WorksheetsQuiz #6 PREP
Total questions: 117
Worksheet time: 59mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is a primary purpose of using warm/hot thermal agents in physical therapy?
a)
To decrease blood flow to an area
b)
To increase muscle stiffness
c)
To increase tissue flexibility
d)
To reduce inflammation in acute injuries
2.
Which organ is NOT part of the respiratory system?
a)
Lungs
b)
Kidneys
c)
Trachea
d)
Bronchi
3.
What is congestive heart failure (CHF)?
a)
A viral infection of the heart
b)
A decline in the pumping efficiency of the heart
c)
A blood clot in the coronary arteries
d)
An irregular heartbeat pattern
4.
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of heart failure?
a)
Shortness of breath
b)
Fatigue
c)
Increased ability to exercise
d)
Heart palpitations
5.
Atrial fibrillation is characterized by:
a)
Complete blockage of coronary arteries
b)
Hardening of the arteries
c)
Blood clots in the legs
d)
Asynchronous beating of the atria and ventricles
6.
What condition is characterized by hardening of and plaque formation in the arteries?
a)
Deep vein thrombosis
b)
Atrial fibrillation
c)
Atherosclerosis
d)
Angina pectoris
7.
Which of the following is a key role of physical therapists in treating patients with heart conditions?
a)
Prescribing cardiac medications
b)
Performing cardiac surgery
c)
Designing safe exercise programs
d)
Diagnosing heart conditions
8.
The Borg Scale is used to measure:
a)
Blood pressure
b)
Heart rate variability
c)
Rate of perceived exertion
d)
Oxygen saturation
9.
Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) is:
a)
An irregular heartbeat pattern
b)
A blood clot
c)
Narrowing of coronary arteries
d)
Inflammation of the heart tissue
10.
What is the appropriate action if a physical therapist suspects a patient has a DVT?
a)
Continue with therapy exercises as planned
b)
Apply heat to the affected area
c)
Contact the doctor or send the patient to the Emergency Room
d)
Massage the affected area to break up the clot
11.
Angina pectoris is caused by:
a)
Complete blockage of a coronary artery
b)
Partial blockage of a coronary artery
c)
Inflammation of the heart muscle
d)
Irregular electrical impulses in the heart
12.
A myocardial infarction occurs when:
a)
The heart beats too rapidly
b)
Blood flow to the lungs is restricted
c)
A coronary artery is completely blocked
d)
The heart valves malfunction
13.
The three layers of the heart wall include all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Myocardium
b)
Endocardium
c)
Epicardium
d)
Pericardium
14.
The valve that prevents backflow between the left atrium and left ventricle is called:
a)
Tricuspid valve
b)
Pulmonary valve
c)
Aortic valve
d)
Mitral valve
15.
Which of the following is a common risk factor for heart disease?
a)
Regular exercise
b)
Balanced diet
c)
Smoking
d)
Stress management
16.
The volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in one contraction is called:
a)
Cardiac output
b)
Stroke volume
c)
Ejection fraction
d)
Pulse pressure
17.
Which symptom of a heart attack is more common in women than in men?
a)
Chest pain
b)
Pain in the jaw, neck, or upper back
c)
Shortness of breath
d)
Nausea or vomiting
18.
Blood flows from the right ventricle to the lungs through the:
a)
Aorta
b)
Pulmonary arteries
c)
Pulmonary veins
d)
Superior vena cava
19.
The main artery leaving the left ventricle is called:
a)
Pulmonary artery
b)
Vena cava
c)
Aorta
d)
Coronary artery
20.
Which of the following best describes the function of the cardiovascular system?
a)
To produce hormones
b)
To deliver oxygen and nutrients and remove waste products
c)
To filter blood
d)
To produce antibodies
21.
The term for contraction of the heart muscle is:
a)
Diastole
b)
Systole
c)
Stroke
d)
Pulse
22.
Which blood vessels have walls that are only one cell layer thick?
a)
Arteries
b)
Veins
c)
Capillaries
d)
Arterioles
23.
Peripheral Artery Disease refers to:
a)
Blockage in the arteries of the heart
b)
Blockage in the arteries of the arms and legs
c)
Irregular heartbeat patterns
d)
Inflammation of the heart muscle
24.
Which of the following is a sign of peripheral artery disease?
a)
Increased body temperature
b)
Pain in the calf muscle during exercise
c)
Improved circulation in the extremities
d)
Decreased blood pressure
25.
The heart is located in which part of the body?
a)
Abdomen
b)
Thorax
c)
Pelvis
d)
Cranium
26.
The relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle is called:
a)
Systole
b)
Diastole
c)
Pulse
d)
Stroke
27.
Which blood vessels rely on skeletal muscle contractions to move blood toward the heart?
a)
Arteries
b)
Arterioles
c)
Capillaries
d)
Veins
28.
What is the primary risk of untreated atrial fibrillation?
a)
Heart attack
b)
Blood clots and strokes
c)
Kidney failure
d)
Respiratory arrest
29.
What type of muscle tissue is found in the heart?
a)
Smooth muscle
b)
Skeletal muscle
c)
Cardiac muscle
d)
Striated muscle
30.
What is a key preventive measure for heart disease?
a)
Sedentary lifestyle
b)
High-fat diet
c)
Regular exercise
d)
Smoking
31.
Which of the following is a symptom of DVT?
a)
Decreased pain and swelling
b)
Painless redness
c)
Severe pain, swelling, and redness
d)
Improved circulation in the affected limb
32.
Cells of the same type group together to form:
a)
Organs
b)
Systems
c)
Tissues
d)
Organelles
33.
Tissues that have the same function combine to form:
a)
Cells
b)
Organs
c)
Systems
d)
Organelles
34.
Which nervous system component helps slow the heart rate during rest?
a)
Sympathetic nervous system
b)
Parasympathetic nervous system
c)
Somatic nervous system
d)
Enteric nervous system
35.
What distinguishes angina pectoris from a myocardial infarction?
a)
Angina causes permanent damage to heart tissue
b)
Angina symptoms typically decrease with rest
c)
Angina only affects women
d)
Angina requires immediate surgical intervention
36.
What is the primary waste product removed by the cardiovascular system?
a)
Urea
b)
Carbon dioxide
c)
Ammonia
d)
Lactic acid
37.
All veins carry deoxgenated blood towards the heart.
a)
True
b)
False
38.
All arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart.
a)
True
b)
False
39.
Which valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?
a)
Tricuspid
b)
Aortic
c)
Pulmonary
d)
Mitral
40.
Which valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle?
a)
Tricuspid
b)
Aortic
c)
Pulmonary
d)
Mitral
41.
Deoxygenated blood enters the heart through the right atrium.
a)
True
b)
False
42.
Oxygenated blood exits the heart through the left ventricle.
a)
True
b)
False
43.
The pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the lungs.
a)
True
b)
False
44.
The pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood to the heart.
a)
True
b)
False
45.
What is the main muscle responsible for helping you breathe in and out?
a)
Diaphragm
b)
Liver
c)
Ribs
d)
Stomach
46.
What are the tiny air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange takes place called?
a)
Bronchi
b)
Alveoli
c)
Capillaries
d)
Sinuses
47.
What is the process of listening to the internal sounds of the body with a stethoscope called?
a)
Palpation
b)
Inspection
c)
Auscultation
d)
Percussion
48.
Which of these is NOT a function of the respiratory system?
a)
Allowing you to talk
b)
Delivering oxygen to cells
c)
Filtering waste from blood
d)
Removing carbon dioxide
49.
What structure connects your throat to your lungs?
a)
Larynx
b)
Trachea
c)
Sinuses
d)
Pleura
50.
Which condition is characterized by chronic inflammation of the airways?
a)
Pneumonia
b)
Emphysema
c)
Asthma
d)
Tuberculosis
51.
Which of these is an abnormal lung sound?
a)
Vesicular
b)
Bronchial
c)
Adventitious
d)
Bronchovesicular
52.
Which of the following helps protect the lungs and heart?
a)
Liver
b)
Kidneys
c)
Ribs
d)
Bladder
53.
Which is a common symptom of pneumonia?
a)
Loss of hair
b)
Chest pain and cough
c)
Swollen feet
d)
High blood pressure
54.
Which part of the respiratory system helps regulate the temperature and humidity of inhaled air?
a)
Pleura
b)
Sinuses
c)
Capillaries
d)
Larynx
55.
What is the primary cause of emphysema?
a)
Too much exercise
b)
Smoking
c)
Eating spicy foods
d)
Drinking water
56.
Which of the following practices helps keep your respiratory system healthy?
a)
Smoking
b)
Avoiding exercise
c)
Eating a healthy diet and exercising
d)
Breathing in dust
57.
What are bronchial tubes?
a)
Bones that protect the lungs
b)
Tubes at the bottom of your windpipe that connect to each lung
c)
Small muscles in the chest
d)
Blood vessels in the lungs
58.
What is the best environment for performing lung auscultation?
a)
Noisy, cold, and dark
b)
Quiet, warm, and well-lit
c)
Outdoors and windy
d)
Crowded and busy
59.
Which lung sound is heard best over the trachea and is loud and high-pitched?
a)
Vesicular
b)
Bronchovesicular
c)
Bronchial
d)
Pleural
60.
Which of these is NOT a common respiratory problem encountered in physical therapy?
a)
Asthma
b)
Emphysema
c)
Appendicitis
d)
Pneumonia
61.
What is the purpose of cilia in the respiratory system?
a)
To support blood flow
b)
To move mucus and filter dust out of airways
c)
To produce hormones
d)
To carry oxygen
62.
What are the small branches of the bronchial tubes that lead to the alveoli called?
a)
Bronchioles
b)
Capillaries
c)
Ribs
d)
Pleura
63.
Which of the following is an example of an adventitious (abnormal) lung sound?
a)
Crackles
b)
Vesicular
c)
Bronchial
d)
Bronchovesicular
64.
What temperature range should hydrocollator machines be maintained at for safe hot pack preparation?
a)
140 to 144 degrees Fahrenheit
b)
150 to 154 degrees Fahrenheit
c)
160 to 164 degrees Fahrenheit
d)
170 to 174 degrees Fahrenheit
65.
What material must be placed between a hot pack and the patient's skin during treatment?
a)
Plastic wrap
b)
Insulation
c)
Cotton gauze
d)
Adhesive tape
66.
Which of the following is considered a deep heating agent in physical therapy?
a)
Hot pack
b)
Continuous ultrasound
c)
Paraffin bath
d)
Warm whirlpool
67.
What is the typical treatment time for superficial heat application?
a)
5-10 minutes
b)
8-10 minutes
c)
15-30 minutes
d)
45-60 minutes
68.
Which of the following is a contraindication for using hot packs?
a)
Chronic pain
b)
Muscle spasms
c)
Acute inflammation
d)
Joint stiffness
69.
What physiological effect does heat have on blood vessels in the treated area?
a)
Vasoconstriction
b)
Vasodilation
c)
No effect on blood vessels
d)
Temporary vessel blockage
70.
What sign indicates that a thermal agent may be causing tissue damage?
a)
Mild warmth sensation
b)
Slight tingling
c)
Erythema (redness) and hyperemia
d)
Temporary numbness
71.
Why should a physical therapist monitor a patient's skin regularly during hot pack application?
a)
To check for allergic reactions to the towel
b)
To prevent burns
c)
To ensure the patient is not falling asleep
d)
To monitor heart rate changes
72.
Which patient population requires extra caution when applying thermal agents?
a)
Adult athletes
b)
Patients with intact sensation
c)
Patients with diabetes
d)
Healthy adults with no medical conditions
73.
What is the primary purpose of muscle relaxation achieved through hot pack application?
a)
To increase joint stiffness
b)
To decrease range of motion
c)
To prepare tissues for exercise
d)
To increase muscle tension
74.
Which property of soft tissue is improved with the application of heat?
a)
Rigidity
b)
Viscoelasticity
c)
Density
d)
Brittleness
75.
What should a physical therapist do if a patient reports discomfort during hot pack treatment?
a)
Increase the temperature of the pack
b)
Remove the pack immediately
c)
Tell the patient the discomfort is normal
d)
Add more weight on top of the pack
76.
Which of the following is NOT a proper safety measure when using hot packs?
a)
Setting a timer
b)
Applying directly to skin
c)
Using proper insulation
d)
Checking skin condition before application
77.
How does heat affect pain perception in most patients?
a)
It has no effect on pain
b)
It increases pain sensitivity
c)
It decreases pain perception
d)
It only affects sharp pain, not dull pain
78.
Which of the following is an appropriate application of hot packs?
a)
Over areas with open wounds
b)
On areas with metallic implants
c)
For relaxing muscle spasms
d)
On areas with acute hemorrhage
79.
What happens to the viscoelastic properties of connective tissue when heat is applied?
a)
Tissue becomes more rigid
b)
Tissue becomes more extensible
c)
Tissue loses water content
d)
Tissue becomes more brittle
80.
Which patient condition would be a precaution (not absolute contraindication) for heat application?
a)
Acute injury (less than 24 hours)
b)
Impaired sensation
c)
Active bleeding
d)
Malignancy directly in the treatment area
81.
What is the main reason for setting a timer during hot pack treatment?
a)
To ensure the treatment is cost-effective
b)
To prevent tissue damage from overexposure
c)
To track billing for insurance purposes
d)
To limit the number of patients seen per day
82.
Which of the following best describes the relationship between heat application and circulation?
a)
Heat decreases circulation to conserve body temperature
b)
Heat increases circulation, bringing more oxygen and nutrients to tissues
c)
Heat has no significant effect on circulation
d)
Heat temporarily stops circulation to allow for tissue repair
83.
What is the primary physiological effect of cryotherapy on superficial blood vessels?
a)
Vasodilation
b)
Vasoconstriction
c)
Increased permeability
d)
No significant effect
84.
What happens to local blood flow when cryotherapy is applied?
a)
It increases significantly
b)
It decreases
c)
It remains unchanged
d)
It fluctuates rapidly
85.
How does cryotherapy affect the viscoelastic properties of tissue?
a)
Increases flexibility
b)
Has no effect on tissue properties
c)
Causes increased stiffness and decreased flexibility
d)
Makes tissues more elastic temporarily
86.
At what temperature does thermal tissue damage occur during cryotherapy?
a)
Below 106C (506F)
b)
Below 156C (596F)
c)
Below 206C (686F)
d)
Below 56C (416F)
87.
What is the typical cooling depth range of cryotherapy depending on adipose tissue?
a)
5-8 cm
b)
1-4 cm
c)
0.5-1 cm
d)
8-10 cm
88.
Which of the following is NOT a goal of cold thermal agents?
a)
Edema reduction
b)
Pain reduction
c)
Increased tissue metabolism
d)
Reduction of muscle guarding
89.
How does cryotherapy affect cell permeability?
a)
Increases it to promote healing
b)
Decreases it, resulting in less exudate and swelling
c)
Has no effect on cell permeability
d)
Temporarily increases then decreases it
90.
What is the maximum recommended time for ice massage on a small area?
a)
10-15 minutes
b)
3-5 minutes
c)
15-20 minutes
d)
1-2 minutes
91.
Which sensation should a patient feel during ice massage that indicates treatment should be stopped?
a)
Burning sensation
b)
Numbness
c)
Tingling
d)
Warmth
92.
At what temperature are cold packs typically stored in a clinical freezer?
a)
-106F (-236C)
b)
06F (-176C)
c)
106F (-126C)
d)
206F (-76C)
93.
How long do cold packs typically stay cold after removal from the freezer?
a)
About 5 minutes
b)
About 10 minutes
c)
About 20 minutes
d)
About 30 minutes
94.
What is the proper treatment time for a cold pack application?
a)
5-10 minutes
b)
10-15 minutes
c)
20-25 minutes
d)
30-35 minutes
95.
Which of the following is a benefit of homemade ice packs containing water and rubbing alcohol?
a)
They stay frozen longer than commercial cold packs
b)
They can be applied directly to skin without a towel
c)
They remain moldable rather than freezing into a solid block
d)
They provide deeper tissue cooling than commercial cold packs
96.
According to research mentioned in the presentation, what combination provides improved outcomes in treating injuries?
a)
Heat and cold alternating therapy
b)
Cold and electrical stimulation
c)
Cold and compression used together
d)
Ultrasound and cold therapy
97.
How often should a clinical freezer be checked for temperature and frost?
a)
Weekly
b)
Monthly
c)
Daily
d)
Bi-weekly
98.
How long does it take for cold packs to return to cold temperature in the freezer after use?
a)
10-15 minutes
b)
20-30 minutes
c)
30-60 minutes
d)
1-2 hours
99.
Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a sensation patients feel during ice massage?
a)
Cold
b)
Burning sensation
c)
Aching
d)
Tingling
100.
What is the primary reason for placing cold packs inside a pillowcase in clinical settings?
a)
To prevent frostbite
b)
To maintain proper temperature
c)
To allow use between patients
d)
To prevent condensation
101.
What is the primary effect of cryotherapy on the metabolic rate of tissues?
a)
Increases it
b)
Reduces it
c)
Has no effect
d)
Temporarily increases then decreases it
102.
Which of the following is a correct statement about the relationship between cooling and oxygen demand in tissues?
a)
Cooling increases oxygen demand but decreases blood flow
b)
Cooling decreases oxygen demand and cooled tissues can accommodate decreased blood flow
c)
Cooling has no effect on oxygen demand in tissues
d)
Cooling increases both oxygen demand and blood flow
103.
What does the acronym PRICES stand for in treating soft tissue injuries?
a)
Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, Stabilization
b)
Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, Support
c)
Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
d)
Protection, Rest, Immobilization, Compression, Elevation, Stabilization
104.
How long should ice be applied to an injury according to the PRICES protocol?
a)
5-10 minutes every hour
b)
15-20 minutes every 2-3 hours
c)
30 minutes continuously
d)
10 minutes once daily
105.
What are the two stages of tissue repair mentioned in the presentation?
a)
Inflammation and regeneration
b)
Acute inflammation and chronic inflammation
c)
Recognition and removal
d)
Regulation and resolution
106.
What is the primary purpose of inflammation as described in the presentation?
a)
To increase pain sensation to prevent further injury
b)
To bring cells and molecules from circulation to sites where needed
c)
To reduce blood flow to injured areas
d)
To create scar tissue for permanent protection
107.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five cardinal signs/symptoms of inflammation?
a)
Redness
b)
Swelling
c)
Fever
d)
Pain
108.
What are the "five Rs" of the inflammatory response mentioned in the presentation?
a)
Rest, Recovery, Rehabilitation, Restoration, Return
b)
Recognition, Removal, Regulation, Resolution, Repair
c)
Recognition, Removal, Regulation, Resolution (only four Rs were mentioned)
d)
Rest, Recovery, Regulation, Resolution, Return
109.
What vascular change occurs in the first seconds to 5 minutes of acute inflammation?
a)
Arterioles vasodilate
b)
Veins vasoconstrict
c)
Arteries vasoconstrict
d)
Capillaries rupture
110.
What follows the initial vasoconstriction during acute inflammation?
a)
Decreased vascular permeability
b)
Arteriole vasoconstriction
c)
Arteriole vasodilation
d)
Complete cessation of blood flow
111.
What cellular process removes old cells, injured cells, and debris in the inflamed area?
a)
Chemotaxis
b)
Phagocytosis
c)
Vasodilation
d)
Exudation
112.
What is the term for the replacement of injured cells by cells of the same type during healing?
a)
Fibrosis
b)
Scar formation
c)
Regeneration
d)
Dehiscence
113.
Which of the following factors negatively influences wound healing?
a)
Good vascular supply
b)
Youth
c)
Radiation exposure
d)
Adequate nutrition
114.
What term describes the excessive production of scar tissue resulting in raised, thick scars?
a)
Wound dehiscence
b)
Keloids
c)
Fibrosis
d)
Exudation
115.
Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation?
a)
Short duration
b)
Long duration lasting months or years
c)
Rapid resolution
d)
Always caused by bacterial infection
116.
Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a potential cause of chronic inflammation?
a)
Untreated causes of acute inflammation
b)
Autoimmune disorders
c)
Genetic mutations
d)
Long-term exposure to irritants
117.
Which lifestyle factor is believed to contribute to chronic inflammation?
a)
Regular exercise
b)
Balanced diet
c)
Chronic stress
d)
Adequate sleep
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