WorksheetsISD1-P1
Total questions: 136
Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Chinese developed a practice of inhaling powder made from smallpox scabs in order to produce protection against smallpox
a)
Variolation
b)
Valioration
2.
Who is the father of immunology?
a)
Louis Pasteur
b)
Edward Jenner
c)
Ellie Metchnikoff
d)
Jules Bordet
e)
Robert Kaus
3.
Live, attenuated chicken cholera and anthrax vaccines
a)
Louis Pasteur
b)
Edward Jenner
c)
Ellie Metchnikoff
d)
Jules Bordet
e)
Robert Kaus
4.
Smallpox vaccination
a)
Louis Pasteur
b)
Edward Jenner
c)
Ellie Metchnikoff
d)
Jules Bordet
e)
Robert Kaus
5.
Cellular theory of immunity through phagocytosis
a)
Louis Pasteur
b)
Edward Jenner
c)
Ellie Metchnikoff
d)
Jules Bordet
e)
Robert Kaus
6.
Discovery of complement
a)
Louis Pasteur
b)
Edward Jenner
c)
Ellie Metchnikoff
d)
Jules Bordet
e)
Robert Kaus
7.
Discovery of precipitins
a)
Louis Pasteur
b)
Edward Jenner
c)
Ellie Metchnikoff
d)
Jules Bordet
e)
Robert Kaus
8.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
a)
Susumu Tonegawa
b)
Francoise Barre-Sinoussi, Luc Montagnier
9.
Nobel Prize award for his 1978 discovery of antibody diversity
a)
Susumu Tonegawa
b)
Francoise Barre-Sinoussi, Luc Montagnier
10.
Serum antitoxins
a)
Emil von Behring
b)
Robert Koch
c)
Charles Richet
d)
Gerald Edelman, Rodney Porter
11.
Cellular immunity in tuberculosis
a)
Emil von Behring
b)
Robert Koch
c)
Charles Richet
d)
Gerald Edelman, Rodney Porter
12.
Anaphylaxis
a)
Emil von Behring
b)
Robert Koch
c)
Charles Richet
d)
Gerald Edelman, Rodney Porter
13.
Structure of antibodies
a)
Emil von Behring
b)
Robert Koch
c)
Charles Richet
d)
Gerald Edelman, Rodney Porter
14.
Discovery of the T cell receptor gene
a)
1984
b)
1798
c)
1862
d)
1880-1881
e)
1883-1905
15.
Smallpox vaccination
a)
Jenner
b)
Haeckel
c)
Pasteur
d)
Metchnikoff
e)
Vob Behring, Kitasata
16.
Phagocytosis
a)
Jenner
b)
Haeckel
c)
Pasteur
d)
Metchnikoff
e)
Vob Behring, Kitasata
17.
Live, attenuated chicken cholera and anthrax vaccines
a)
Jenner
b)
Haeckel
c)
Pasteur
d)
Metchnikoff
e)
Vob Behring, Kitasata
18.
Cellular theory of immunity through phagocytosis
a)
Jenner
b)
Haeckel
c)
Pasteur
d)
Metchnikoff
e)
Vob Behring, Kitasata
19.
Therapeutic vaccination First report of live “attenuated” vaccine for rabies
a)
Jenner
b)
Haeckel
c)
Pasteur
d)
Metchnikoff
e)
Vob Behring, Kitasata
20.
Humoral theory of immunity proposed
a)
Jenner
b)
Haeckel
c)
Pasteur
d)
Metchnikoff
e)
Vob Behring, Kitasata
21.
Demonstration of cutaneous (delayed type) hypersensitivity
a)
Koch
b)
Ehrlich
c)
Portier, Richet
d)
Arthus
e)
Marrack
22.
Antibody formation theory
a)
Koch
b)
Ehrlich
c)
Portier, Richet
d)
Arthus
e)
Marrack
23.
Immediate-hypersensitivity anaphylaxis
a)
Koch
b)
Ehrlich
c)
Portier, Richet
d)
Arthus
e)
Marrack
24.
Arthus reaction of intermediate hypersensitivity
a)
Koch
b)
Ehrlich
c)
Portier, Richet
d)
Arthus
e)
Marrack
25.
Hypothesis of antigen-antibody binding
a)
Koch
b)
Ehrlich
c)
Portier, Richet
d)
Arthus
e)
Marrack
26.
Development of polio vaccine
a)
Salk, Sabin
b)
Reed
c)
Burnet
d)
Kohler
e)
Mosmann
27.
Vaccine against yellow fever
a)
Salk, Sabin
b)
Reed
c)
Burnet
d)
Kohler
e)
Mosmann
28.
Clonal selection theory
a)
Salk, Sabin
b)
Reed
c)
Burnet
d)
Kohler
e)
Mosmann
29.
First monoclonal antibodies
a)
Salk, Sabin
b)
Reed
c)
Burnet
d)
Kohler
e)
Mosmann
30.
Th1 versus Th2 model of T helper cell function
a)
Salk, Sabin
b)
Reed
c)
Burnet
d)
Kohler
e)
Mosmann
31.
Graft-versus-host reaction
a)
1953
b)
1957
c)
1958-1962
d)
1964-1968
32.
Interferon
a)
1953
b)
1957
c)
1958-1962
d)
1964-1968
33.
Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)
a)
1953
b)
1957
c)
1958-1962
d)
1964-1968
34.
T-cell and B-cell cooperation in immune response
a)
1953
b)
1957
c)
1958-1962
d)
1964-1968
35.
Identification of genes for T cell receptor
a)
1972
b)
1986
c)
1985-1987
d)
1996-1998
e)
2001
36.
Monoclonal hepatitis B vaccine
a)
1972
b)
1986
c)
1985-1987
d)
1996-1998
e)
2001
37.
Identification of toll-like receptors
a)
1972
b)
1986
c)
1985-1987
d)
1996-1998
e)
2001
38.
FOXP3, the gene directing regulatory T cell development
a)
1972
b)
1986
c)
1985-1987
d)
1996-1998
e)
2001
39.
Identification of antibody molecule
a)
1972
b)
1986
c)
1985-1987
d)
1996-1998
e)
2001
40.
Also known as Innate, Non-specific
a)
Natural Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
41.
It lacks memory
a)
Natural Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
42.
Immediate response
a)
Natural Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
43.
Response DOESN’T CHANGE with subsequent exposures
a)
Natural Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
44.
It is present at birth
a)
Natural Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
45.
No prior exposure is required
a)
Natural Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
46.
Also known Adaptive, Specific
a)
Natural Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
47.
It has an increased response upon repeated exposures
a)
Natural Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
48.
It has the ability to REMEMBER prior exposure
a)
Natural Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
49.
Slow (3 to 5 days) response
a)
Natural Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
50.
It is not present at birth
a)
Natural Immunity
b)
Acquired Immunity
51.
External defense system
a)
First Line of Defense
b)
Second Line of Defense
52.
It Is composed of structural barriers that prevent most infectious agents from entering the body
a)
First Line of Defense
b)
Second Line of Defense
53.
Skin and mucous membrane Secretions containing lysozymes Acidity of the stomach and vagina Cilia lining of the respiratory tract
a)
First Line of Defense
b)
Second Line of Defense
54.
Internal defense system
a)
First Line of Defense
b)
Second Line of Defense
55.
It includes both cells and soluble factors. It is designed to recognize molecules that are unique to infectious organisms
a)
First Line of Defense
b)
Second Line of Defense
56.
Cellular component (Phagocytes, NK cells) Humoral component (Complement, Interferon alpha and beta, Acute phase reactants, defensins)
a)
First Line of Defense
b)
Second Line of Defense
57.
Which of the following line of defense is acquired, composed of T cells, B cells, and antibodies, as well as functions as a specialized lymphocyte antibodies?
a)
First line of defense
b)
Second line of defense
c)
Third line of defense
58.
Found in 50–70% of circulating WBCs, also in tissue
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
59.
First responder to infection, phagocytosis
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
60.
Found in 1–4% of circulating WBCs
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
61.
Kill parasites, neutralize basophil and mast cell products, regulate mast cells
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
62.
Most important role is regulation of the adaptive immune response through cytokine release Homeostatic regulator of inflammation
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
63.
Found in < 1% of circulating WBCs P
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
64.
Found in skin, connective tissue, mucosal epithelium
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
65.
Antigen presentation to T and B cells
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
66.
Tissue effector cells
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
67.
Has a lifespan of 60 hours
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
68.
Has a lifespan of 9 to 18 months
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
69.
Produce inflammatory mediators that induce and maintain allergic reactions
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
70.
Which of the following is NOT a phagocyte?
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
71.
Which of the following are initiators of inflammation?
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
72.
Which of the following are minor phagocytes?
a)
Neutrophil
b)
Eosinophil
c)
Basophil
d)
Mast Cells
73.
Found In skin, mucous membranes, heart, lungs, liver, kidney, other tissues
a)
Dendritic cell
b)
Monocyte
c)
Macrophage
74.
Most potent phagocytic cell; most effective at antigen presentation
a)
Dendritic cell
b)
Monocyte
c)
Macrophage
75.
Found in 2-10% of circulating WBCs
a)
Dendritic cell
b)
Monocyte
c)
Macrophage
76.
Largest cell in PBS, typically contain vacuoles
a)
Dendritic cell
b)
Monocyte
c)
Macrophage
77.
Phagocytosis; migrate to tissues to become macrophages Increased in chronic infections like tuberculosis
a)
Dendritic cell
b)
Monocyte
c)
Macrophage
78.
Found In lungs, liver, brain, bone, connective tissue, other tissues
a)
Dendritic cell
b)
Monocyte
c)
Macrophage
79.
Phagocytosis; kill intracellular parasites; tumoricidal activity; antigen presentation to T and B cells
a)
Dendritic cell
b)
Monocyte
c)
Macrophage
80.
May not be as efficient as neutrophils due to their slower motility
a)
Dendritic cell
b)
Monocyte
c)
Macrophage
81.
Kupffer cells
a)
Liver
b)
Lungs
c)
Brain
d)
Skin
82.
Langerhan cells
a)
Liver
b)
Lungs
c)
Brain
d)
Skin
83.
Splenic macrophages
a)
Spleen
b)
Bone
c)
Synovial
84.
Osteoclasts
a)
Spleen
b)
Bone
c)
Synovial
85.
Type A cells
a)
Spleen
b)
Bone
c)
Synovial
86.
Microglia
a)
Liver
b)
Lungs
c)
Brain
d)
Skin
87.
Alveolar macrophages
a)
Liver
b)
Lungs
c)
Brain
d)
Skin
88.
Recognizes Lipopeptides
a)
TLR1
b)
TLR 2
c)
TLR 4
d)
TLR 5
89.
Which of the following targets Gram-positive bacteria, mycobacteria, yeasts?
a)
TLR1
b)
TLR 2
c)
TLR 4
d)
TLR 5
90.
Which of the following targets Gram-negative bacteria, respiratory syncytial virus, fungi?
a)
TLR1
b)
TLR 2
c)
TLR 4
d)
TLR 5
91.
Which of the following targets Bacteria with flagellae?
a)
TLR1
b)
TLR 2
c)
TLR 4
d)
TLR 5
92.
Which of the following targets Mycobacteria?
a)
TLR1
b)
TLR 2
c)
TLR 4
d)
TLR 5
93.
Recognizes Peptidoglycan, lipoproteins, zymosan
a)
TLR1
b)
TLR 2
c)
TLR 4
d)
TLR 5
94.
Recognizes Lipopolysaccharide, fusion proteins, mannan
a)
TLR1
b)
TLR 2
c)
TLR 4
d)
TLR 5
95.
Recognizes Flagellin
a)
TLR1
b)
TLR 2
c)
TLR 4
d)
TLR 5
96.
Which of the following is not a receptor found in endosomal compartments?
a)
TLR 6
b)
TLR 3
c)
TLR 7
d)
TLR 8
e)
TLR 9
97.
Recognizes Lipopeptides, lipoteichoic acid, zymosan
a)
TLR 6
b)
TLR 3
c)
TLR 7
d)
TLR 8
e)
TLR 9
98.
Targets Mycobacteria, gram-positive bacteria, yeasts
a)
TLR 6
b)
TLR 3
c)
TLR 7
d)
TLR 8
e)
TLR 9
99.
Which of the following recognizes double-stranded RNA?
a)
TLR 6
b)
TLR 3
c)
TLR 7
d)
TLR 8
e)
TLR 9
100.
Targets RNA viruses
a)
TLR 3
b)
TLR 7
c)
TLR 8
d)
TLR 9
e)
TLR 10
101.
Recognizes double-stranded DNA
a)
TLR 3
b)
TLR 7
c)
TLR 8
d)
TLR 9
e)
TLR 10
102.
Which of the following targets DNA viruses, and bacterial DNA?
a)
TLR 3
b)
TLR 7
c)
TLR 8
d)
TLR 9
e)
TLR 10
103.
Recognized as anti-inflammatory
a)
TLR 3
b)
TLR 7
c)
TLR 8
d)
TLR 9
e)
TLR 10
104.
Ellie Metchnikoff observed that foreign objects introduced into transparent starfish larvae become surrounded by motile cells that attempted to destroy these invaders
a)
Phagocytosis
b)
Opsonization
c)
Chemotaxis
d)
Engulfment
e)
Digestion
105.
“To prepare for eating”, enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins like CRP, complement components, and antibodies
a)
Phagocytosis
b)
Opsonin
c)
Chemotaxis
d)
Engulfment
e)
Digestion
106.
Initiated as a result of tissue damage, either trauma or as a result of microorganism multiplication
a)
Initiation
b)
Chemotaxis
c)
Engulfment
d)
Digestion
107.
Activated phagocyte has increase surface receptors for adherence
a)
Initiation
b)
Chemotaxis
c)
Engulfment
d)
Digestion
108.
A process by which cells tend to move in certain direction under stimulation of a chemical substance
a)
Initiation
b)
Chemotaxis
c)
Engulfment
d)
Digestion
109.
Cells are attracted to the site of inflammation by chemical substances such as soluble factors or acute phase reactants
a)
Initiation
b)
Chemotaxis
c)
Engulfment
d)
Digestion
110.
Positive _________ is the migration toward the site of inflammation, while Negative ______ is the migration away from the site of inflammation
a)
Initiation
b)
Chemotaxis
c)
Engulfment
d)
Digestion
111.
Enclosing the pathogen into a phagosome
a)
Initiation
b)
Chemotaxis
c)
Engulfment
d)
Digestion
112.
Minute cell particle that contain hydrolytic enzymes and peroxidase approach the phagosome, fuse with it, rupture, and discharge contents to it
a)
Initiation
b)
Chemotaxis
c)
Engulfment
d)
Digestion
113.
It is the migration toward the site of inflammation
a)
Positive chemotaxis
b)
Negative chemotaxis
114.
It is the migration away from the site of inflammation
a)
Positive chemotaxis
b)
Negative chemotaxis
115.
Kills extracellular organisms
a)
Phagocytosis
b)
Initiation
c)
Chemotaxis
d)
Engulfment
e)
Digestion
116.
Is the engulfment of cells or particulate matter by leukocytes or other cells
a)
Phagocytosis
b)
Initiation
c)
Chemotaxis
d)
Engulfment
e)
Digestion
117.
- via Pattern Recognition Receptors that recognize lipid and carbohydrates sequences on microorganisms
a)
Direct Phagocytosis
b)
Indirect Phagocytosis
118.
via opsonin receptors that recognize opsonins such as IgG, C3b bound to microorganism
a)
Direct Phagocytosis
b)
Indirect Phagocytosis
119.
Reduction of oxygen that leads to the formation of superoxide anion, hydroxyl radicals, hydrogen peroxide, and hypochlorite ions by the help of enzymes NADPH oxidase, superoxide dismutase, and myeloperoxidase
a)
Oxygen-dependent Process
b)
Oxygen-Independent Process
120.
Production of nitric oxide from oxidation of L-arginine by NO synthase which is produced by Interferon Gamma activated cells.
a)
Oxygen-dependent Process
b)
Oxygen-Independent Process
121.
Production of lysozyme, lactoferrin, major basic proteins, lipase, cathepsin G. and defensins
a)
Oxygen-dependent Process
b)
Oxygen-Independent Process
122.
NADPH oxidase serves as the central killing of microbes
a)
Oxygen-dependent Process
b)
Oxygen-Independent Process
123.
Normal random movement but abnormal chemotaxis, also known as Hyper-IgE
a)
Job's syndrome
b)
Lazy leukocyte syndrome
124.
Abnormal random movement and chemotaxis
a)
Job's syndrome
b)
Lazy leukocyte syndrome
125.
Traditional test for CGD
a)
Nitroblue Tetrazoleum Test
b)
Flow cytometry
126.
Latest assay for CGD
a)
Nitroblue Tetrazoleum Test
b)
Flow cytometry
127.
Neutrophils are labeled with dihydrorhodamine
a)
Nitroblue Tetrazoleum Test
b)
Flow cytometry
128.
Neutrophil activation: Phorbol myristate acetate
a)
Nitroblue Tetrazoleum Test
b)
Flow cytometry
129.
Less fluorescence if patient has a CGD
a)
Nitroblue Tetrazoleum Test
b)
Flow cytometry
130.
Remains colorless/yellow if patient has a CGD
a)
Nitroblue Tetrazoleum Test
b)
Flow cytometry
131.
Colorless to blue if the patient is normal
a)
Nitroblue Tetrazoleum Test
b)
Flow cytometry
132.
Increased blood flow
a)
Rubor
b)
Calor
c)
Dolor
d)
Tumor
e)
Functio laesa
133.
Increased blood follow, exudation of fluid, release of mediators
a)
Rubor
b)
Calor
c)
Dolor
d)
Tumor
e)
Functio laesa
134.
Stretching pain receptors and nerves by inflammatory exudates, chemical mediators
a)
Rubor
b)
Calor
c)
Dolor
d)
Tumor
e)
Functio laesa
135.
Pain, disruption of tissue structure
a)
Rubor
b)
Calor
c)
Dolor
d)
Tumor
e)
Functio laesa
136.
Exudation of fluid
a)
Rubor
b)
Calor
c)
Dolor
d)
Tumor
e)
Functio laesa
100 %
