
c)
1.7 1 to 3.3:1
d)
1.8 1 to 3.3:1
45.
In leukemia, the M:E ratio is
a)
9:1
b)
4:1
c)
10:1
d)
5:1
46.
Classical marker of hematopoietic stem cells:
a)
CD 25
b)
CD 34
c)
CD 94
d)
CD 56
47.
Hematopoiesis red to start around the ___ day of embryonic development after fertilization
a)
18th
b)
19th
c)
20th
d)
21st
48.
Bone marrow smears are retained for how many years?
a)
1 year
b)
5 years
c)
10 years
d)
15 years
49.
indicators of “loss of stemness”
a)
CD34+
b)
CD38-
c)
HLA-DR low
d)
Lin-
50.
EARLIEST IDENTIFIABLE HUMAN HEMATOPOIETIC STEM CELLS (HSCs
a)
CD34+
b)
CD38-
c)
HLA-DR low
d)
Lin-
51.
Cells are phagocytized with subsequent degradation of cell organelles
a)
Pitting
b)
Culling
52.
Splenic macrophages remove inclusions or damaged surface membrane from circulating RBCs
a)
Pitting
b)
Culling
53.
Platelet and leukocyte counts temporary effect upon performing splenectomy
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
54.
Which type of splenic tissue is composed primarily of vascular sinuses separated by cords of reticular cell meshwork (cords of Billroth)? This creates a spongelike matrix that functions as a filter for blood passing through the region. As RBCs pass through, there is a decrease in blood flow, leading to stagnation
a)
White pulp
b)
Marginal zone
c)
Red pulp
55.
introduced the stochastic model of hematopoiesis (states that HSCs randomly commit to self-renewal or diUerentiation).
a)
Till and McCulloch
b)
Till and McKenzie
c)
Toni fowler
56.
suggests that the microenvironment in the bone marrow determines whether the HSC will self-renew or diUerentiate.
a)
Instructive model of hematopoesis
b)
Stochastic model of hematopoesis
c)
Monophyletic theory
d)
Polyphyletic theory
57.
states that HSCs randomly commit to self-renewal or differentiation
a)
Instructive model of hematopoesis
b)
Stochastic model of hematopoesis
c)
Monophyletic theory
d)
Polyphyletic theory
58.
The best source of active marrow from a 20 year old would be:
a)
Iliac crest
b)
Distal radius
c)
Femur
d)
Tibia
59.
When a patient has severe anemia and the bone marrow is unable to effectively produce red blood cells to meet the increased demand, one of the body’s responses is:
a)
Extramedullary hematopoiesis in the liver and spleen
b)
Decreased production of erythropoietin by the kidney
c)
Increased apoptosis of erythrocyte progenitor cells
d)
Increased proportion of yellow marrow in the long bones
60.
States that all blood cells are derived from a single progenitor stem cell called a “pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell”.
a)
Instructive model of hematopoesis
b)
Stochastic model of hematopoesis
c)
Monophyletic theory
d)
Polyphyletic theory
61.
Suggests that each blood cell lineage is derived from its own unique stem cell.
a)
Instructive model of hematopoesis
b)
Stochastic model of hematopoesis
c)
Monophyletic theory
d)
Polyphyletic theory
62.
What is the most widely accepted theory among experimental hematologists?
a)
Monophyletic theory
b)
Polyphyletic theory
63.
Which hematopoietic development phase include yolk sac as the site of hematopoiesis?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
64.
Which hematopoietic development phase include liver as the site of hematopoiesis?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
65.
Which hematopoietic development phase include bone marrow as the site of hematopoiesis?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
66.
Which hematopoietic development phase begins at around the 19th day of embryonic development?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
67.
Which hematopoietic development phase begins at 5 to 7 gestational weeks (1st month)?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
68.
Which hematopoietic development phase begins between the fourth and fifth month of fetal development?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
69.
Which hematopoietic development phase involve yolk sac erythroblasts; and production of hemoglobin Gower-1, Gower-2, and Portland needed for delivering oxygen to rapidly developing embryonic tissues?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
70.
Which hematopoietic development phase involve Primitive Erythroblasts (PE); important in early embryogenesis to produce hemoglobin (Gower-1, Gower-2 and Portland) necessary for delivery of oxygen to the embryonic tissues?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
71.
Which hematopoietic development phase differs from hematopoiesis that occurs later (fetal and adult stage) in that it occurs intravascularly (within developing blood vessels)
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
72.
1st blood cells: Primitive erythroblasts formed during the first 2 to 8 weeks of life
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
73.
Spleen, thymus, and lymph nodes contribute in which phase of hematopoiesis?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
74.
Which of the following produce B cells?
a)
Thymus
b)
Bone marrow
c)
Liver
d)
Kidneys
e)
Spleen
75.
– contains developing erythroid, myeloid, lymphoid, and megakaryocytic cells
a)
Thymus
b)
Bone marrow
c)
Liver
d)
Kidneys
e)
Spleen
76.
Considered to be a primary lymphoid organ with functions equivalent to that of Bursa of Fabricius (birds)
a)
Thymus
b)
Bone marrow
c)
Liver
d)
Kidneys
e)
Spleen
77.
Capable of generating around 2.5 billion RBCs, 1 billion granulocytes and 2.5 billion platelets
a)
Thymus
b)
Bone marrow
c)
Liver
d)
Kidneys
e)
Spleen
78.
Which of the following is not a hematopoietic organ in a normal person?
a)
Thymus
b)
Bone marrow
c)
Liver
d)
Kidneys
e)
Spleen
79.
between ___ years of age, adipocytes become more abundant and start to occupy the spaces in the long bones previously dominated by active marrow
a)
1 to 2 years
b)
3 to 7 years
c)
8 to 9 years
d)
5 to 7 years
80.
The bone marrow becomes the chief site of hematopoiesis by the end of ___ weeks’ gestation.
a)
20 weeks
b)
21 weeks
c)
22 weeks
d)
23 weeks
e)
24 weeks
81.
Which hematopoietic development phase is characterized by recognizable clusters of developing erythroblasts, granulocytes, and monocytes colonizing the fetal liver, thymus, spleen, placenta, and bone marrow?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
82.
Which hematopoietic development phase begins megakaryocytes production?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
83.
Which hematopoietic development phase involve Hemoglobin F (Fetal hemoglobin) as the predominant hemoglobin?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
84.
Which hematopoietic development phase becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis by the end of 24 weeks of gestation?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
85.
Which hematopoietic development phase involve messenchymal cells that differentiate into structural elements that support developing hematopoietic elements like stromal cells and reticular adventitial cells?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
86.
Which hematopoietic development phase has the myeloid-to-erythroid ratio that gradually approaches 3:1 to 4:1 in healthy adult levels?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
87.
Hb F (Fetal hemoglobin) is the predominant hemoglobin during this phase
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
88.
Warming the skin puncture site increases the blood flow by
a)
Three-fold
b)
Seven-fold
c)
Six-fold
d)
Ten-fold
89.
Puncture the finger _ to fingerprint
a)
Lateral
b)
Horizontal
c)
Veritcal
d)
Perpendicular
90.
Most common gauge with length of
a)
21 gauge 1 inch length
b)
22 gauge 2 inches length
c)
23 gauge 1 inch length
d)
16 gauge 3 inches length
91.
What is the most common cause of needle puncture?
a)
Recapping
b)
Not using PPE
c)
Improper disposal
92.
RBC lifespan in premature neonate
a)
35 – 50 days
b)
60 – 70 days
c)
120 days
93.
RBC lifespan in term neonate
a)
35 – 50 days
b)
60 – 70 days
c)
120 days
94.
RBC lifespan in adult
a)
35 – 50 days
b)
60 – 70 days
c)
120 days
95.
MEMBRANE LIPIDS Inner layer:
a)
Phosphatidylserine
b)
Phosphatidylethanolamine
c)
Phosphatidylcholine
d)
Sphingomyelin
96.
MEMBRANE LIPIDS Outer layer:
a)
Phosphatidylserine
b)
Phosphatidylethanolamine
c)
Phosphatidylcholine
d)
Sphingomyelin
97.
Increased distribution on outer layer of senescent RBCs and serves as a receptor that macrophages bind to, leading to increased RBC death.
a)
Phosphatidylserine
b)
Phosphatidylethanolamine
c)
Phosphatidylinositol
d)
Phosphatidylcholine
e)
Sphingomyelin
98.
Present in both layers:
a)
Free cholesterol
b)
Phosphatidylinositol
c)
Sphingomyelin
99.
confers tensile strength on the lipid bilayer. As it rises, the membrane gains strength but loses elasticity.
a)
Free cholesterol
b)
Phosphatidylcholine
c)
Sphingomyelin
100.
M & N antigen
a)
Glycophorin A
b)
Glycophorin B
c)
Glycophorin C, D
101.
Ss antigen
a)
Glycophorin A
b)
Glycophorin B
c)
Glycophorin C, D
102.
Gerbich antigens
a)
Glycophorin A
b)
Glycophorin B
c)
Glycophorin C, D
103.
Function: Provides lateral or horizontal membrane stability
a)
Cytoskeletal Proteins
b)
Aquaporin A
104.
Transmembrane protein that regulates the influx of water into the RBC in response to osmotic changes.
a)
Cytoskeletal Proteins
b)
Aquaporin A
105.
The erythrocytes’ membrane is
a)
Permeable
b)
Impermeable
c)
Semipermeable
106.
Erythrocyte membrane is .. to Na+ , K+ , and Ca2+
a)
Permeable
b)
Impermeable
c)
Semipermeable
107.
Erythrocyte membrane is .. to water, HCO3 - , and Cl
a)
Permeable
b)
Impermeable
c)
Semipermeable
108.
Horizontal interaction defect that inhibits the membrane’s ability to rebound from deformation Ultimately, the RBCs progressively elongate to form visible elliptocytes, which causes a mild to severe hemolytic anemia
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
109.
Autosomal dominant mutations that lead to too few vertical anchorages to maintain membrane stability. This leads to reduced surface area-to-volume ratio and the formation of spherocytes.
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
110.
aka hereditary hydrocytosis
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
111.
The RBC membrane is excessively permeable to sodium and potassium.
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
112.
A.K.A. Hereditary xerocytosis
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
113.
The RBC membrane is excessively permeable to potassium.
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
e)
Hereditary nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia
114.
The collective term for anemia caused by shortened RBC survival because of enzyme deficiencies in glycolysis.
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
e)
Hereditary nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia