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NCM 107 Review Midterm Exam

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A pregnant woman complains of feeling easily tired and short of breath when walking. This is likely due to:

a)

Increased progesterone causing lung expansion

b)

Increased cardiac workload and physiologic anemia

c)

Decreased blood volume and dehydration

d)

Decreased cardiac output during pregnancy

2.

A nurse explains that edema of the lower extremities in late pregnancy is common because:

a)

The growing uterus compresses major veins, reducing venous return

b)

There is decreased sodium retention in pregnancy

c)

The woman consumes too much water

d)

Protein levels in the blood are increased

3.

A pregnant woman reports dizziness when lying flat. The nurse should advise her to:

a)

Lie on her back with legs elevated

b)

Sleep in high Fowler’s position

c)

Lie on her left side to prevent vena cava compression

d)

Lie on her right side with knees bent

4.

The nurse notes hyperpigmentation of the cheeks (“mask of pregnancy”). This is primarily due to:

a)

Elevated estrogen levels

b)

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone secretion from the pituitary

c)

Vitamin deficiency

d)

Iron overload

5.

A woman at 8 weeks gestation experiences nausea each morning. The best nursing advice is to:

a)

Eat large, protein-rich meals three times daily

b)

Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed

c)

Avoid fluids between meals

d)

Lie down immediately after eating

6.

Constipation in pregnancy is most often caused by:

a)

Reduced intestinal motility from progesterone

b)

High dietary fiber intake

c)

Dehydration from morning sickness

d)

Increased calcium intake

7.

A nurse reminds a pregnant woman not to use mineral oil for constipation because it:

a)

Interferes with absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

b)

Causes uterine contractions

c)

Leads to dehydration

d)

Increases constipation

8.

A pregnant woman complains of leg cramps at night. The nurse’s priority teaching is to:

a)

Massage the affected leg

b)

Increase calcium intake and dorsiflex the foot during cramps

c)

Limit fluid intake before bed

d)

Apply warm compresses only

9.

A pregnant client asks why her gums bleed easily. The nurse’s best explanation is:

a)

Gingivitis from infection

b)

Hormonal changes increase vascularity and tissue sensitivity

c)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

d)

Low blood sugar

10.

A primigravida asks about safe sexual activity. The nurse explains that intercourse is allowed unless:

a)

She is in the third trimester

b)

The cervix is incompetent or vaginal bleeding occurs

11.

Which physiologic change helps protect the fetus from infection?

a)

Increased vaginal acidity

b)

Reduced WBC production

c)

Decreased body temperature

d)

Dilated cervical os

12.

The nurse expects urinary frequency to be most noticeable during which trimesters?

a)

A. First and third

b)

B. First and second

c)

C. Second and third

d)

D. Only first

13.

During pregnancy, a woman’s parathyroid gland enlarges. The primary purpose is to:

a)

Increase calcium withdrawal from bone for fetal growth

b)

Decrease maternal bone density

c)

Improve thyroid activity

d)

Promote sodium and water retention

14.

A pregnant client has visible varicose veins on her legs. The nurse should advise her to:

a)

Avoid elevating her legs

b)

Wear tight elastic stockings continuously

c)

Rest frequently with legs elevated

d)

Stand for long periods to improve circulation

15.

A pregnant woman experiences excessive salivation. The nurse identifies this as:

a)

Ptyalism

b)

Pica

c)

Pyrosis

d)

Hyperemesis

16.

The nurse explains that “Lordosis,” or exaggerated lumbar curve, develops during pregnancy because:

a)

The uterus shifts backward

b)

The body compensates for altered center of gravity

c)

The pelvic ligaments tighten

d)

The muscles become flaccid

17.

A woman in her second trimester expresses excitement and begins shopping for baby items. This reflects the psychological task of:

a)

Accepting the pregnancy

b)

Accepting the baby

c)

Preparing for parenthood

d)

Adjusting to body changes

18.

A pregnant woman’s partner complains of feeling tired and having back pain similar to her symptoms. The nurse recognizes this as:

a)

Role rejection

b)

Couvade syndrome

c)

Psychological regression

d)

Anxiety reaction

19.

During which trimester does sexual desire typically increase due to improved sense of well-being and pelvic congestion?

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Postpartum

20.

A nurse observes that a pregnant client shows mixed feelings about her condition, alternating between happiness and worry. This is best described as:

a)

Denial

b)

Ambivalence

c)

Regression

d)

Acceptance

21.

A nurse identifies Chadwick’s sign during a pelvic exam. The nurse correctly interprets this as:

a)

Softening of the cervix

b)

Bluish discoloration of the vaginal wall due to vascular congestion

c)

Softening of the lower uterine segment

22.

A woman reports missing her period, morning nausea, and fatigue. These are classified as:

a)

A. Presumptive signs of pregnancy

b)

B. Probable signs of pregnancy

c)

C. Positive signs of pregnancy

d)

D. Diagnostic findings

23.

During an assessment, the nurse notes a softening of the lower uterine segment. This is documented as:

a)

Hegar’s sign

b)

Goodell’s sign

c)

Chadwick’s sign

d)

Ballottement

24.

A nurse performing a pelvic exam detects “bouncing” of the fetus upon gentle tapping of the cervix. This finding is:

a)

Ballottement

b)

Quickening

c)

Engagement

d)

Lightening

25.

A mother at 20 weeks reports feeling the baby move for the first time. The nurse documents this as:

a)

Braxton Hicks contractions

b)

Ballottement

c)

Quickening

d)

Effacement

26.

A client asks, “How do I know for sure that I’m pregnant?” The nurse responds that the most reliable positive sign is:

a)

Positive urine pregnancy test

b)

Absence of menstruation

c)

Fetal heart tones detected by Doppler

d)

Softening of the cervix

27.

During preconception counseling, a woman with a history of neural tube defects in the family asks about prevention. The nurse emphasizes:

a)

Folic acid supplements before conception

b)

Iron-rich diet after conception

c)

Calcium supplements in late pregnancy

d)

Vitamin D and sunlight exposure

28.

A pregnant woman asks why she needs prenatal visits every month during early pregnancy. The nurse explains that:

a)

Fetal growth is minimal early on

b)

Regular monitoring ensures early detection of complications

c)

Weight gain occurs only after the second trimester

d)

Immunizations are given every visit

29.

A woman’s prenatal schedule should change from every 4 weeks to every 2 weeks beginning at:

a)

28 weeks

b)

32 weeks

c)

36 weeks

d)

38 weeks

30.

The nurse measures a woman’s fundal height at 20 cm. This finding most likely corresponds to:

a)

12 weeks’ gestation

b)

20 weeks’ gestation

c)

30 weeks’ gestation

d)

36 weeks’ gestation

31.

A pregnant woman says she feels well and wants to continue working as a cashier. The nurse advises she may continue if:

a)

She avoids prolonged standing and heavy lifting

b)

She works only night shifts

c)

She limits fluid intake at work

d)

She takes iron pills before each shift

32.

Before performing a pelvic exam on a pregnant woman, the nurse’s priority is to:

a)

Ask the woman to empty her bladder

b)

Check fetal heart tones

c)

Assess fundal height

d)

Prepare sterile gloves

33.

The nurse reviews the immunization record of a pregnant woman. She received TT1 last week. The next dose (TT2) should be administered:

a)

2 weeks later

b)

1 month later

c)

6 months later

d)

1 year later

34.

A pregnant client asks, “Why do I need several tetanus shots?” The nurse correctly explains that:

a)

The baby will need the antibodies for protection against neonatal tetanus

b)

It prevents urinary tract infection

c)

It increases the mother’s milk supply

d)

It shortens labor

35.

The nurse evaluates a woman who completed TT5 before her current pregnancy. Which action is appropriate?

a)

Restart the tetanus series

b)

Give a booster every year

c)

No tetanus vaccine needed; she has lifetime protection

d)

Repeat TT3

36.

During urinalysis, albumin is detected. The nurse recognizes this as:

a)

A sign of renal disease or preeclampsia risk

b)

A normal finding due to hormonal changes

c)

Indication of dehydration

d)

Sign of urinary infection only

37.

A nurse counsels a client about the importance of iron in pregnancy. The main purpose of iron supplementation is to:

a)

Prevent anemia due to increased blood volume

b)

Improve appetite

c)

Enhance fetal brain development

d)

Prevent morning sickness

38.

The nurse educates a mother about folic acid intake. A good dietary source would be:

a)

Green leafy vegetables and fortified grains

b)

Citrus fruits and dairy

c)

Red meat and poultry

d)

Root crops and cereals

39.

The nurse explains that smoking during pregnancy may result in:

a)

High birth weight due to oxygen increase

b)

Low birth weight due to vasoconstriction

c)

Dehydration from reduced fluid intake

d)

Increased placental circulation

40.

A pregnant woman’s laboratory results show mild anemia. The nurse identifies this as:

a)

Normal physiologic anemia due to plasma expansion

b)

Pathologic anemia due to blood loss

c)

Sign of dehydration

d)

Early symptom of preeclampsia

41.

A mother in her 39th week reports increased urinary frequency and easier breathing. The nurse recognizes this as:

a)

Engagement

b)

Lightening

c)

Crowning

d)

Descent

42.

During assessment, the nurse notes a blood-tinged mucus discharge. The client asks if she is in labor. The best response is:

a)

A. “That is a show; labor will start soon.”

b)

B. “That means your water broke.”

c)

C. “You are already in active labor.”

d)

D. “That discharge is abnormal and must be reported.”

43.

A client experiencing contractions every 10 minutes that are irregular and relieved by rest is most likely experiencing:

a)

True labor

b)

False labor

44.

The nurse identifies true labor when:

a)

Contractions are irregular and short

b)

Discomfort is felt only in the abdomen

c)

Contractions increase in frequency and intensity, and cervical change occurs

d)

Rest decreases pain

45.

The nurse explains that labor begins when:

a)

The cervix dilates completely

b)

The membranes rupture

c)

Regular uterine contractions cause cervical dilation and effacement

d)

The fetus engages in the pelvis

46.

A nurse explains to a student that labor is initiated partly because of increased oxytocin sensitivity. This supports which theory?

a)

Uterine stretch theory

b)

Oxytocin stimulation theory

c)

Aging placenta theory

d)

Prostaglandin theory

47.

A nurse explains that labor occurs when progesterone levels drop and estrogen becomes dominant. This describes:

a)

Oxytocin theory

b)

Prostaglandin theory

c)

Progesterone deprivation theory

d)

Uterine stretch theory

48.

As pregnancy nears term, the placenta becomes less efficient in hormone production, leading to increased contractions. This is consistent with:

a)

A. Aging placenta theory

b)

B. Estrogen dominance theory

c)

C. Uterine stretch theory

d)

D. Cervical pressure theory

49.

During the latent phase of the first stage of labor, the nurse expects:

a)

Cervical dilation of 0–3 cm with mild contractions

b)

Cervical dilation of 8–10 cm with strong contractions

c)

Full dilation and bearing down

d)

Fetal head crowning

50.

The best nursing intervention for a woman in the latent phase of labor is to:

a)

Encourage rest and light activity

b)

Instruct her to push with each contraction

c)

Administer IV oxytocin

d)

Begin perineal shaving

51.

During the active phase, the nurse expects contractions to occur:

a)

Every 15–20 minutes, mild intensity

b)

Every 3–5 minutes, moderate intensity

c)

Every 10 minutes, weak

d)

Every 1–2 minutes, very strong

52.

The nurse assists a woman who is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse anticipates the client may:

a)

Be calm and cooperative

b)

Feel anxious, irritable, and have an urge to push

c)

Sleep between contractions

d)

Have minimal discomfort

53.

A nurse observes that a client’s contractions are very close together and last 90 seconds. The nurse’s priority action is to:

a)

Increase IV fluids

b)

Turn the client to her side and monitor fetal heart rate

c)

Encourage her to push harder

d)

Notify the physician immediately for delivery

54.

During the second stage of labor, the nurse should instruct the client to:

a)

Push only during contractions with an open glottis

b)

Breathe rapidly and shallowly through the mouth

c)

Hold her breath and bear down

55.

The nurse notices the perineum bulging during pushing. This indicates:

a)

A. Crowning and imminent delivery

b)

B. Early stage of labor

c)

C. Fetal distress

d)

D. Uterine rupture

56.

The nurse observes that the umbilical cord is looped loosely around the baby’s neck after delivery of the head. The appropriate action is to:

a)

Cut the cord immediately

b)

Slip the cord gently over the baby’s head

c)

Clamp the cord and wait for the placenta

d)

Pull the baby quickly to avoid asphyxia

57.

After delivery of the baby, the nurse monitors for signs of placental separation. Which sign confirms this process?

a)

Fundus soft and displaced to the right

b)

Calkin’s sign — uterus becomes globular and rises in the abdomen

c)

Uterus relaxes and flattens

d)

Bleeding stops completely

58.

When the placenta separates at the center and presents the shiny fetal surface first, this is known as:

a)

Duncan mechanism

b)

Schultz mechanism

c)

Central cord mechanism

d)

Maternal mechanism

59.

During the third stage of labor, the nurse should avoid pulling on the umbilical cord to prevent:

a)

Placental retention

b)

Uterine inversion and hemorrhage

c)

Prolonged labor

d)

Infection

60.

In the fourth stage of labor, the nurse’s priority assessment is:

a)

Maternal bladder fullness

b)

Uterine tone and vaginal bleeding

c)

Fetal heart rate

d)

Amniotic fluid color

61.

During a vaginal examination, the nurse palpates a firm, rounded part that moves independently of the body and identifies sutures and fontanels. This finding indicates the presenting part is the:

a)

Shoulder

b)

Breech

c)

Head

d)

Abdomen

62.

A nurse palpates the diamond-shaped fontanel during assessment. The student asks what this means. The nurse replies:

a)

It’s the anterior fontanel, which closes at 12–18 months.

b)

It’s the posterior fontanel, which closes at birth.

c)

It’s the sphenoidal fontanel, which closes immediately after delivery.

d)

It’s the mastoid fontanel, which closes after one year.

63.

During delivery, molding of the fetal head helps the baby:

a)

Prevent brain compression

b)

Fit through the birth canal by overlapping cranial bones

c)

Maintain normal temperature

d)

Stimulate respiratory effort

64.

The nurse explains that the suboccipitobregmatic diameter represents:

a)

The narrowest anteroposterior diameter of the fetal head

b)

The widest transverse diameter

c)

The longest occipitomental diameter

d)

The circumference of the head

65.

When assessing fetal lie, the nurse identifies that the fetal spine is parallel to the mother’s spine. This indicates a:

a)

Transverse lie

b)

Oblique lie

c)

Longitudinal lie

d)

Breech lie

66.

The degree of flexion or extension of the fetal head in the uterus is referred to as:

a)

Fetal lie

b)

Fetal attitude

c)

Fetal position

d)

Fetal presentation

67.

A fetus with its chin flexed on the chest is in:

a)

Full flexion (vertex presentation)

b)

Partial flexion (brow presentation)

c)

Hyperextension (face presentation)

d)

Extension (mentum presentation)

68.

The nurse determines that the fetal presenting part is the buttocks and legs. This presentation is termed:

a)

Breech

b)

Shoulder

c)

Vertex

d)

Transverse

69.

The most common and favorable fetal position for childbirth is:

a)

Left occiput anterior (LOA)

b)

Right occiput posterior (ROP)

c)

Right mentum anterior (RMA)

d)

Left sacrum posterior (LSP)

70.

A nurse reviewing a delivery record notes “ROP position.” This position is likely to cause:

a)

Shorter labor and less back pain

b)

Prolonged labor and intense back pain

c)

Faster descent of the fetus

d)

Immediate delivery

71.

During pelvic assessment, the nurse identifies a heart-shaped inlet with a narrow pubic arch. This is characteristic of a/an:

a)

Gynecoid pelvis

b)

Android pelvis

c)

Platypelloid pelvis

d)

Anthropoid pelvis

72.

A nurse explains that the pelvis type most favorable for normal vaginal birth is:

a)

Android

b)

Anthropoid

c)

Gynecoid

d)

Platypelloid

73.

A client asks what “powers” of labor mean. The nurse replies:

a)

They refer to the strength and frequency of uterine contractions

b)

They describe the mother’s emotional endurance

c)

They are the pelvic bones and ligaments

d)

They refer to the fetal movements during descent

74.

During monitoring, the nurse notes contractions lasting 60 seconds with a 2-minute interval. The nurse interprets this pattern as:

a)

Normal uterine activity

b)

Hyperstimulation requiring tocolytics

c)

Weak contractions needing oxytocin

d)

Second-stage distress

75.

The peak of each uterine contraction, when the intensity is greatest, is called:

a)

Increment

b)

Acme

c)

Decrement

d)

Plateau

76.

During a contraction, the uterus is palpated as firm and hard, then gradually softens. The relaxation period between contractions is called the:

a)

Interval

b)

Acme

c)

Increment

d)

Decrement

77.

The nurse observes that a client’s uterus fails to contract properly after delivery. The most appropriate initial nursing...

a)

Massage the fundus

b)

Administer oxytocin

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Monitor vital signs

78.

On postpartum assessment, the nurse finds the fundus displaced to the right and boggy. The nurse should:

a)

Document as normal

b)

Ask the client to void, then reassess fundal tone

c)

Prepare for oxytocin infusion immediately

d)

Call for emergency uterine exploration

79.

The nurse is assessing lochial discharge. She documents the finding as lochia serosa when it is:

a)

Dark red with small clots, lasting 0–3 days

b)

Pink to brownish, lasting 4–7 days

c)

Creamy yellow, lasting 2–3 weeks

d)

Clear, watery, and odorless

80.

During postpartum rounds, a nurse notes that a mother becomes tearful, anxious, and easily fatigued on the third day after giving birth. The best interpretation is:

a)

Postpartum blues, a normal adjustment period

b)

Postpartum psychosis needing immediate referral

c)

Severe depression requiring medication

d)

Fatigue from blood loss and dehydration