WorksheetsCM-4
Total questions: 133
Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Uroscopy; first documented the importance of sputum examination
a)
Hippocrates
b)
Frederik Dekkers
c)
Thomas Bryant
d)
Thomas Addis
2.
Albuminuria by boiling urine
a)
Hippocrates
b)
Frederik Dekkers
c)
Thomas Bryant
d)
Thomas Addis
3.
Wrote a book about "pisse prophets" (charlatans)
a)
Hippocrates
b)
Frederik Dekkers
c)
Thomas Bryant
d)
Thomas Addis
4.
Examination of urine sediment
a)
Hippocrates
b)
Frederik Dekkers
c)
Thomas Bryant
d)
Thomas Addis
5.
Introduced urinalysis as part of doctor's routine patient examination
a)
Richard Bright
b)
Ludwig Thudichum
c)
Domenico Cotugno
d)
Ivan Følling
6.
Urochrome
a)
Richard Bright
b)
Ludwig Thudichum
c)
Domenico Cotugno
d)
Ivan Følling
7.
Cerebrospinal fluid
a)
Richard Bright
b)
Ludwig Thudichum
c)
Domenico Cotugno
d)
Ivan Følling
8.
Phenylketonuria
a)
Richard Bright
b)
Ludwig Thudichum
c)
Domenico Cotugno
d)
Ivan Følling
9.
Alkaptonuria
a)
Archibald Garrod
b)
Frederick William Pavy
c)
William Wollaston
d)
Stanley Benedict
10.
Orthostatic or cyclic proteinuria
a)
Archibald Garrod
b)
Frederick William Pavy
c)
William Wollaston
d)
Stanley Benedict
11.
Cystine calculi
a)
Archibald Garrod
b)
Frederick William Pavy
c)
William Wollaston
d)
Stanley Benedict
12.
Benedict's reagent
a)
Archibald Garrod
b)
Frederick William Pavy
c)
William Wollaston
d)
Stanley Benedict
13.
The principal salt found in urine is:
a)
Sodium chloride (NaCl)
b)
Potassium phosphate (K₂HPO₄)
c)
Ammonium sulfate ((NH₄)₂SO₄)
d)
Calcium carbonate (CaCO₃)
14.
The major inorganic component of urine is:
a)
Sodium
b)
Potassium
c)
Chloride
d)
Phosphate
15.
The second most abundant organic substance in urine is:
a)
Hippurate
b)
Uric acid
c)
Creatinine
d)
Fatty acids
16.
The major organic component of urine is:
a)
Creatinine
b)
Urea
c)
Uric acid
d)
Hippurate
17.
Urine is composed of approximately how much water?
a)
90–92%
b)
93–94%
c)
95–97%
d)
98–99%
18.
What percentage of solids is normally present in urine?
a)
1–2%
b)
3–5%
c)
6–8%
d)
10%
19.
☆ Most commonly used for routine screening tests and qualitative urinalysis
a)
Random urine
b)
First morning urine
c)
Second morning or fasting urine
d)
2-hour post-prandial urine
20.
Ideal for cytology studies (ONLYIFwith prior hydration, & exercise 5 mins before collection!)
a)
Random urine
b)
First morning urine
c)
Second morning or fasting urine
d)
2-hour post-prandial urine
21.
Most ideal specimen for routine screening/urinalysis and pregnancy testing (hCG)
a)
Random urine
b)
First morning urine
c)
Second morning or fasting urine
d)
2-hour post-prandial urine
22.
Often preferred for cytology studies/cytodiagnostic urine testing
a)
Random urine
b)
First morning urine
c)
Second morning or fasting urine
d)
2-hour post-prandial urine
23.
Most concentrated and most acidic - allows well preservation of cells and casts
a)
Random urine
b)
First morning urine
c)
Second morning or fasting urine
d)
2-hour post-prandial urine
24.
* For evaluation of orthostatic proteinuria
a)
Random urine
b)
First morning urine
c)
Second morning or fasting urine
d)
2-hour post-prandial urine
25.
Patient voids before going to bed, and immediately on rising from sleep collects urine specimen
a)
Random urine
b)
First morning urine
c)
Second morning or fasting urine
d)
2-hour post-prandial urine
26.
2nd voided urine after a period of fasting
a)
Random urine
b)
First morning urine
c)
Second morning or fasting urine
d)
2-hour post-prandial urine
27.
For glucose determination
a)
Random urine
b)
First morning urine
c)
Second morning or fasting urine
d)
2-hour post-prandial urine
28.
Preferred for glucose testing
a)
Random urine
b)
First morning urine
c)
Second morning or fasting urine
d)
2-hour post-prandial urine
29.
For diabetic screening or monitoring
a)
Random urine
b)
First morning urine
c)
Second morning or fasting urine
d)
2-hour post-prandial urine
30.
Optional with blood samples in glucose tolerance test
a)
Glucose tolerance
b)
Fractional specimen
c)
Midstream clean-catch
d)
Catheterized urine
31.
Which of the following is the most sterile?
a)
Midstream cleancatch
b)
Catheterized urine
c)
Suprapubic aspiration
d)
Pediatric specimen
32.
At least 2 voided collection
a)
Glucose tolerance
b)
Fractional specimen
c)
Midstream clean-catch
d)
Catheterized urine
33.
Series of blood and urine samples are collected at specific time intervals to compare concentration of a substance in urine with its concentration in the blood
a)
Glucose tolerance
b)
Fractional specimen
c)
Midstream clean-catch
d)
Catheterized urine
34.
Used in the diagnosis of diabetes
a)
Glucose tolerance
b)
Fractional specimen
c)
Midstream clean-catch
d)
Catheterized urine
35.
For routine screening and bacterial culture (OPD)
a)
Glucose tolerance
b)
Fractional specimen
c)
Midstream clean-catch
d)
Catheterized urine
36.
Patient should thoroughly cleanse his glans penis or her urethral meatus before collection
a)
Glucose tolerance
b)
Fractional specimen
c)
Midstream clean-catch
d)
Catheterized urine
37.
☆ For bacterial culture
a)
Glucose tolerance
b)
Fractional specimen
c)
Midstream clean-catch
d)
Catheterized urine
38.
May be urethral or ureteral
a)
Glucose tolerance
b)
Fractional specimen
c)
Midstream clean-catch
d)
Catheterized urine
39.
Abdominal wall is punctured, and urine is directly aspirated from the bladder
a)
Suprapubic aspiration
b)
Pediatric specimen
c)
Three glass technique
40.
Bladder urine for anaerobic bacterial culture and urine cytology
a)
Suprapubic aspiration
b)
Pediatric specimen
c)
Three glass technique
41.
Most sterile
a)
Suprapubic aspiration
b)
Pediatric specimen
c)
Three glass technique
42.
Use of soft, clear plastic bag with adhesive
a)
Suprapubic aspiration
b)
Pediatric specimen
c)
Three glass technique
43.
Sterile specimen obtained by catheterization or suprapubic aspiration
a)
Suprapubic aspiration
b)
Pediatric specimen
c)
Three glass technique
44.
Urine collected from diaper is NOT recommended for testing
a)
Suprapubic aspiration
b)
Pediatric specimen
c)
Three glass technique
45.
For prostatic infection
. 1. First portion portion of voided urine
2. Middle portion of voided urine
3. Urine after prostatic massage
a)
Suprapubic aspiration
b)
Pediatric specimen
c)
Three glass technique
46.
Detects prostatitis
a)
Suprapubic aspiration
b)
Pediatric specimen
c)
Three glass technique
47.
In the Three-Glass Technique, which urine specimens are examined microscopically for WBCs and bacteria?
a)
1st and 2nd specimens
b)
2nd and 3rd specimens
c)
1st and 3rd specimens
d)
All three specimens
48.
In the three glass technique, a finding of WBCs and bacteria in the 3rd specimen that are 10 times greater than the 1st specimen indicates:
a)
Cystitis
b)
Pyelonephritis
c)
Urethritis
d)
Prostatitis
49.
In the three glass technique, which one serves as the control?
a)
1st specimen
b)
2nd specimen
c)
3rd specimen
d)
All
50.
In the three glass technique, if control is positive for WBCs and bacteria, the results from the ___ specimen are considered invalid.
a)
1st specimen
b)
2nd specimen
c)
3rd specimen
d)
All
51.
In the Three-Glass Technique, the 2nd specimen serves as the control for:
a)
Urethral infection only
b)
Bladder and kidney infection
c)
Prostatic secretion
d)
Contamination from external genitalia
52.
At start time, patient empties bladder into toilet; then all subsequent urine is collected. At end time, patient empties bladder into collection container. Requires preservative - it depends on the test performed
a)
24 hour urine specimen
b)
12 hour urine specimen
c)
4 hour urine specimen
d)
Afternoon urine specimen
53.
For addis count (quantitation of formed elements)
a)
24 hour urine specimen
b)
12 hour urine specimen
c)
4 hour urine specimen
d)
Afternoon urine specimen
54.
For nitrite determination
a)
24 hour urine specimen
b)
12 hour urine specimen
c)
4 hour urine specimen
d)
Afternoon urine specimen
55.
Urine remains in bladder for at least 4 hours before voiding
a)
24 hour urine specimen
b)
12 hour urine specimen
c)
4 hour urine specimen
d)
Afternoon urine specimen
56.
For urobilinogen determination due to diurnal variation
a)
24 hour urine specimen
b)
12 hour urine specimen
c)
4 hour urine specimen
d)
Afternoon urine specimen
57.
The Stamey-Meares Test is also known as the:
a)
Two-glass method
b)
Three-glass method
c)
Four-glass method
d)
Split urine test
58.
Which specimen in the Stamey-Meares test evaluates for urethral infection or inflammation?
a)
VB1
b)
VB2
c)
VB3
d)
EPS
59.
The VB2 specimen in the Stamey-Meares test is used to assess infection in which site?
a)
Urethra
b)
Prostate
c)
Urinary bladder
d)
Kidneys
60.
Having more than how many WBCs per high power field (HPF) in the expressed prostatic secretions in the Stamey-Meares test is considered abnormal?
a)
5–10 WBCs/HPF
b)
10–20 WBCs/HPF
c)
20–30 WBCs/HPF
d)
>50 WBCs/HPF
61.
The post-prostatic massage urine specimen (VB3) helps detect which of the following?
a)
Bladder infection
b)
Residual prostatic infection
c)
Urethral inflammation
d)
Kidney function
62.
What is the purpose of the chain of custody in drug specimen collection?
a)
To maintain specimen temperature
b)
To document proper sample identification and handling from the time of collection to the recelpt of laboratory results
c)
To test the accuracy of laboratory instruments
d)
To prevent contamination during analysis
63.
What is the required urine volume for a drug specimen collection?
a)
10–20 mL
b)
20–30 mL
c)
30–45 mL
d)
50–60 mL
64.
What is the container capacity for urine used in drug testing?
a)
30 mL
b)
45 mL
c)
60 mL
d)
100 mL
65.
The urine specimen temperature should be checked within how many minutes after collection?
a)
1 minute
b)
2 minutes
c)
4 minutes
d)
10 minutes
66.
The acceptable temperature range for a freshly collected urine specimen is:
a)
25–30 °C
b)
32.5–37.7 °C
c)
38–42 °C
d)
20–25 °C
67.
If the urine drug specimen temperature is outside the acceptable range, what should be done immediately?
a)
Discard the sample
b)
Record the temperature and contact the supervisor
c)
Freeze the sample for retesting
d)
Continue testing as normal
68.
What is the purpose of adding a bluing agent to the toilet water reservoir during drug specimen collection?
a)
To check urine pH
b)
To prevent specimen adulteration
c)
To sterilize the toilet
d)
To measure specific gravity
69.
In the 24 hour timed urine specimen, which is discarded?
a)
First morning urine during the first day of collection
b)
First morning urine during the second day of collection
c)
First part of the urine during midstream catch in the first day of collection
d)
First afternoon urine in both days of collection
70.
A 24-hour urine container should have a total capacity of approximately:
a)
1L
b)
2L
c)
3L
d)
5L
71.
Why are some 24-hour urine containers colored?
a)
To prevent contamination
b)
To protect light-sensitive analytes
c)
To help in visual identification
d)
To improve specimen odor
72.
Adding urine before the start of the 24-hour collection period will cause results to be:
a)
Falsely decreased
b)
Falsely increased
c)
Unaffected
d)
Invalidated automatically
73.
Failing to include urine at the end of the 24-hour collection period will cause results to be:
a)
Falsely decreased
b)
Falsely increased
c)
Unaffected
d)
Invalidated automatically
74.
When both a routine urinalysis (UA) and a urine culture are requested, which should be performed first?
a)
Routine urinalysis
b)
Culture
c)
Microscopic examination
d)
Chemical testing
75.
After collection, urine specimens should be delivered to the laboratory and tested within how many hours?
a)
1 hour
b)
2 hours
c)
4 hours
d)
6 hours
76.
urine specimens should ideally be tested within how many minutes after collection?
a)
15 minutes
b)
30 minutes
c)
45 minutes
d)
60 minutes
77.
The physical, chemical, and microscopic characteristics of urine begin to change:
a)
After 1 hour of storage
b)
Only after refrigeration
c)
As soon as the urine is voided
d)
After centrifugation
78.
pH
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
79.
Bacteria
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
80.
Odor
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
81.
Nitrite
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
82.
Color
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
83.
Clarity
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
84.
Glucose
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
85.
Ketones
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
86.
Bilirubin
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
87.
Ketones
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
88.
Urobilinogen
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
89.
RBCs/WBCs/Casts
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
90.
Trichomonas
a)
Increased in unpreserved urine
b)
Darkened or modified in unpreserved urine
c)
Decreased in unpreserved urine
91.
Which of the following is the main cause of increase in an unpreserved urine?
a)
pH
b)
Bacteria
c)
Odor
d)
Nitrite
92.
Which of the following is least affected by an unpreserved urine specimen?
a)
Glucose
b)
Ketones
c)
Bilirubin
d)
Protein
e)
Urobilinogen
93.
Which urine preservative is the preservative of choice for routine UA and urine culture?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
94.
Which urine preservative prevents bacterial growth for 24 hours?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
95.
Which urine preservative does not interfere with chemical tests?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
96.
Which urine preservative Raises SG by hydrometer Precipitates amorphous phosphates and urates?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
97.
Which urine preservative preserves protein & formed elements well?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
98.
Which urine preservative does not interfere with routine analyses other than pH?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
99.
Which urine preservative may precipitate crystals when used in large amounts?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
100.
Which urine preservative keeps pH about 6.0 Bacteriostatic at 18 g/L?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
101.
Which urine preservative is used for culture transport, C&s Interferes with drug & hormone analyses?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
102.
Which urine preservative preserves glucose & sediments well?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
103.
Which urine preservative interferes with acid precipitation test for protein?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
104.
Which urine preservative is an excellent sediment preservative?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
105.
Which urine preservative is a reducing agent, interferes with chemical tests for glucose, blood, leukocytes & copper reduction?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
106.
Which urine preservative is the preservative of choice for addis count?
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
107.
Rinse specimen container with ___ to preserve cells and casts
a)
Refrigeration
b)
Thymol
c)
Boric acid
d)
Formalin
108.
Which urine preservative does not interfere with routine tests?
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
109.
Which urine preservative floats on urine surface; clings to pipettes & testing materials?
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
110.
Which urine preservative is the best all-around preservative?
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
111.
Which urine preservative prevents glycolysis?
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
112.
Which urine preservative is a good preservative for drug analysls?
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
113.
Which urine preservative inhibits reagent strip tests for glucose, blood & leukocytes?
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
114.
Sodium benzoate may serve as an alternative instead of ___ in reagent strip testing
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
115.
Which urine preservative causes an odor change?
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
116.
Use 1 drop/ounce of specimen
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
117.
Which urine preservative is convenient when refrigeration not possible?
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
118.
Which urine preservative have controlled concentration to minimize interference?
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
119.
Which urine preservative may contain one or more of the preservatives including sodium fluoride?
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
120.
Check tablet composition to determine possible effects on desired tests
a)
Toluene (Toluol)
b)
Sodium fluoride
c)
Phenol
d)
Commercial preservative tablets
121.
Contains collection cup, C & S preservative tube or UA tube
a)
Urine collection kits
b)
Gray C & S tube
c)
Yellow plain UA tube
d)
Cherry red or yellow top tube
e)
Saccomanno fixative
122.
Sample stable at room temperature for 48 hrs; preserves bacteria
a)
Urine collection kits
b)
Gray C & S tube
c)
Yellow plain UA tube
d)
Cherry red or yellow top tube
e)
Saccomanno fixative
123.
Decreases pH; do not use if urine is below minimum fill line
a)
Urine collection kits
b)
Gray C & S tube
c)
Yellow plain UA tube
d)
Cherry red or yellow top tube
e)
Saccomanno fixative
124.
Preservative is boric acid and may not be used for UA
a)
Urine collection kits
b)
Gray C & S tube
c)
Yellow plain UA tube
d)
Cherry red or yellow top tube
e)
Saccomanno fixative
125.
Use on automated instruments
a)
Urine collection kits
b)
Gray C & S tube
c)
Yellow plain UA tube
d)
Cherry red or yellow top tube
e)
Saccomanno fixative
126.
Must refrigerate w/in 2 hours
a)
Urine collection kits
b)
Gray C & S tube
c)
Yellow plain UA tube
d)
Cherry red or yellow top tube
e)
Saccomanno fixative
127.
Round or conical bottom
a)
Urine collection kits
b)
Gray C & S tube
c)
Yellow plain UA tube
d)
Cherry red or yellow top tube
e)
Saccomanno fixative
128.
Stable for 72 hours at room temp; instrument compatible
a)
Urine collection kits
b)
Gray C & S tube
c)
Yellow plain UA tube
d)
Cherry red or yellow top tube
e)
Saccomanno fixative
129.
Bilirubin & urobilinogen may be decreased if specimen is exposed to light & left at RT
a)
Urine collection kits
b)
Gray C & S tube
c)
Yellow plain UA tube
d)
Cherry red or yellow top tube
e)
Saccomanno fixative
130.
Preservative is sodium propionate; conical bottom
a)
Urine collection kits
b)
Gray C & S tube
c)
Yellow plain UA tube
d)
Cherry red or yellow top tube
e)
Saccomanno fixative
131.
Preserves cellular elements
a)
Urine collection kits
b)
Gray C & S tube
c)
Yellow plain UA tube
d)
Cherry red or yellow top tube
e)
Saccomanno fixative
132.
Used for cytology studies (50 mL urine)
a)
Urine collection kits
b)
Gray C & S tube
c)
Yellow plain UA tube
d)
Cherry red or yellow top tube
e)
Saccomanno fixative
133.
If a urine specimen for culture is not processed immediately, what are you going to do?
a)
Discard and request for a new specimen
b)
Refrigerate the specimen
c)
Dilute the specimen
d)
Freeze the specimen
100 %
