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Science Form 3

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 6hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Kaji maklumat di bawah

Study the information below.

J- Otak K- Saraf spina

brain spinal nerves

L- saraf tunjang M- saraf cranium

spinal cord cranial nerves


Antara berikut, yang manakah mewakili sistem saraf pusat?

Which of the following represent central nervous system?

a)

J dan K

J and K

b)

J dan L

J and L

c)

K dan M

K and M

d)

J dan K

J and K

2.

Gambar rajah 1 menunjukkan laluan impuls setelah rangsangan diterima oleh kulit.

The diagram 1 shows the path of an impulse after a stimulus is received by the skin.


Antara berikut yang manakah mewakili X, Y dan Z?

Which of the following represents X, Y and Z?

a)

X - Otak/Brain, Y - Efektor/Effector, Z - Reseptor/Receptor

b)

X - Reseptor/Receptor, Y - Efektor/Effector, Z - Otak/Brain

c)

X - Otak/Brain, Y - Reseptor/Receptor, Z - Efektor/Effector

d)

X - Reseptor/Receptor, Y - Otak/Brain , Z - Efektor/Effector

3.

Antara berikut, yang manakah merupakan tindakan terkawal?

Which of the following is a voluntary action?

a)

Peristalsis

Peristalsis

b)

Bercakap

Talking

c)

Berpeluh

Sweating

d)

Denyutan jantung

Heart beat

4.

Rajah 2 menunjukkan keratan rentas kulit manusia.

Diagram 2 below shows a cross-section of human skin.


Pasangan stimuli manakah yang bergerak balas terhadap reseptor P dan Q?

Which pair of stimuli do receptors P and Q respond to?

a)

P - Sakit/Pain, Q - Tekanan/Pressure

b)

P - Sentuhan/Touch, Q - Sejuk/Cold

c)

P - Sejuk/Cold Q - Sakit/Pain

d)

P - Tekanan/Pressure, Q - Sentuhan/Touch

5.

Rajah 3 menunjukkan laluan impuls suatu tindakan.

The diagram 3 shows the impulse pathway of an action.


Reseptor/Receptor -->Saraf tunjang/Spinal cord --> Efektor/Effector


Antara tindakan berikut, yang manakah akan melalui impuls yang sama?

Which of the following actions will pass through the same impulse pathway?

a)

Bernafas

Breathing

b)

Berfikir

Thinking

c)

Sentakan lutut

Knee-jerk reaction

d)

Berjalan

Walking

6.

Antara hubungan organ deria dengan rangsangan di bawah, yang manakah tidak benar?

Which pair of the sensory organ with stimulus below, is not true?

a)

Mata/Eyes - Cahaya/Light

b)

Hidung/Nose - Udara/Air

c)

Lidah/Tongue - Bahan kimia/Chemical substances

d)

Telinga/Ear - Bunyi/Sound

7.

Selain menerima rangsangan, fungsi-fungsi lain kulit adalah untuk

Other than receiving stimulus, the function of skin is

a)

Membantu menyingkirkan bahan kumuh

Help to get rid of secreted subtances

b)

Mengawal atur suhu badan

Control the body temperature

c)

Menghindarkan mikroorganisma daripada memasuki badan

Preventing the microorganism from entering body

8.

Kepekaan kulit terhadap rangsangan dipengaruhi oleh

The sensitivity of skin to the stimulus is effected by

a)

Ketebalan lapisan lemak

Thickness of fat layer

b)

Ketebalan dermis

Thickness of dermis

c)

Jenis rangsangan

Type of stimulus

d)

Bilangan reseptor

Number of receptors

9.

Antara yang berikut, yang manakah tidak benar tentang hidung?

Which of the following is not correct about nose?

a)

Sel- sel deria terletak di bawah hidung

Sensory cells are located under the nose

b)

Hidung ialah organ deria untuk deria bau

The nose is a sensory organs for a sense of smell

c)

Jumlah cecair meningkat semasa seseorang menghidapi selesema

The amount of fluid increases when a person suffers from flu

d)

Sel –sel peka bau di dalam hidung amat sensitif terhadap bahan kimia

Sensitive cells in the nose are very sensitive to chemicals

10.

Rajah 4 menunjukkan keratan melalui sebahagian kepala manusia yang mengandungi organ deria.

Diagram 4 shows a section through part of the human head containing a sensory organ.


Antara bahagian berlabel A, B, C dan D, yang manakah sel deria?

Which of the parts labelled A, B, C and D, is a sensory cell?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

11.

Semasa seseorang itu menghidapi selesema, makanannya tidak akan berasa sedap. Hal ini demikian kerana

When a person suffers from flu, the food will not be delicious. This is so because

a)

Hidung dan lidah tidak lagi berfungsi

Nose and tongue are no longer work

b)

Bakteria di dalam mulut melemahkan kebolehan sel –sel reseptor mengesan rasa makanan

Bacteria in the mouth weaken the ability of the cell-receptor to detect the taste of the food

c)

Kuantiti mukus yang banyak di bukaan hidung menghindarkan bahan kimia daripada merangsang sel-sel reseptor bau

The abundance of mucous quantities in the nasal opening prevents chemicals from stimulating the receptor cells of the smell

d)

Sel-sel peka bau telah diserang virus selesema dan tidak dapat berfungsi

Sensitive cells have been attacked by flu virus and cannot function

12.

Rajah 5 menunjukkan kawasan lidah manusia yang berbeza

Diagram 5 shows different area of human tongue.


Kawasan manakah lebih sensitif terhadap cuka dan madu?Which parts are more sensitive to vinegar and honey?

a)

P, R

b)

P, Q

c)

Q, S

d)

R, P

13.

Antara struktur telinga berikut, yang manakah mempunyai cecair?

Which of these ear structure has fluid?

a)

Jendela bujur

Oval window

b)

Gegendang telinga

Ear drum

c)

Tiub Eustachio

Eustachio tube

d)

Koklea

Cochlea

14.

Penglihatan yang jelas hanya boleh didapati semasa imej terbentuk dengan tepat pada

Clear vision is only available when the image is formed exactly on

a)

Kornea

Cornea

b)

Anak mata

Eye ball

c)

Retina

Retina

d)

Kanta mata

Eye lens

15.

Fungsi kornea adalah untuk

The function of cornea is

a)

Membekalkan makanan dan air kepada mata

Provide food and water to eyes

b)

Membolehkan cahaya memasuki mata dan memfokuskan cahaya tersebut

Allows the light to enter the eyes and focus the light

c)

Mengawal jumlah cahaya yang memasuki mata

Controls the amount of light entering the eye

d)

Menghantar impuls dari retina ke otak

Sending impulses from the retina to the brain

16.

Rajah 6 menunjukkan keratan rentas mata yang mengalami kecacatan penglihatan.

Diagram 6 shows a cross-section of an eye with a defective vision.


Antara yang berikut, yang manakah menyebabkan kecacatan penglihatan itu?

Which of the following causes the defective vision?

a)

Kanta mata terlalu tebal

The eye lens is too thick

b)

Saiz anak mata terlalu kecil

The size of the pupil is too small

c)

Bola mata terlalu pendek

The eye ball is too short

d)

Permukaan kornea mata tidak sekata

The surface of the cornea is irregular

17.

Garisan PQ dan RS dalam Rajah 7 mempunyai panjang yang sama tetapi kelihatan berbeza.

The PQ and RS lines in Diagram 7 have the same length but look different.


Fenomena ini dikenali sebagai

The phenomena is knowns as

a)

Penglihatan monocular

Monocular vision

b)

Ilusi optik

Optic illusion

c)

Pembiasan cahaya

Refraction of light

d)

Astigmatisme

Astigmatism

18.

Manakah antara berikut bukan kelebihan penglihatan stereoskopik berbanding penglihatan monokular?

Which of the following is not one of the benefits stereoscopic vision compared to monocular vision?

a)

Dapat melihat objek yang berada di hadapan

Able to see object in the front

b)

Mampu menganggar jarak dengan tepat

Able to estimate distance correctly

c)

Mempunyai medan penglihatan yang luas

Has wider vision

d)

Mampu melihat objek dalam tiga dimensi

Able to see object in three dimension

19.

Which part of a plant shows positive phototropism?Bahagian tumbuhan yang manakah menunjukkan

fototropisme positif?

a)

Buah/Fruit

b)

Akar/Root

c)

Batang/Stem

d)

Pucuk/Shoot

20.

Antara pernyataan perikut, yang manakah betul tentang gerak balas tropisme?

Which of the following statement about the tropism responses is correct?

a)

Pucuk menunjukkan geotropisme negatif dan fototropisme positif

Shoots show negative geotropism and positive phototropism

b)

Akar menunjukkan geotropisme positif dan hidrotopisme negatif

Roots show positive geotropism and negative hydrotopism

c)

Akar menunjukkan fototropisme positif dan geotropisme negatif

Root shows positive phototropism and negative geotropism

d)

Pucuk menunjukkan geotropisme positif dan hidrotopisme positif.

Shoots show positive geotropism and positive hydrotopism

21.

The table shows the percentage of three gases in inhaled and exhaled air . The percentage of oxygen gas decrease because it …

a)

is trapped in the heart

b)

is used in respiration

c)

is lost through transpiration

d)

flow through whole body

22.

What will happen when structure X contracts and become flattened?

a)

Air from outside enters the lung.

b)

The rib cage goes down and inwards.

c)

The Volume of thorax cavity decreases.

d)

Air pressure inside the thorax cavity increases

23.

The diagram shows the passage of air through the human respiratory system while exhaling. Which of the following represents X, Y, and Z?

a)
b)
c)
d)
24.

The following statements are about the transportation of oxygen in the human body. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the transportation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
25.
Which of the following is a disease of respiratory system?
a)
Anemia
b)
Diabetes
c)
Bronchitis
d)
Leukaemia
26.

Based on the diagram of the experiment, which gas jar has more oxygen?

a)

Gas jar X

b)

Gas jar Y

27.

The diagram show a model for mamallian respiratory system. Which can be represented by L ?

a)

Bronchus

b)

Lung

c)

Diaphragm

28.

The diagram show a model for mamallian respiratory system. Which can be represented by M ?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Bronchus

c)

Lung

29.
Select the importance of this alveolus charcteristic : One cell thick/ Very thin wall
a)
To ease the respiratory gas to dissolve.
b)
To ease the gaseous exchange
c)
Increase the surface area for diffusion of gas.
d)
To provide a very short distance for the diffusion of gas
30.
What is the chemical that cause addiction to smokers?
a)
Nicotine
b)
Tar
c)
Ammonia
d)
Carbon Monoxide
31.

Select the respiratory organ for the animal in the picture:

a)

Lungs

b)

Gills

c)

Moist Skin

d)

Tracheae

32.

Select the respiratory organ for the animal in the picture:

a)

Lungs

b)

Gills

c)

Moist Skin

d)

Tracheae

33.

The picture shows a structure that can be found abundantly at the bottom surface of a leaf. What is the name of the structure?

a)

Stoma

b)

Xylem

c)

Phloem

34.

What is the process shown in the diagram?

a)

Inhalation

b)

Exhalation

35.

The diagram shows a model for human respiratory system. Which model A or B, represents the process of exhalation?

a)

A

b)

B

36.

The picture shows a human activities. What happened to the amount of oxygen and carbon dioxide when all the trees in the forest are cut down?

a)

Oxygen : Increase

Carbon dioxide : Decrease

b)

Oxygen : Decrease

Carbon dioxide : Increase

c)

Oxygen : Decrease

Carbon dioxide : Decrease

d)

Oxygen : Increase

Carbon dioxide : Increase

37.

Diagram shows blood capillaries surrounding alveoli. What makes the concentration of oxygen low in alveolus?

a)

Oxygen diffuse into blood capillary.

b)

Carbon dioxide diffuse into blood capilary.

c)

Oxygen diffuse into alveolus

d)

Carbon dioxide diffuse into red blood cell

38.

What happened to the pressure inside of lung during the process shown in the diagram?

a)

Pressure decrease

b)

Pressure increase.

39.

What structure control the size of stoma?

a)

Guard Cell

b)

Epidermal Cell

c)

Xylem

d)

Phloem

40.
Which step is implemented to prevent and control air pollution ?
a)
Use leaded fuel.
b)
Practice car-pooling system.
c)
Smoke in public places.
d)
Practice open burning.
41.

Which shows the correct pathway of oxygenated blood entering and leaving the heart?

a)

Pulmonary vein > left atrium > left ventricle > aorta

b)

Pulmonary vein > left atrium > right ventricle > aorta

c)

Vena cava > right atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary artery

d)

Vena cava > right atrium > left ventricle > pulmonary artery

42.

Which shows the correct pathway of deoxygenated blood entering and leaving the heart?

a)

Vena cava > right atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary artery

b)

Vena cava > right atrium > left ventricle > pulmonary artery

c)

Vena cava > right atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary vein

d)

Vena cava > left atrium > left ventricle > pulmonary artery

43.

What is the function of valves in heart?

a)

To prevent the backflow of blood in the chambers.

b)

To allow the backflow of blood in the heart.

c)

To initiate the flow of the blood in the heart.

44.

When photosynthesis takes place during the day, stomata will...

a)

open

b)

close

c)

static

d)

hot

45.

Figure below shows one type of blood cell. What is the name of the blood cells and its function?

a)

Red blood cell , Transport food

b)

White blood cell , Transport food

c)

Red blood cell, Transport oxygen

d)

White blood cell, Transport oxygen

46.

What is the function of a white blood cell?

a)

It helps repair wounds.

b)

It helps in the clotting of blood.

c)

It protects the body against diseases.

d)

It carries oxygen to all parts of the body.

47.

What is the function of a platelets?

a)

It helps repair wounds.

b)

It helps in the clotting of blood.

c)

It protects the body against diseases.

d)

It carries oxygen to all parts of the body.

48.

What does xylem transport?

a)

Water and minerals

b)

Water only

c)

Sugar

d)

Food

49.

What does phloem transport?

a)

Water

b)

Minerals

c)

Fruit

d)

Sugar

50.

Which blood vessels carry blood with oxygen and nutrients away from the heart to the cells?

a)

stomach

b)

arteries

c)

veins

d)

capillaries

51.
Transpiration is
a)
the movement of water through a plant from the roots up the stem
b)
the loss of water from the leaves of a plant by the process of evaporation
c)
the flow of water into plant roots by osmosis from the soil
d)
the process of minerals and sugars moving through plant veins
52.
Why is the evaporation of water from leaves important?
a)
It cools leaves and helps move water up the plant.
b)
It makes the plant wilt
c)
It helps the plant to respire
53.

Which vessel mainly transport deoxygenated blood?

a)

Artery

b)

Aorta

c)

Capillary

d)

Vein

54.

Which of the following carries blood away from heart?

a)

Vein

b)

Artery

c)

Capillary

d)

Valve

55.

Which of the following has walls that are one cell thick and is a site for diffusion?

a)

Vein

b)

Artery

c)

Capillary

d)

Aorta

56.

Identify the part labelled C.

a)

Left atrium

b)

Left ventricle

c)

Right atrium

d)

Right ventricle

57.

What is the function of the blood vessel labelled D?

a)

To transport blood from the heart to the lungs

b)

To transport blood from the heart to the rest of the body.

c)

To transport blood from the rest of the body to the heart.

d)

To transport blood from the lungs to the heart.

58.

In this type of system blood passes through the heart twice in one complete circuit.

a)

Single Circulatory System

b)

Double Circulatory System

c)

Pulmonary System

d)

Double Pulmonary System

59.

Simple organisms such as amoeba and paramecium are able to obtain oxygen and nutrients enter directly into cells via .....................process through the cell membrane

a)

Diffusion

b)

Respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Transpiration

60.

What happen if the transport system fails to eliminate the waste products from the cells ?

a)

Becomes poison to the cells

b)

Becomes nutrient to the cells

c)

Combine with the cells

d)

Digested in the stomach

61.

Reactivity of metal towards oxygen increases down the reactivity series of metal diagram

a)

True

b)

False

62.

In a vigorous reaction between a more reactive metal such as magnesium and oxygen, a bright flame is observed

a)

True

b)

False

63.

In a less vigorous reaction between a less reactive metal such as iron and oxygen, only a glow or slow change in colour is observed

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Magnesium is more reactive towards oxygen compared to

a)

Calcium

b)

Zinc

c)

Sodium

d)

Potassium

65.

If carbon can remove oxygen from a metal oxide, it means carbon is ___________ reactive than the metal.

a)

more

b)

less

66.

The most reactive metal in the reactivity series of metals is ______________.

a)

Calcium

b)

Potassium

c)

Magnesium

d)

Aluminium

67.

What are the two non-metal elements that are included in the reactivity series of metals?

a)

Calcium

b)

Carbon

c)

Sodium

d)

Hydrogen

68.

Choose the correct sequence.


.............. , ............ , .........

----------------------------------->

Reactivity towards oxygen increases

a)

Silver , Copper , Tin

b)

Iron , Lead , Mercury

c)

Magnesium , Aluminium , Calcium

d)

Iron , Carbon , Lead

69.

What will happened when lead oxide react with hydrogen?

a)

Lead oxide burns brightly

b)

Yellow powder turns shiny grey

c)

Lead is produced

d)

All of the above

70.

Based on the diagram, what is the function of anhydrous calcium chloride in the experiment?

a)

To absorb water vapour so that dry hydrogen will be produced

b)

To supply hydrogen gas

c)

To separate the metals

d)

To release heat for combustion

71.

The diagram shows a setup apparatus for an experiment. What is the aim of the experiment?

a)

To determine the position of carbon in the reactivity series of metals

b)

To determine the position of hydrogen in the reactivity series of metals

c)

To observe the reactivity of metals with carbon dioxide

d)

To observe the reactivity of metals with water

72.

Based on the following diagram, what is the function of potassium manganate (VII) crystals in this experiment?

a)

To supply oxygen

b)

To avoid the metals to mix with each other

c)

To release heat

d)

To give out water vapour

73.

Write the word equation between metal and oxygen.

a)

Metal + Oxygen →\overrightarrow{ } Metal oxide

b)

Metal + Oxygen undefined Metal oxygen

c)

Metal + Oxygen = Metal oxide

d)

Metal + Oxygen = Metal oxygen

74.

Write the word equation between metal oxide and carbon.

a)

Metal oxide + Carbon  →\overrightarrow{ } Metal + Carbon dioxide

b)

Metal oxide + Carbon undefined Metal oxide

c)

Metal oxide + Carbon undefinedMetal + Water + Carbon dioxide

d)

Metal oxide + Carbon undefinedMetal oxide + Carbon dioxide

75.

Write the word equation between metal oxide and hydrogen.

a)

Metal oxide + Hydrogen  →\overrightarrow{ } Metal + Water

b)

Metal oxide + Hydrogen undefined Metal hydroxide

c)

Metal oxide + HydrogenundefinedMetal + Water + Carbon dioxide

d)

Metal oxide + HydrogenundefinedMetal oxide + Water

76.

Which reaction explains about exothermic reaction?

a)

Heat is absorbed from the surroundings

b)

Surrounding temperature increases

c)

Heat energy is changed to chemical energy

d)

Thermometer reading decreases

77.

Which statement is correct about endothermic reaction?

a)

Heat is released

b)

Thermometer reading increases

c)

Surrounding temperature increases

d)

Breaks the chemical bonds of the reactant

78.

Respiration is an exothermic reaction.

Which of the following explains about the process?

a)

Release heat to the environment

b)

The chemical bond in glucose is broken down

c)

Heat energy is changed to chemical energy

d)

Forming water as byproduct

79.

Which process does not involve the release of heat energy?

a)

The combustion of petrol

b)

The formation of ice

c)

Volcano eruption

d)

Melting of butter

80.

The diagram shows the bread dough is put into an oven to be baked.

Which statements are correct about the baking process?

Choose more than one answer.

a)

Endothermic reaction occurs

b)

The heat from the oven is absorbed by the dough

c)

Thermal equilibrium achieved when the bread is cooked

d)

The formation of new substance did not occur

81.

The diagram shows sublimation process that occurs in dry ice.

This process is endothermic. Why?

a)

New substance is formed

b)

There is a conversion of energy

c)

Dry ice absorbs heat from surroundings

d)

The water vapour formed is very cold.

82.

Endothermic is a reaction that absorbs heat.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

83.

Breaking the chemical bond releases energy.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

84.

What happens when heat energy is absorbed?

a)

Bond formation occurs

b)

Exothermic reaction

c)

Bond breakage occurs

d)

No change occurred

85.

The diagram shows the set - up of apparatus for an experiment.

Which of the following statements is true about the reaction that occurred in the experiment?

a)

Temperature of water increases

b)

Heat energy is absorbed from the environment

c)

Exothermic reaction occurs

d)

Heat energy is released during reaction

86.

How can we identify that the absorption of heat has occurred?

a)

The surrounding temperature increases

b)

The surrounding temperature decreases

c)

The container will heat up

d)

No change occurs

87.

The diagram shows a chemical reaction.

The initial temperature of distilled water is 27⁰C.

What temperature may be recorded by the thermometer in the sodium hydroxide solution?

a)

35⁰C

b)

20⁰C

c)

18⁰C

d)

10⁰C

88.

Which of the following is an endothermic reaction?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Respiration

c)

Burning of dried leaves

d)

Neutralisation

89.

What is the use of hot pack?

a)

Treating swelling

b)

Cure fever

c)

Relieve joint pain

d)

Relieve inflammation

90.

The temperature of the substance in a reaction remains constant after reaching the thermal equilibrium.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

91.

Choose the tools that apply the concept of thermochemistry reactions.

a)
b)
c)
92.

What is the definition for renewable energy sources?

a)

Energy sources that cannot be replaced and will deplete

b)

Energy sources that can be replaced continually and will never deplete

c)

All renewable resources cannot be used to keep the earth cleaner.

d)

All renewable resources are bad for the environment.

93.

Natural resources form in nature. Which of the following is NOT a natural resource?

a)

Plastic

b)

Oil

c)

Coal

d)

Water

94.

A ________________ is a device used to generate electricity

a)

oil

b)

engine

c)

battery

d)

generator

95.

How do wind turbines generate electricity?

a)

The blades of the wind turbine are moved by the wind, which turns a generator inside it and generates electricity

b)

The National Grid spins the turbines to transfer electricity to homes

c)

Wind turbines do not generate electricity, they heat water

d)

The blades spin to heat water, create steam, which turns a turbine, and produces electricity

96.

Transformers on distribution poles .............. voltage for use in homes.

a)

step up

b)

step down

c)

step right

d)

step left

97.

___________________ is generated at the electricity plant by the burning of fossil fuels

a)

Solar energy

b)

Water

c)

A magnet

d)

Steam

98.

Examples of non-renewable energy are ______________ .

a)

water and wind.

b)

natural gas, coal and oil.

c)

coal, natural gas and wind.

d)

hydropower, solar and nuclear.

99.

How is Electricity Generated?

a)

By the use of turbines

b)

by the use of sub stations

c)

by the use of electricity

d)

by the use of transmission lines

100.

How do Solar power plant produce electricity?

a)

the sunlight turns the turbines

b)

the steam from the sunlight rotates the turbines

c)

it doesn't happen at all.

d)

the solar panels collect the lights coming from the sun.

101.

How does the powerplant produce electricity?

a)

the thunder hit the transmission line and it produce electricity

b)

the water flows and produce steam to turn the turbines and generate electricity

c)

the substation generate the electricity

d)

none of the above

102.

The two types of current are ______________ and _______________ .

a)

Alternating Current

b)

Fluctuating current

c)

Floating current

d)

Direct Current

103.

An electric current that continually reverses direction over time is known as a(n)

a)

fluctuating current

b)

direct current

c)

alternating current

d)

simple current

104.

Electric currents passing through wires will produce a(n)

a)

magnet

b)

insulator

c)

solenoid

d)

magnetic field

105.

A device that uses an electromagnet to measure electric current is a(n) _______________ .

a)

commutator

b)

generator

c)

galvanometer

d)

electric motor

106.

A transformer consists of

a)

Metal Core

b)

Metal core and polymer wire

c)

Metal core and coiled wire

d)

Polymer core and metal wire

107.

Transformer is device that ________________

a)

converts AC voltage to current

b)

converts electrical energy to kinetic energy

c)

converts AC voltage to a different level at the same amplitude

d)

converts AC voltage to a different level at the same frequency

108.

Is the core insulated?

a)

Yes

b)

No

109.

Step-up transformer is a transformer that increases ______________

a)

voltage.

b)

current.

c)

resistance.

d)

conductance.

110.

The function of a transformer is to _____________

a)

raise and lower the apparent power levels

b)

increase or decrease A.C voltage or A.C current levels

c)

transfer DC voltage from the primary winding to the secondary winding

d)

transform mechanical energy into electrical energy

111.

Choose the correct statement:

a)

The ratio of the secondary voltage to the primary voltage is equal to the ratio of the primary turn to the secondary turn

b)

The ratio of the primary current to the secondary current is equal to the ratio of the primary voltage to the secondary voltage

c)

The ratio of the primary apparent power to the secondary apparent power is equal to the ration of the primary voltage to the secondary voltage

d)

The ratio of the secondary current to the primary current is equal to the ratio of the primary turn to the secondary turn

112.

Assume primary has 240 turns and secondary has 60 turns. Primary is connected with 120 V AC power supply. What is the voltage on the secondary?

a)

2 V

b)

30 V

c)

0.333 V

d)

120 V

113.

This picture is an example of a ___________

a)

Step- Up Transformer

b)

Step- Down Transformer

c)

Step- Right Transformer

d)

Step- Left Transformer

114.

The flowchart shows the sequence of the components in the electricity transmission and distribution system.


Power station -----> _____________ -----> National Grid Network ----> Main substation ----> _____________ ----> _____________ ----> Branch substation ----> Step-down transformer

a)

Switch zone, step-up transformer, step-down transformer

b)

Switch zone, step-down transformer, step-up transformer

c)

Step-up transformer, switch zone, step-down transformer

d)

Step-up transformer, step-down transformer, switch zone

115.

The voltage of alternating current, a.c., is ___________ before it is transmitted through the National Grid Network.

a)

increased

b)

decreased

116.

The _______ enables electricity to be transmitted to the branch substation when needed

a)

Switch zone

b)

National Grid Network

c)

Transformer

d)

Power station

117.

2-pin plugs are not connected to the earth wire.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Mei Ling got an electric shock while ironing her clothes. The following information shows the steps taken by his brother to help her.


P- Calls an ambulance

Q- Remove electrical source using an insulator

R- Switches off the main power supply

S- Perform mouth to mouth resuscitation if the victim is not breathing.


Which sequence is correct?

a)

P, R, Q, S

b)

R, Q, S, P

c)

P, Q, R, S

d)

R, Q, P, S

119.

___________ disconnects the current supply temporarily when it is not needed (such as during repairing damaged wiring).

a)

ELCB circuit breaker

b)

Main switch

c)

MCB circuit breaker

d)

Electric meter

120.

___________ cuts off the current supply in the house when excessive current flows through it.

a)

ELCB circuit breaker

b)

Main switch

c)

MCB circuit breaker

d)

Electric meter

121.

___________ separates the final circuit into the other parts of electrical equipment like air conditioner circuit and controls the quantity of current flows through it.

a)

ELCB circuit breaker

b)

Main switch

c)

MCB circuit breaker

d)

Electric meter

122.

The main supply of electrical energy in a house has a voltage of

a)

33 kV

b)

240 V

c)

415 V

d)

621 V

123.

If an electrical appliance uses current of 11 A, which is the suitable value of fuse to be used.

a)

15 A

b)

10 A

c)

5 A

d)

13 A

124.

Why is alternating current used instead of direct current in the transmission of electricity through long distances?

a)

Only alternating current can flow through the cables.

b)

Alternating current voltage can be stepped up or stepped down by using transformers.

c)

Most of the electrical appliances work only with alternating current.

d)

Generating direct current is more complicated than generating alternating current.

125.

What is the function of live wire?

a)

To carry electrical current from electrical appliance to substation

b)

To carry leaked current to the ground

c)

To carry electrical current from station to electrical appliance

d)

melts when the current flowing through it exceeds the value of the fuse.

126.

Which of the following uses single - phase wiring?

a)

Industrial area

b)

Shopping mall

c)

Hotel

d)

Homestay

127.

What is the function of the National Grid Network?

a)

Transmit electrical energy all over the country through high voltage cable network

b)

Store voltage for emergency use

c)

Collect and channel the electrical energy to the consumers

d)

Lower the value of voltage to suit the supplied area

128.

This car needs 8600J of energy to power it. If 5000J is changed into useful energy, how much energy is wasted?

a)

13600J

b)

3600J

c)

5000J

d)

8600J

129.

What is the efficiency of the machine if the input is 263 J and the output is 142 J?

a)

6.26%

b)

185%

c)

260%

d)

54%

130.

What is the work output of a machine that has a work input of 2,800 Joules and an efficiency of 92.3%?

a)

2,690 J

b)

0.0082 J

c)

92.3 J

d)

2,584.4 J

131.

Lucas has been challenged to increase the efficiency of a device he is redesigning. His goal is 90% efficiency. The work input of the device is fixed at 10 joules, so Lucas is trying to improve work output. How many joules of work output should Lucas aim for to attain his goal of 90% efficiency?

a)

9 Joules

b)

0.9 Joules

c)

900 Joules

d)

90 Joules

132.

Which of the following energy transformations occur when a lamp that is plugged into a wall socket is functioning correctly?

a)

Chemical to light

b)

Electrical to light

c)

Electrical to chemical

d)

Chemical to electrical

133.

Which of the following are advantages of 3 phase power as apposed to single phase?

a)

Cheaper installation as less copper needed for same power transmission

b)

3 voltages are available, a line, phase and live voltage

c)

2 voltages are available, a line and a phase voltage

d)

Almost constant power delivery as opposed to pulsating power in single phase can reduce vibration in motors

e)

The voltage is faster in a 3 phase system due to the power transmission

134.

Tick some of the safety components in the Wiring System in Homes

a)

Switch

b)

Generator

c)

ELCB

d)

MCB

e)

Socket

135.

The diagram shows how electrical energy is produced.

What does Q represent?

a)

The water is heated until steam is produced and the turbine is rotated.

b)

The water rotates a motor, which will then rotate a generator.

c)

A mixture of steam and gas is heated until they expand and the turbine is generated.

d)

The water rotates a turbine, which will then rotate a generator.

136.

The diagram shows four transformers, A, B, C and D.

Which transformer is a step - up transformer?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

137.

Where does the electric power voltage begin to be lowered in the electricity transmission and distribution system?

a)

Substation

b)

National power grid

c)

Switch field

d)

Main substation

138.

An electric iron is rated 1050 W, 240 V.

Which of the following is a suitable fuse rating for the iron?

a)

1 A

b)

2 A

c)

3 A

d)

5 A

139.

Which of the following is a problem related to electricity supply in life?

a)

Our country is more dependent on non-renewable energy sources such as petroleum

b)

Inefficient and ineffective use of electricity among the citizen

c)

Malaysia Awareness on saving electricity is still low among Malaysians

d)

Malaysia sells electricity to neighbouring countries to generate the economy

140.

Diagram shows the electricity transmission and distribution system.

P shown is a transformer station.

Voltage that is supplied by Q is 11 kV. What is represented by Q?

a)

Heavy industrial zone

b)

Free commercial zone

c)

Food processing factories

d)

Municipal area

141.

An electric iron is rated 1050 W, 240 V.

Which of the following is a suitable fuse rating for the iron?

a)

1 A

b)

2 A

c)

3 A

d)

5 A

142.
How much work is done in holding a 15 N sack of potatoes while waiting in line at the grocery store for 3 minutes?
a)
15 J
b)
45 J
c)
0 J
d)
5 J
143.
What is the difference between calculating power and work?
a)
Power takes into account the time it takes to complete a task
b)
Work takes into account the time it takes to complete a task
c)
Power is force/area
d)
Work is force/area
144.

The roller coaster car has a mass of 500 kg. It is pulled from position 1 to 2 (30 m) by a motor. At the top of the ride the vertical distance top to bottom is 20 m. The motor pulls the car with a 4000 N force. Calculate the work done getting the car to the top of the ride.

a)

100 000J

b)

120 000J

c)

800 000J

d)

90 000J

145.
Is the amount of energy being transferred over a period of time.
a)
Power
b)
Energy
c)
Seconds
d)
Joules
146.
What is the unit of measurement for power?
a)
Joules
b)
Watts
c)
Voltage
d)
Calories
147.

The ability to do work or cause change:

a)

work

b)

energy

c)

momentum

d)

power

148.

Kinetic energy is associated with ---.

a)

speed

b)

position

c)

direction

d)

temperature

149.
Energy of a rock perched on a cliff is an example of...
a)
gravitational
b)
elastic
c)
chemical
d)
kinetic
150.
Energy from a compressed spring would be an example of...
a)
kinetic
b)
elastic
c)
gravitational
d)
chemical
151.
How do you calculate power?
a)
P = W/t
b)
P = E/t
c)
P = w * t
d)
P = bbq/chicken
152.
What is the formula for Kinetic Energy?
a)
PE = m*g*h
b)
KE = 1/2m*v2
c)
W = F*d
d)
P = W/t
153.
Gravitational potential energy depends on the ________ and ________ of the object. 
a)
Height and mass
b)
Friction and movement
c)
Mass and Movement
d)
Height and Friction 
154.

The SI Unit for Energy is

a)

Joule

b)

Newton

c)

Calorie

d)

Watt

155.

A soccer player kicks a ball with 20 Newtons of force causing it to travel 100 meters. How much work is done on the ball?

a)

200 J

b)

80 J

c)

5 J

d)

2000 J

156.

A worker climbs a ladder and does 8 J of work on a 2 N object. What is the distance they lift the object?

a)

18 m

b)

4 m

c)

10 m

d)

6 m

157.

Two workers use 100 N of force to move a sofa 2 meters in 2 seconds. How much power is required?

a)

100 watts

b)

400 watts

c)

104 watts

d)

50 watts

158.

Energy is

a)

Whether one feels like doing work

b)

the ability to do work

c)

calculated by dividing the amount of work by the amount of time to do the work

d)

just another word for work

159.

Diagram 3 shows a sack of rice being pushed over a distance of 5m. Calculate the work done( assume the gravitational force 10 N kg-1

a)

6 J

b)

60 J

c)

150 J

d)

1500 J

160.

Diagram 2 shows Mary is rowing a boat. Calculate the distance travelled by the boat if the work done is 1500J

a)

0.02 m

b)

30m

c)

1450 m

d)

75000m

161.

The work done by Ali to push a trolley for a distance of 30m is 600 J. calculate the force applied

a)

0.05 N

b)

20 N

c)

570 N

d)

18000N

162.

A stuntman with a mass of 60kg had climbed up the roof of a building which is 50m tall. If the power used for this stunt is 6000W, calculate the time taken by the stuntman to complete this stunt. (assume gravitational force = 10N kg-1)

a)

0.5 s

b)

1.2 s

c)

2s

d)

5s

163.

Diagram 3 shows an activity done by Mazlan. A 200 N weight is lifted by Mazlan to a height 1.5m in 3 second. Calculate the power needed to lift the object

a)

100 W

b)

300 W

c)

600 W

d)

900 W

164.

Antoine Henri Becquerel has discovered...

a)

A. ionising power

b)

B. X-rays

c)

C. radioactivity

d)

D. polonium and radium

165.

Below is the Scientist that involved with radioactivity discovery...

a)

A. Marie and Pierre Curie

b)

B. Marrie and Pierre Wilhelm

c)

C. Marie and Henri

d)

D. Marie and Becquerel

166.

Radioactive radioation consist of...

a)

alpha radiation

b)

ionising radiation

c)

beta radiation

d)

gamma ray

167.

"A random and spontaneous process where an unstable nucleus emits radioactive radiation until the nucleus becomes more stable.."

The statement above refer to...

a)

A. Half -life

b)

B. Nuclei decay

c)

C. Radioactivity

d)

D. Radioactive decay

168.

Iodin-131 decays with half-life is 8 days to become Xenon-131. Calculate the mass of Iodin-131 after 24 days with a mass of 60g.

a)

A. 7.5 g

b)

B. 8.5 g

c)

C. 12.5 g

d)

D. 15.5 g

169.

All examples below were radioactive substance, excpet for....

a)

A. Uranium-235

b)

B. Radon-222

c)

C. Thorium-234

d)

D. Carbon-16

170.

What happen to the oxygen atom?

a)

A. Loses 1 electron

b)

B. Received 2 electrons

c)

C. Nothing happen

d)

D. Have +2 charges

171.

Which of the following above is neutral?

a)

A. P

b)

B. Q

c)

C. R

d)

D. S

172.

The diagram abpve shows one source of ionising radiation. Choose from the answer below the natural ionising radiation.

a)

A. Nuclear test

b)

B. Nuclear accidents

c)

C. Cosmic radiation

d)

D. Radioisotopes in medicine

173.

Note : Ionising radiation dose of televisyen : 0.01mSv/h


Everydays, Batani will watch televisyen for 6 hours. Calculate the dose of ionising radiation received by Ahmad if he repeats the habit for a week.

a)

A. 0.21 mSv

b)

B. 042 mSv

c)

C. 0.40 mSv

d)

D. 0.42 mSv

174.

Which is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere of Sun

a)

Chromosphere

b)

Photosphere

c)

Corona

d)

Core

175.

What is A

a)

Corona

b)

Convection Zone

c)

Radiation Zone

d)

Core

176.

What is B

a)

Corona

b)

Convection Zone

c)

Radiation Zone

d)

Core

177.

What is C

a)

Corona

b)

Convection Zone

c)

Radiation Zone

d)

Core

178.

What is D

a)

Corona

b)

Chromosphere

c)

Photosphere

d)

Atmosphere

179.

What is E

a)

Corona

b)

Chromosphere

c)

Photosphere

d)

Atmosphere

180.

What is F

a)

Corona

b)

Chromosphere

c)

Photosphere

d)

Atmosphere

181.

•The dark regions seen on the surface of the Sun.

a)

Prominence

b)

Sunspot

c)

Solar flare

d)

Granule

182.

•Is huge loop or arched column of glowing gases over the sunspot

a)

Prominence

b)

Sunspot

c)

Solar flare

d)

Granule

183.

•Is a column of large amounts of charged gases erupting from the Sun

a)

Prominence

b)

Sunspot

c)

Solar flare

d)

Granule

184.

•Particles in plasma such as electrons, protons and alpha particles that erupt form the sun to outer space travel together at high speeds known as ________.

a)

Prominence

b)

Solar cycle

c)

Solar wind

d)

Granule

185.

How long is solar cycle last for?

a)

11years

b)

11days

c)

12years

d)

12days

186.

•the region of space surrounding Earth where the dominant magnetic field is the magnetic field of Earth, rather than the magnetic field of interplanetary space.

a)

Earth's magnetic field

b)

Earth megnetosphere

c)

Coronal mass ejection

d)

Solar wind

187.

Following is the Importance of Earth’s Magnetosphere, except

a)

functions as a biological shield to protect life on Earth

b)

blocks charged particles such as electrons, protons and alpha particles in the solar wind from reaching Earth.

c)

reduces the pressure exerted by solar wind on Earth’s atmosphere

d)

disrupt

telecommunication, navigation system and electric power lines

188.

The Sun consists almost entirely of which two types of gases?

a)

Helium

hydrogen

b)

Helium 

Oxygen

c)

Hydrogen 

Oxygen

d)

Hydrogen 

Carbon dioxide

189.

Who invented the Heliocentric Model?

a)

Copernicus

b)

Ptolemy

c)

Kepler

190.

What does 'centric' means?

a)

Sun

b)

Earth

c)

Centre

d)

Copernicus

191.

When was the National Space Agency (NSA) established?

a)

2011

b)

2002

c)

2005

d)

2003

192.

Which satelite was the first to flyby Neptune?

a)

MEASAT 2

b)

US Pioneer 1

c)

Atlas

d)

US Voyager 2

193.

Who first used rockets in the 11th century?

a)

USA

b)

Zambia

c)

China

d)

Russia

194.

What is Tiung-SAT1?

a)

Malaysia's 1st Microsatelite

b)

Malaysia's 1st Satelite

c)

Malaysia's 1st Rocket

d)

Malaysia's 1st Space Probe

195.

Before Galileo's telescope, what was the first space telescope to be used?

a)

Hubble Space Telescope

b)

Spitzer

c)

Sextant

d)

Redstone

196.

Which one of these are rockets?

a)

Sputnik 1

b)

Hubble

c)

Saturn V

d)

Cassini

197.

Who was the first human to go into space?

a)

J.W.W Birch

b)

Sheikh Muszaphar Shukor

c)

Yuri Gagarin

d)

Iman Aiman

198.

When was the modified Heleocentric model used?

a)

1571

b)

168 A.D

c)

1673

d)

1853

199.

What is the technology to take aerial photographs

a)

Space probe

b)

Rocket

c)

Remote sensing

d)

Satellite

200.

In 2017,what space probe was still active orbiting saturn even after 20 years in space?

a)

Cassini

b)

Cassana

c)

Atlas

d)

Spitzer

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