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Test- Ballistics arson and explosives

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of these is TRUE about collecting and submitting firearms evidence?
a)
Never package bullets or casings in the same evidence bag
b)
Place special barrel protectors inside the barrel of the gun when transporting to the lab
c)
If a gun is found in a river, package the gun in river water to submit to the lab
d)
Package clothing in air-tight bags to prevent contamination
2.
This mark is due to the...
a)
firing pin hitting the primer
b)
the extractor grabbing the casing
c)
the rifling in the barrel cutting grooves in the bullet
d)
the ejector pushing the cartridge out of the gun
e)
the cartridge slamming against the breech face of the gun
3.
What type of breech face pattern is this?
a)
parallel
b)
mottled
c)
circular
d)
striated
4.
This impression only on the head of the cartridge is caused by..
a)
firing pin hitting the primer
b)
the extractor grabbing the casing
c)
the rifling in the barrel cutting grooves in the bullet
d)
the ejector pushing the cartridge out of the gun
e)
the cartridge slamming against the breech face of the gun
5.
Which of these is Class evidence?
a)
firing pin impression
b)
striations on the bullet
c)
breech face impression
d)
make and caliber of a cartridge case
6.
Select the characteristics of a hand gun
a)
has rifling down the barrel
b)
short barrel
c)
shoots cartridges
d)
barrel has thin walls
e)
smooth barrel
7.
Select the characteristics of a shot gun
a)
barrel has thin walls
b)
smooth barrel
c)
shoots shot shells
d)
has rifling down the barrel
e)
short barrel
8.
Which of these is the largest rifle?
a)
.380
b)
.22
c)
.45
d)
.40
9.
What is IBIS?
a)
A beautiful tropical bird
b)
A computer database the stores and searches ballistics evidence
c)
The CSI division that analyzes ballistic evidence
d)
Markings on casings and bullets that are unique to each gun
10.
Which of these is TRUE about Gunshot Residue tests?
a)
GSR tests are used to determine if a person recently held a gun
b)
GSR stays on skin and clothing for days, sometimes weeks
c)
GSR is very sticky, so does not cross contaminate from one surface to another
11.
Which statement is FALSE?
a)
all explosions happen very quickly
b)
explosions release physical energy
c)
explosions release chemical energy
d)
some explosions create an inward force that pulls objects down
12.
Which statement is FALSE?
a)
explosives that detonate are also called high explosives
b)
an example of an explosive that detonates is TNT
c)
some detonation explosives have shock waves that move slower than the speed of sound
d)
detonation explosives are explosive materials that react (burn) faster than the speed of sound
13.
Which statement is FALSE?
a)
explosives that deflagrate contain explosive materials that react (burn) slower than the speed of sound
b)
an example of a deflagration explosive is C4
c)
some deflagration explosives have shock waves that move faster than the speed of sound
d)
explosives that deflagrate are also called low explosives
14.
What is a shock wave?
a)
compressed air that moves out from the center of the explosion
b)
compressed earth (dirt) that ripples out from the center of the explosion
c)
the reaction of buildings as they fall in a wave pattern moving out from the center of the explosion
d)
an electric field that moves out from the center of the explosion
15.
Which of these cause the MOST damage during an explosion?
a)
the shock wave
b)
shrapnel
c)
heat from the blast
d)
the chemical burns from the blast
16.
Which of these terms describes the location that the bomb was when it exploded?
a)
the epicenter
b)
the seat of the explosion
c)
the center of the explosion
d)
ALL of these mean the same thing
17.
All bombs have three things. Which of these do some bombs NOT have?
a)
some type of explosive material
b)
a timer or switch
c)
a fuse
d)
a method of starting the explosive reaction
18.
What makes pipe bombs and pressure cooker bombs similar?
a)
both types of bomb always have the same explosive material inside
b)
both type of bomb are sealed, undergo extreme pressure, then burst
c)
both types of bomb can be purchased from a manufacturer ready to use
d)
both types of bomb use the same switch mechanism to detonate
19.
Which type of bomb is usually very unstable and can easily be detonated accidentally?
a)
pipe bombs
b)
pressure cooker bombs
c)
letter bombs
d)
car bomb
e)
liquid explosives bomb
20.
Which type of bomb is usually very stable and rigged to be detonated by the victim.
a)
pipe bombs
b)
pressure cooker bombs
c)
letter bombs
d)
car bomb
e)
liquid explosives bomb
21.
Which type of bomb is the reason you can not bring a bottle of soda on a plane?
a)
pipe bombs
b)
pressure cooker bombs
c)
letter bombs
d)
car bomb
e)
liquid explosives bomb
22.
Which type of bomb usually contains a very large amount of explosive material?
a)
pipe bombs
b)
pressure cooker bombs
c)
letter bombs
d)
car bomb
e)
liquid explosives
23.
Which of these is a sign that a package may contain a bomb?
a)
there is an excessive number of postage stamps on the package
b)
the package has oily stains on the outside
c)
the package is heavier than it should be for its size
d)
the return address is from someone you do not know
24.
What group of people are in charge of finding and disposing of undetonated bombs?
a)
the FBI
b)
CSI
c)
the Bomb Squad
d)
the police
25.
What group of people are in charge of finding and collecting evidence at the bomb scene?
a)
the FBI
b)
CSI
c)
the Bomb Squad
d)
the police
26.
Which of these tools can detect a bomb by its chemical odor.
a)
a trained dog
b)
an x-ray machine
c)
a bomb robot
d)
a sensor in the protective suit
27.
A fragment of the bomb has been found at the scene of an explosion. How is it collected as evidence?
a)
it is put into an airtight container
b)
it is put into a porous paper bag
c)
it is put into a ridged container
d)
it is put into a sealed plastic bag
28.
All of these may be learned by studying bomb fragments - EXCEPT...
a)
if a high explosive or low explosive was used in the bomb
b)
the type of bomb that was used
c)
where the bomb may have been made
d)
who may have made the bomb
29.
Explosive residue has been found at the scene of an explosion. How is it collected as evidence?
a)
it is put into an airtight container
b)
it is put into a porous paper bag
c)
it is put into a ridged container
d)
it is put into a sealed plastic bag
30.
Which of these is NOT the job of the ATF?
a)
setting laws about the manufacture of explosives
b)
investigating the criminal use of explosives
c)
educating manufactures to look for suspicious orders of bomb parts
d)
regulating the sale of explosive materials
31.
Select the characteristics of a rifle
a)
has rifling down the barrel
b)
shoots cartridges
c)
short barrel
d)
barrel has thin walls
e)
smooth barrel
32.

The lines found on this primer are caused by...

a)
firing pin hitting the primer
b)
the extractor grabbing the casing
c)
the rifling in the barrel cutting grooves in the bullet
d)
the ejector pushing the cartridge out of the gun
e)
the cartridge slamming against the breech face of the gun
33.
Which of these is the largest shotgun (shoots the largest ammunition)?
a)
20 gauge
b)
4 gauge
c)
12 gauge
d)
10 gauge
34.
What can be determined by studying GSR pattens on a victim's clothing?
a)
The distance between the clothing and the gun muzzle
b)
The caliber or gauge of the weapon used
c)
The speed of the bullet when it hit the clothing
d)
The angle at which the bullet hit the clothing
35.
The striations on this bullet are caused by...
a)
firing pin hitting the primer
b)
the extractor grabbing the casing
c)
the rifling in the barrel cutting grooves in the bullet
d)
the ejector pushing the cartridge out of the gun
e)
the cartridge slamming against the breech face of the gun
36.
Two bullets are found to have the same striation pattern. What does the mean?
a)
both bullets were shot from the same type (brand) of gun
b)
both bullets are the same size and made of the same material
c)
both bullets were shot into the same target
d)
both bullets were shot from the same gun
37.
Which of the statements below is FALSE?
a)
The mark in the center of the primer was made by the firing pin
b)
The impression made in the center of the primer can be used to determine the exact weapon that fired it
c)
Both cartridges have been shot from the same gun
d)
The head stamp of the cartridge on the right is different from the cartridge on the left
38.
Which pattern on a floor is most classically associated with a pour pattern from an accelerant?
a)
Small pinpoint scorch marks only
b)
Irregular V-shaped char with distinct boundaries (pour pattern)
c)
Single straight line of soot
d)
Uniform charring across entire room
39.
What is the best initial indicator that a fire may have multiple points of origin?
a)
Multiple, unconnected V-patterns or separate deep-burning areas inconsistent with single spread progression
b)
Even charring on ceilings only
c)
Presence of only melted plastics
d)
One small localized burn area
40.
Flashover is best described as:
a)
Rising smoke only without flame
b)
The slow smoldering of upholstery
c)
A rapid transition to near-simultaneous ignition of all exposed combustibles in a compartment
d)
The first small flame at the seat of a fire
41.
Why is documenting ventilation openings important during fire scene examination?
a)
Ventilation always hides evidence and should be sealed immediately
b)
Ventilation controls air flow and can direct fire spread, affect burn patterns, and influence origin reconstruction
c)
Only useful for firefighter safety but not investigation
d)
Ventilation is irrelevant to fire behavior
42.
Which of the following best explains why a basement fire may show upward burn patterns through stairwells?
a)
Basement fires never spread upward
b)
Hot gases rise and can channel heat and smoke upward, igniting higher materials and producing upward patterns
c)
Water from hoses causes upward patterns
d)
Only electrical fires create upward burn marks
43.
What is a major limitation of using only visual burn patterns to declare arson?
a)
Visual patterns are banned as evidence
b)
Visual patterns are sufficient without documentation
c)
Many burn patterns can be produced by accidental fires or firefighting activities; laboratory analysis for accelerants and careful scene reconstruction are needed
d)
Visual patterns always reliably indicate accelerants
44.
What is the recommended sample container for suspected accelerant residues to preserve volatile compounds?
a)
Paper cups
b)
Open plastic bags
c)
Metal paint cans or sealed glass jars with tight lids
d)
Cardboard boxes without seal
45.
Why should investigators collect both substrate (e.g., carpet) samples and surrounding debris when accelerant use is suspected?
a)
Debris always destroys accelerant traces
b)
Substrate samples are useless
c)
To compare residue concentration, locate migration pathways, and provide representative samples for lab analysis
d)
Only the most burned item is needed
46.
A deep char at the base of a wall progressing upward in a V-shape most likely indicates:
a)
The V indicates water flow direction
b)
The fire likely originated at or near the narrow end of the V (near the base)
c)
The fire originated at the ceiling
d)
It indicates only electrical fault without location info
47.
How does fire travel through void spaces affect origin determination?
a)
Void space effects are irrelevant
b)
Hidden voids can channel fire and produce burn patterns distant from the origin, complicating interpretation if not investigated
c)
Void spaces prevent fire spread
d)
They always preserve accelerant evidence intact
48.
Which safety practice is critical when collecting fire scene samples?
a)
Wear PPE (respirator, gloves) and ensure scene is safe from structural collapse and hot spots before sampling
b)
Collect samples immediately without PPE
c)
No safety gear is required if a fire occurred earlier
d)
Sampling should be done only at night
49.
Why are control (background) samples collected away from the fire-affected area?
a)
To detect possible environmental or household hydrocarbons and ensure detected compounds are associated with the fire scene, not background
b)
Controls are unnecessary
c)
Background samples should be from the same charred spot
d)
They are used to extinguish the fire
50.
Which factor can cause apparent “accelerant” signatures in laboratory analysis even if none were used?
a)
Only gasoline can produce hydrocarbons
b)
All lab positives are definitive proof of arson
c)
Household products (paints, adhesives, cleaners) and building materials can produce hydrocarbon signatures similar to common accelerants
d)
Lab instruments never detect non-accelerant hydrocarbons
51.
The forensic laboratory method frequently used to separate and identify volatile accelerant compounds is _____.
a)
Thin-layer chromatography
b)
pH titration
c)
Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GC-MS)
d)
Micro-FTIR only
52.
A deep charring pattern with a narrow origin is often called a _____ pattern (hint: shape).
a)
Horizontal band
b)
V-pattern
c)
Circular donut
d)
Linear drip
53.
When collecting fire debris for lab analysis, evidence should be packaged and sealed promptly to prevent _____ loss of volatiles.
a)
evaporative
b)
thermal
c)
radiative
d)
mechanical
54.
The rapid spread of fire across all combustibles in a room due to build-up of heat and gases is called _____.
a)
flashover
b)
backdraft
c)
smoldering
d)
extinguishment
55.
_____ sampling (collecting samples both within and away from the burn area) helps distinguish scene-related residues from background sources.
a)
Random
b)
Visual only
c)
Control or background
d)
Single-point
56.
A rapid backdraft occurs when oxygen is suddenly introduced into a confined oxygen-depleted space containing hot gases, causing _____.
a)
water vapor formation
b)
explosive ignition or rapid flame front
c)
steady cooling
d)
smoke dissipation without flame
57.
Soot deposition and melted materials at the ceiling level can indicate _____ in the compartment prior to ventilation.
a)
high heat and smoke accumulation (possible pre-ventilation flashover conditions)
b)
low heat only
c)
intentional cleaning
d)
only electrical wiring faults
58.
Documentation of witness statements should be integrated with physical evidence because they provide _____ for reconstructing events.
a)
automatic proof of arson
b)
only hearsay with no value
c)
replacement for lab tests
d)
context and timelines for corroboration with scene data
59.
To avoid contaminating evidence, investigators should change gloves and tools and use _____ when collecting multiple debris samples.
a)
open flames
b)
no containers
c)
separate sterile tools and containers for each sample
d)
one tool for everything
60.
A carefully documented chain of custody ensures the evidentiary _____ and admissibility of lab results in court.
a)
integrity
b)
weight
c)
color
d)
speed
61.
A pour pattern that shows a higher concentration of charring near a path and less along the edges could suggest _____ application of an accelerant.
a)
no accelerant
b)
direct or concentrated
c)
water application
d)
indirect
62.
A common presumptive field screening tool for hydrocarbons provides a quick indication but always requires _____ for confirmation.
a)
another field sniff test
b)
laboratory confirmatory analysis (e.g., GC-MS)
c)
visual inspection only
d)
no further testing
63.
Investigators should note the presence of unusual items (e.g., containers, soaked rags) because they can be _____ for accelerant delivery.
a)
potential evidence
b)
always irrelevant
c)
only useful for aesthetics
d)
dangerous to ignore only for safety
64.
When writing reports and testifying, examiners must clearly separate observed facts from _____ to avoid misleading the court.
a)
lab equipment names
b)
past convictions
c)
photographs
d)
interpretations and opinions
65.
Both shot shells and cartridges are made of similar parts. Which of the following is ONLY found in shot shells?
a)
wad
b)
projectile
c)
casing
d)
primer
e)
gunpowder
66.
This Gunshot Residue pattern was shot with the muzzle 2 inches away. Which statement is FALSE?
a)
The residue on the paper is made up of unburned gunpowder
b)
A larger bullet would make a larger hole
c)
If this gun was shot at 16 inches away from the paper, the residue pattern would look like this, but larger (covering more of the paper)
d)
Gunshot residue is expelled (released) by all guns when they fire
67.
Which of the following would be considered an area of terminal ballistic analysis?
a)
The shape of a bullet hole
b)
Firing pin marks on a cartridge
c)
Striations on a bullet
d)
The caliber of a suspect's weapon
68.
You have measured the height and width for each of these bullet holes. Listed below are the trajectory angles you calculated from highest to lowest. Which of these measurements MOST LIKELY represents bullet hole A?
a)
80 degrees
b)
70 degrees
c)
50 degrees
d)
20 degrees
69.
Based on the shape of this bullet hole, which direction did the bullet come from?
a)
From direction A
b)
From direction B
c)
From direction C
d)
From direction D
70.
Which of these describes an exit hole only?
a)
An exit hole is about the size as the bullet caliber that made it
b)
An exit hole is ragged and uneven
c)
An exit hole may have bullet wipe
d)
An material around the hole is pushed inward
71.

In forensic ballistics, what makes a bullet's striations unique to a specific firearm?

a)
Individual tool marks from the barrel's rifling
b)
Metal composition
c)
Manufacturing date
d)
Bullet weight
72.
Which forensic technique provides the most definitive evidence of arson?
a)
Fire scene photography
b)
Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry of accelerant residues
c)
Witness statements
d)
Visual burn pattern analysis
73.
What makes explosive residue analysis challenging in forensic investigations?
a)
Limited laboratory equipment
b)
Lack of trained personnel
c)
Rapid chemical decomposition
d)
Potential contamination from background hydrocarbons
74.
Why are void spaces critical in fire origin determination?
a)
They always indicate arson
b)
They reduce fire spread
c)
They can conceal fire's actual point of origin
d)
They prevent heat transfer
75.
In terminal ballistics, what does the shape of an entry wound primarily reveal?
a)
Exact bullet caliber
b)
Shooter's distance
c)
Bullet's composition
d)
Weapon type
76.
What makes pipe bombs particularly dangerous for forensic investigators?
a)
Unpredictable detonation mechanism
b)
Complex chemical composition
c)
High potential for fragmentation
d)
Difficult to trace materials
77.
Which factor most significantly complicates gunshot residue (GSR) analysis?
a)
Rapid particle dispersion
b)
Environmental contamination
c)
Limited detection window
d)
Inconsistent collection protocols
78.
What characteristic indicates potential multiple points of origin in an arson investigation?
a)
Isolated burn areas with different char depths
b)
Single V-pattern
c)
Uniform burn patterns
d)
Consistent material damage
79.
Why are control samples crucial in accelerant residue analysis?
a)
To compare with evidence samples
b)
To demonstrate investigator competence
c)
To validate laboratory equipment
d)
To establish baseline environmental hydrocarbons
80.
What makes backdraft a critical phenomenon in fire scene reconstruction?
a)
It can dramatically alter fire patterns
b)
It always indicates arson
c)
It prevents fire spread
d)
It reduces oxygen consumption
81.

Which of these are NOT types of individual evidence found on parts of a cartridge?

a)

Breech marks

b)

Firing pin impression

c)

Rifling patterns

d)

Manufacturer's stamp

82.

Place the steps of a firearm in order from beginning to end

1) The pressure of the ignition pushes the bullet from the casing and into the barrel of the firearm

2) The bullet follows the lands and groves pattern of the barrel and spirals out of the barrel

3) The trigger is pulled and firing pin from the firearm hits the base of the cartridge, igniting the powder inside the bullet

a)

1,2,3

b)

3,2,1

c)

2,1,3

d)

3,1,2

83.

What is the best description of the caliber?

a)

the length of the cartridge

b)

the diameter of the bullet

c)

the length of the bullet

d)

the diameter of the cartridge

84.

What letter is point to an ejector mark?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

85.

What type of twist does this bullet show?



(a)  

86.
Why was rifling added to the barrels of guns?
a)
To make bullets shoot straighter
b)
To make bullets traceable at crime scenes
c)
To make bullets go faster
d)
To cause bullets to separate from the cartridge
87.
What is #2 pointing to?
a)
Primer
b)
Firing Pin
c)
Flash Hole
d)
Gun Powder
88.
What is #4 pointing to?
a)
Cartridge Case
b)
Firing Pin
c)
Bullet
d)
Gun Powder
89.
What caused the bullet to move from the chamber into the barrel?
a)
Pressure from the expanding gun powder
b)
Firing pin pushes it down the barrel
c)
The trigger manually moves the bullet into the barrel
d)
Pressure from the ignited primer powder
90.

Why is rifling important for forensic ballistic analysis?

a)

It spins the bullet, making it more accurate.

b)

It makes the bullet travel farther before losing accuracy/

c)

It can be found in all firearms.

d)

It makes indentations on the bullet that are unique to the firearm.

91.

Which term accurately describes the part of the gun labeled F

a)

Gun Barrel

b)

Trigger Guard

c)

Action

d)

Trigger

92.
What is the difference between a bullet and a cartridge?
a)
the bullet is the projectile, while the cartridge holds the bullet, powder, and primer
b)
the cartridge is the projectile, while the bullet holds the cartridge, powder, and primer
c)
they are the same thing
d)
a bullet is larger and used more frequently than a cartridge
93.

Which of the following is not a component of a cartridge?

a)

Bullet

b)

Casing

c)

Primer powder

d)

Firing pin

94.

The burning an unoccupied building such as an empty barn or an unoccupied house or other structure in order to claim insurance on such property is known as _____ degree arson.

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

95.

Which of the following is NOT a way that investigators identify accelerants?

a)

  searching for the smell of gasoline

b)

portable hydrocarbon detectors

c)

accelerant sniffing dogs

d)

pour patterns

96.

Which one of these accelerants is more likely to explode?

a)

turpentine

b)

isopropyl alcohol

c)

gasoline

d)

kerosene

97.

for combustion to be initiated and sustained, all of the following elements must be present except

a)

presence of fuel

b)

availability of oxygen

c)

the absence of carbon monoxide

d)

application of heat

98.

The criminal setting of a fire

a)

arson

b)

fire setting

c)

pyromania

99.

a man lights several fires in his apartmemt complex on the same day. which best describes his behavior?

a)

pyromania

b)

spree arson

c)

serial arson

d)

mass arson

100.

_____ are trails of accelerant use to carry a fire from one location to another.

a)

Streamers

b)

Vapors

c)

Burn patterns

d)

Hydrocarbons

101.

Which of the following statement is true of arson investigation?

a)

A fuel must be present

b)

Oxygen must be available in sufficient quantity to combine with the fuel

c)

Hydrogen gas must be transformed into another state of matter

d)

Heat must be applied to initiate the combustion, and sufficient heat must be generated to sustain the reaction

102.

Which of the following is NOT a way that investigators identify accelerants?

a)

Portable hydrocarbon detectors

b)

Accelerant sniffing dogs

c)

Identifiable pour patterns (that are then tested)

d)

Searching for the smell of gasoline

103.

A chemical or mechanical action caused by combustion, accompanied by creation of heat and rapid expansion of gases.

a)

Explosion

b)

Oxidizing agent

c)

Detonation

d)

Detonating cord

104.

A substance that supplies oxygen to a chemical reaction is called a(n)

a)

oxidizing agent.

b)

detonating cord.

c)

deflagration.

d)

low explosive.

105.

Which of these databases are used to hold information about all bullets and casings that have been retrieved from crime scenes or test fires?

a)

NIBIN

b)

CODIS

c)

AFIS

d)

ERHS

106.

Comparison microscopes are used to analyze two items at the same time. Ballistic analysts compare all the following individual marks EXCEPT:

a)

striations on fired bullets from barrel rifling

b)

firing pin impressions on spent cartridges

c)

ejector and extractor marks on spent cartridges

d)

striations on fired shotgun shells from barrel rifling

107.
How can you tell that this bullet has not been fired?
a)
the primer is not dented
b)
the primer is dented
c)
there are no striations
d)

the headstamp is readable

108.

The spiral pattern cut into the bore consists of raised areas called __________ and depressed areas called __________.

a)

Grooves, lands

b)

Rifling, grooves

c)

Grooves, rifling

d)

Lands, grooves

109.

Using the image, label the parts

a)

1: bullet. 2: gunpowder. 3: primer. 4: rim. 5: case/shell

b)

1: bullet. 2: case/shell. 3: gunpowder. 4: rim. 5: primer

c)

1: bullet. 2: rim. 3: gunpowder. 4: case/shell. 5: primer

110.

These firearms have smooth barrels

a)

semi-automatic pistol

b)

handgun

c)

shot gun

d)

revolver

111.

Are these a match?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

Undetermined

112.

All of the following is true about GSR EXCEPT:

a)

stands for Gunshape Rifling

b)

is usually found on hands and clothing

c)

testing detects the presence of nitrites

d)

can possibly be removed by washing your hands

113.

Analyzing a victim's wounds, footprints and bullet holes from the scene investigators can determine all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

the direction the bullet traveled

b)

the angle at which the bullet was fired

c)

who purchased the firearm

d)

the distance from which the bullet was fired

114.

Which letter is representative of the cartridge case?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

E

d)

B

115.

Which letter is representative of the propellant?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

E

d)

B

116.

Which letter is representative of the flash hole?

a)

G

b)

F

c)

D

d)

B

117.

Which letter is representative of the metal jacket?

a)

G

b)

F

c)

D

d)

B

118.

Letter A is pointing to the...

a)

Trigger

b)

Hammer

c)

Slide

d)

Safety

119.

Letter G is pointing to the...

a)

Barrel

b)

Hammer

c)

Slide

d)

Safety

120.

Letter F is pointing to the...

a)

Barrel

b)

Magazine

c)

Slide

d)

Handle

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