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AP Human Geography – Unit 2: Population and Migration Quiz

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A pull factor example is:

a)

Natural disasters

b)

Political instability

c)

Economic opportunity

d)

Unemployment

2.

A high agricultural density usually indicates:

a)

Labor-intensive farming practices

b)

Mechanized agriculture

c)

Low rural population density

d)

Industrial development

3.

Which demographic factor directly decreases population size?

a)

Fertility

b)

Mortality

c)

Immigration

d)

Natural increase

4.

Women entering the workforce typically causes:

a)

Higher fertility rates

b)

Declining fertility rates

c)

Increased mortality

d)

Increased migration

5.

Which migration type involves movement within the same country?

a)

Internal migration

b)

Transnational migration

c)

Step migration

d)

Guest worker migration

6.

A pronatalist policy aims to:

a)

Encourage births

b)

Limit immigration

c)

Reduce fertility

7.

A country with low birth rates and high life expectancy faces:

a)

Youthful dependency

b)

Aging population pressures

c)

Overpopulation

d)

High infant mortality

8.

An antinatalist policy example is:

a)

France’s baby bonus

b)

China’s One-Child Policy

c)

Japan’s family incentives

d)

Sweden’s parental leave programs

9.

Neo-Malthusians emphasize:

a)

Environmental limits to growth

b)

Unlimited population expansion

c)

Industrial expansion

d)

Declining fertility worldwide

10.

Rate of Natural Increase (RNI) is calculated by:

a)

Birth rate minus death rate

b)

Immigration minus emigration

c)

Total fertility divided by population

d)

Births plus deaths

11.

What is population doubling time?

a)

The period for a population to double in size

b)

The number of people in a family

c)

The total fertility rate

d)

The age of dependency

12.

What environmental challenge is linked to population concentration?

a)

Pollution and land degradation

b)

Improved biodiversity

c)

Reduced waste generation

d)

Decreased resource use

13.

An aging population can lead to:

a)

Increased healthcare costs

b)

Lower pension spending

14.

A country with a youthful population likely faces:

a)

High demand for education and jobs

b)

Low dependency ratios

c)

Increased elderly care needs

d)

Decreasing birth rates

15.

Japan’s population challenge is primarily:

a)

Rapid urbanization

b)

Population aging and labor shortage

c)

Overcrowding in cities

d)

Low education rates

16.

An aging population creates challenges for:

a)

Education investment

b)

Healthcare and pensions

c)

Urban sprawl

d)

Youth employment

17.

A sparsely populated area is most likely to have:

a)

Abundant jobs and housing

b)

Harsh physical conditions

c)

High agricultural productivity

d)

Dense transportation networks

18.

A country with low mortality and low fertility is likely in which DTM stage?

a)

Stage 2

b)

Stage 3

c)

Stage 4

d)

Stage 1

19.

Intervening obstacles refer to:

a)

Barriers that prevent or delay migration

b)

Attractions that encourage migration

c)

Government migration policies

d)

Population growth trends

20.

In the Demographic Transition Model, Stage 5 predicts:

(a)  

21.

Which of the following is a physical factor influencing population distribution?

a)

Fertility rate

b)

Government policies

c)

Climate and water availability

d)

Economic opportunity

22.

Which factor most reduces fertility rates?

a)

Greater female education

b)

High infant mortality

c)

Early marriage

d)

Agricultural employment

23.

Thomas Malthus believed population growth would:

a)

Exceed food production

b)

Decrease over time

c)

Match agricultural output

d)

Remain constant

24.

Ravenstein’s Laws of Migration suggest:

a)

Most migrants move short distances

b)

Migration is random

c)

Rural areas lose population slowly

d)

People never move for work

25.

What does physiological density reveal about a country?

a)

The pressure population places on arable land

b)

The total number of farmers per square kilometer

c)

The number of cities with over one million people

d)

The rate of industrialization

26.

What is one consequence of high population density in cities?

a)

Lower housing demand

b)

Increased infrastructure strain

c)

Less cultural diversity

d)

Lower cost of living

27.

27. Which of the following is a push factor?

a)

Lack of job opportunities

b)

High wages

c)

Political stability

d)

Attractive climate

28.

Migration that increases population size in a region is called:

a)

Emigration

b)

Immigration

c)

Urbanization

d)

Industrialization

29.

Which of the following regions typically shows low population density?

a)

River valleys

b)

Coastal regions

c)

Deserts and high mountains

d)

Urban centers

30.

Which tool helps visualize population composition?

a)

Population pyramid

b)

GDP chart

c)

Climate map

d)

Topographic profile

31.

31. Access to contraception directly affects:

a)

Fertility rates

b)

Migration rates

c)

Mortality rates

d)

GDP growth

32.

What is the sex ratio?

a)

Ratio of males to females in a population

b)

Number of children per woman

c)

Birth rate per 1,000 people

d)

Age dependency rate

33.

Which of the following best defines arithmetic density?

a)

The total population divided by the total land area

b)

The number of farmers per unit of arable land

c)

The total population divided by the amount of arable land

d)

The number of people living in urban areas

34.

34. The Green Revolution disproved Malthus because it:

a)

increased food production faster than population growth

b)

led to a decrease in agricultural output

c)

caused widespread famine

d)

proved that resources are always limited

35.

Economic growth in high-density areas often leads to:

a)

Declining innovation

b)

Increased cost of living

c)

Fewer social services

d)

Reduced urbanization

36.

According to Boserup, population growth leads to:

a)

Technological innovation in farming

b)

Resource exhaustion

c)

Overpopulation

d)

Economic decline

37.

Social effects of population distribution include:

a)

Cultural diversity in urban centers

b)

Uniform access to services

c)

Lower healthcare availability in cities

d)

Equal wealth distribution

38.

The age structure of a population shows:

a)

Population distribution by gender only

b)

Population by economic class

c)

Proportion of people by age group

d)

Geographic migration flows

39.

What environmental challenge is linked to population concentration?

a)

Pollution and land degradation

b)

Improved biodiversity

c)

Reduced waste generation

d)

Decreased resource use

40.

Rate of Natural Increase (RNI) is calculated by:

a)

Birth rate minus death rate

b)

Immigration minus emigration

c)

Total fertility divided by population

d)

Births plus deaths

41.

41. Which tool helps visualize population composition?

a)

Population pyramid

b)

Bar graph

c)

Pie chart

d)

Line graph

42.

Migration that increases population size in a region is called:

a)

Emigration

b)

Immigration

c)

Urbanization

d)

Industrialization

43.

A country with a youthful population likely faces:

a)

High demand for education and jobs

b)

Low dependency ratios

c)

Increased elderly care needs

d)

Decreasing birth rates

44.

Access to contraception directly affects:

a)

Fertility rates

b)

Migration rates

c)

Mortality rates

d)

GDP growth

45.

Which demographic factor directly decreases population size?

a)

Fertility

b)

Mortality

c)

Immigration

d)

Natural increase

46.

A pull factor example is:

a)

Natural disasters

b)

Political instability

c)

Economic opportunity

d)

Unemployment

47.

What is one consequence of high population density in cities?

a)

Lower housing demand

b)

Increased infrastructure strain

c)

Less cultural diversity

d)

Lower cost of living

48.

An antinatalist policy example is:

4 lines
49.

What does physiological density reveal about a country?

a)

The pressure population places on arable land

b)

The total number of farmers per square kilometer

c)

The number of cities with over one million people

d)

The rate of industrialization

50.

What is population doubling time?

a)

The period for a population to double in size

b)

The number of people in a family

c)

The total fertility rate

d)

The age of dependency

51.

What is the sex ratio?

a)

Ratio of males to females in a population

b)

Number of children per woman

c)

Birth rate per 1,000 people

d)

Age dependency rate

52.

Intervening obstacles refer to:

a)

Barriers that prevent or delay migration

b)

Attractions that encourage migration

c)

Government migration policies

d)

Population growth trends

53.

Thomas Malthus believed population growth would:

a)

Exceed food production

b)

Decrease over time

c)

Match agricultural output

d)

Remain constant

54.

A high agricultural density usually indicates:

a)

Labor-intensive farming practices

b)

Mechanized agriculture

c)

Low rural population density

d)

Industrial development

55.

A sparsely populated area is most likely to have:

a)

few people living in a large area

b)

many people living close together

c)

a high population density

d)

crowded cities

56.

A pronatalist policy aims to:

a)

Encourage births

b)

Limit immigration

c)

Reduce fertility

d)

Discourage population growth

57.

Which factor most reduces fertility rates?

a)

Greater female education

b)

High infant mortality

c)

Early marriage

d)

Agricultural employment

58.

Which of the following best defines arithmetic density?

a)

The total population divided by the total land area

b)

The number of farmers per unit of arable land

c)

The total population divided by the amount of arable land

d)

The number of people living in urban areas

59.

An aging population creates challenges for:

a)

Education investment

b)

Healthcare and pensions

c)

Urban sprawl

d)

Youth employment

60.

An aging population can lead to:

a)

Increased healthcare costs

b)

Lower pension spending

c)

More children per family

d)

Rising fertility

61.

Social effects of population distribution include:

a)

Cultural diversity in urban centers

b)

Uniform access to services

c)

Lower healthcare availability in cities

d)

Equal wealth distribution

62.

62. According to Boserup, population growth leads to:

a)

increased agricultural innovation

b)

decreased food production

c)

population decline

d)

urbanization

63.

Neo-Malthusians emphasize:

a)

Environmental limits to growth

b)

Unlimited population expansion

c)

Industrial expansion

d)

Declining fertility worldwide

64.

The age structure of a population shows:

a)

Population distribution by gender only

b)

Population by economic class

c)

Proportion of people by age group

d)

Geographic migration flows

65.

A country with low mortality and low fertility is likely in which DTM stage?

a)

Stage 2

b)

Stage 3

c)

Stage 4

d)

Stage 1

66.

Economic growth in high-density areas often leads to:

a)

Declining innovation

b)

Increased cost of living

c)

Fewer social services

d)

Reduced urbanization

67.

Which migration type involves movement within the same country?

a)

Internal migration

b)

Transnational migration

c)

Step migration

d)

Guest worker migration

68.

Japan’s population challenge is primarily:

a)

Rapid urbanization

b)

Population aging and labor shortage

c)

Overcrowding in cities

d)

Low education rates

69.

69. Ravenstein’s Laws of Migration suggest:

a)

Most migrants move only a short distance.

b)

Most migrants move from rural to urban areas only.

c)

Migration is always voluntary.

d)

Migration occurs only for economic reasons.

70.

A country with low birth rates and high life expectancy faces:

a)

Youthful dependency

b)

Aging population pressures

c)

Overpopulation

d)

High infant mortality

71.

Which of the following is a push factor?

a)

War and conflict

b)

Job opportunities

c)

Educational access

d)

Safety

72.

In the Demographic Transition Model, Stage 5 predicts:

a)

Rapid growth

b)

Population decline

c)

Stabilization

d)

High fertility

73.

Which of the following is a physical factor influencing population distribution?

a)

Fertility rate

b)

Government policies

c)

Climate and water availability

d)

Economic opportunity

74.

The Green Revolution disproved Malthus because it:

a)

Reduced birth rates

b)

Increased food production with technology

c)

Reduced migration

d)

Stopped famine completely

75.

Women entering the workforce typically causes:

a)

Higher fertility rates

b)

Declining fertility rates

c)

Increased mortality

d)

Increased migration

76.

76. The region that typically shows low population density is:

a)

Desert regions

b)

Urban centers

c)

River valleys

d)

Coastal plains

77.

Which tool helps visualize population composition?

a)

Population pyramid

b)

GDP chart

c)

Climate map

d)

Topographic profile

78.

What environmental challenge is linked to population concentration?

a)

Pollution and land degradation

b)

Improved biodiversity

c)

Reduced waste generation

d)

Decreased resource use

79.

Which of the following is a physical factor influencing population distribution?

a)

Fertility rate

b)

Government policies

c)

Climate and water availability

d)

Economic opportunity

80.

A sparsely populated area is most likely to have:

a)

Abundant jobs and housing

b)

Harsh physical conditions

c)

High agricultural productivity

d)

Dense transportation networks

81.

A country with a youthful population likely faces:

a)

High demand for education and jobs

b)

Low dependency ratios

c)

Increased elderly care needs

d)

Decreasing birth rates

82.

Neo-Malthusians emphasize:

a)

Environmental limits to growth

b)

Unlimited population expansion

c)

Industrial expansion

d)

Declining fertility worldwide

83.

A high agricultural density usually indicates:

4 lines
84.

A pull factor example is:

a)

Natural disasters

b)

Political instability

c)

Economic opportunity

d)

Unemployment

85.

An antinatalist policy example is:

a)

France’s baby bonus

b)

China’s One-Child Policy

c)

Japan’s family incentives

d)

Sweden’s parental leave programs

86.

A country with low birth rates and high life expectancy faces:

a)

Youthful dependency

b)

Aging population pressures

c)

Overpopulation

d)

High infant mortality

87.

According to Boserup, population growth leads to:

a)

Technological innovation in farming

b)

Resource exhaustion

c)

Overpopulation

d)

Economic decline

88.

A pronatalist policy aims to:

a)

Encourage births

b)

Limit immigration

c)

Reduce fertility

d)

Discourage population growth

89.

Intervening obstacles refer to:

a)

Barriers that prevent or delay migration

b)

Attractions that encourage migration

c)

Government migration policies

d)

Population growth trends

90.

Women entering the workforce typically causes:

a)

an increase in household income

b)

a decrease in job opportunities for men

c)

a decline in economic growth

d)

a reduction in education levels

91.

Access to contraception directly affects:

a)

Fertility rates

b)

Migration rates

c)

Mortality rates

d)

GDP growth

92.

Which factor most reduces fertility rates?

a)

Greater female education

b)

High infant mortality

c)

Early marriage

d)

Agricultural employment

93.

What is population doubling time?

a)

The period for a population to double in size

b)

The number of people in a family

c)

The total fertility rate

d)

The age of dependency

94.

Social effects of population distribution include:

a)

Cultural diversity in urban centers

b)

Uniform access to services

c)

Lower healthcare availability in cities

d)

Equal wealth distribution

95.

Economic growth in high-density areas often leads to:

a)

Declining innovation

b)

Increased cost of living

c)

Fewer social services

d)

Reduced urbanization

96.

Which of the following best defines arithmetic density?

a)

The total population divided by the total land area

b)

The number of farmers per unit of arable land

c)

The total population divided by the amount of arable land

d)

The number of people living in urban areas

97.

One consequence of high population density in cities is:

a)

increased traffic congestion

b)

lower demand for housing

c)

decreased pollution

d)

more available open space

98.

An aging population can lead to:

a)

Increased healthcare costs

b)

Lower pension spending

c)

More children per family

d)

Rising fertility

99.

The age structure of a population shows:

a)

Population distribution by gender only

b)

Population by economic class

c)

Proportion of people by age group

d)

Geographic migration flows

100.

Thomas Malthus believed population growth would:

a)

Exceed food production

b)

Decrease over time

c)

Match agricultural output

d)

Remain constant

101.

Which country is known for having the highest population density?

a)

Russia

b)

Bangladesh

c)

Canada

d)

Australia

102.

What is a demographic transition?

a)

A sudden increase in migration

b)

A shift from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates

c)

An increase in agricultural production

d)

The movement of people from rural to urban areas

103.

Which of the following best describes a population pyramid?

a)

A chart of economic growth

b)

A graphical representation of age and sex distribution

c)

A diagram of migration patterns

d)

A map showing population density

104.

What is the main cause of population decline in some developed countries?

a)

Increased immigration

b)

High infant mortality

c)

Rapid urbanization

d)

Low birth rates

105.

Which term refers to the movement of people within a country?

a)

Internal migration

b)

International migration

c)

Population explosion

d)

Urbanization

106.

Which of the following is a primary cause of urbanization?

a)

Increased agricultural output

b)

Rural to urban migration

c)

Decreasing birth rates

d)

Declining life expectancy

107.

What is the demographic transition model used to explain?

a)

Urban planning strategies

b)

Changes in population growth over time

c)

Patterns of global trade

d)

Climate change effects

108.

Which region currently has the highest population growth rate?

a)

Europe

b)

East Asia

c)

Sub-Saharan Africa

d)

North America

109.

What does a population pyramid with a wide base indicate?

a)

High life expectancy

b)

Aging population

c)

Low infant mortality

d)

High birth rates

110.

Which factor is most likely to increase life expectancy?

a)

Poor sanitation

b)

Improved healthcare

c)

High fertility rates

d)

Increased migration

111.

What is the main reason for voluntary migration?

a)

Government policies

b)

War and conflict

c)

Economic opportunities

d)

Natural disasters

112.

Which of the following best describes a refugee?

a)

Someone who moves for a new job

b)

Someone who travels for tourism

c)

Someone forced to flee due to conflict or persecution

d)

Someone who migrates for education

113.

What is the dependency ratio?

a)

The ratio of working-age people to dependents

b)

The number of births per 1,000 people

c)

The percentage of urban population

d)

The rate of population growth

114.

Which policy is most effective in reducing population growth?

a)

Promoting urbanization

b)

Increasing agricultural subsidies

c)

Improving access to education and family planning

d)

Encouraging early marriage

115.

What is a push factor in migration?

a)

Attractive job opportunities

b)

Political instability or conflict

c)

Favorable climate

d)

High standard of living

116.

Which factor most directly influences a country's birth rate?

a)

Access to family planning

b)

Level of urbanization

c)

Average annual rainfall

d)

Number of natural resources

117.

What does a wide base in a population pyramid indicate?

a)

High life expectancy

b)

Aging population

c)

Low infant mortality

d)

High birth rate

118.

Which stage of the Demographic Transition Model is characterized by declining birth and death rates?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 4

d)

Stage 3

119.

What is the main goal of pronatalist policies?

a)

Encourage higher birth rates

b)

Promote urbanization

c)

Decrease population density

d)

Reduce immigration

120.

Which of the following is a consequence of an aging population?

a)

Lower dependency ratio

b)

Increased demand for healthcare

c)

Higher birth rates

d)

Rapid urban growth

121.

What does the term 'dependency ratio' refer to?

a)

The rate of population growth

b)

The percentage of urban residents

c)

The number of children per family

d)

The ratio of non-working to working population

122.

Which region is currently experiencing the fastest population growth?

a)

Sub-Saharan Africa

b)

Western Europe

c)

North America

d)

East Asia

123.

What is a likely effect of high infant mortality rates?

a)

Higher birth rates

b)

Increased urbanization

c)

Decreased migration

d)

Lower life expectancy

124.

Which of the following best describes zero population growth?

a)

Population doubles every year

b)

Death rate exceeds birth rate

c)

Birth rate exceeds death rate

d)

Birth rate equals death rate

125.

What is the primary reason for implementing family planning programs?

a)

To reduce migration

b)

To promote urbanization

c)

To increase agricultural output

d)

To control population growth

126.

Which of the following is a consequence of rapid urbanization?

a)

Overcrowding in cities

b)

Lower pollution levels

c)

Improved rural infrastructure

d)

Decreased demand for housing

127.

What is the primary reason for declining birth rates in developed countries?

a)

High infant mortality

b)

Limited access to healthcare

c)

Higher levels of education

d)

Increased agricultural employment

128.

Which term describes the movement of people from rural to urban areas?

a)

Emigration

b)

Population explosion

c)

Natural increase

d)

Urbanization

129.

What is a likely economic effect of a shrinking working-age population?

a)

Decreased automation

b)

Lower wages

c)

Labor shortages

d)

Increased labor supply

130.

Which factor most contributes to population growth in developing countries?

a)

High levels of education

b)

Low infant mortality

c)

Increased urbanization

d)

High fertility rates

131.

What is the demographic transition model used to explain?

a)

Distribution of wealth

b)

Urban planning

c)

Patterns of migration

d)

Changes in population size over time

132.

Which of the following is a push factor for migration?

a)

Political instability

b)

Job opportunities

c)

Access to education

d)

High standard of living

133.

What is the dependency ratio?

a)

The ratio of urban to rural population

b)

The ratio of immigrants to emigrants

c)

The ratio of men to women

d)

The ratio of working-age people to dependents

134.

Which region is experiencing the fastest population growth?

a)

East Asia

b)

Europe

c)

Sub-Saharan Africa

d)

North America

135.

What is a common challenge faced by countries with high population density?

a)

Low competition for jobs

b)

Strain on infrastructure and services

c)

Abundant natural resources

d)

Decreased pollution

136.

Which of the following is a direct result of rapid urbanization?

a)

Increased traffic congestion

b)

Improved air quality

c)

Decreased demand for public transport

d)

Lower population density

137.

What does a low physiological density indicate about a country?

a)

Scarcity of farmland

b)

High pressure on agricultural resources

c)

Abundant arable land relative to population

d)

Overpopulation in rural areas

138.

Which factor most contributes to suburban sprawl?

a)

Strict zoning laws

b)

Availability of affordable land outside cities

c)

Increased use of public transportation

d)

Declining urban populations

139.

Which of the following best describes a push factor in migration?

a)

Job opportunities in another country

b)

Political instability in the home country

c)

Family reunification

d)

Attractive climate in destination

140.

What is the demographic transition model primarily used to explain?

a)

Changes in population growth over time

b)

Levels of agricultural productivity

c)

Patterns of urbanization

d)

Distribution of natural resources

141.

Which region is most likely to experience a youth bulge?

a)

Highly industrialized nations

b)

Regions with low fertility rates

c)

Countries with aging populations

d)

Countries with high birth rates

142.

What is a common effect of overpopulation in developing countries?

a)

Lower unemployment rates

b)

Strain on healthcare and education systems

c)

Increased per capita income

d)

Abundant natural resources

143.

Which of the following is an example of a pull factor for migration?

a)

Better employment prospects

b)

Religious persecution

c)

Political unrest

d)

Natural disasters

144.

What does a high dependency ratio indicate?

a)

Large working-age population

b)

Low birth and death rates

c)

Many dependents relative to workers

d)

High levels of urbanization

145.

Which statement best describes the concept of carrying capacity?

a)

The total area of arable land in a country

b)

The number of people living in urban areas

c)

The rate of technological innovation

d)

The maximum population size an environment can sustain

146.

Name the Character (Best Superhero)

(a)  

147.

Name the Character

(a)  

148.

Name the Character

(a)  

149.

Name the Character

(a)  

150.

Name the Character

(a)  

151.

Name the Character

(a)  

152.

Name the Character

(a)  

153.

Name the Character

(a)  

154.

Name the Character

(a)  

155.

Who is a rejected soldier that takes part in a top secret experiment called Operation Rebirth?

a)

Nick Fury

b)

Quick Silver

c)

James Spader

d)

Captain America

156.

What is Batman's real name?

a)

Nicholas Thunder

b)

Bruce Wayne

c)

Jack Napier

d)

Arthur Curry

157.
Superman is from which planet?
a)
Mars
b)
Uranus
c)
Krypton
d)
Earth
158.

What is Spider-Man’s real name?

a)

Harry Osborne

b)

Steve Ditko

c)

Peter Parker

159.

Where was Thor born?

a)

Tatooine

b)

Hogwarts

c)

Asgard

160.

Who is Batman’s sidekick?

a)

Robin

b)

Penguin

c)

Jimmy Olson

161.
a)

Snow White

b)

Cinderella

c)

Belle

d)

Minnie Mouse

162.
a)

Timon and Pumbaa

b)

Simba and Nala

c)

Flounder and Sebastian

d)

Lilo and Stitch

163.
a)

Pua

b)

Peppa pig

c)

Piglet

d)

Hamm

164.
a)

Hakuna Matata

b)

Mohatu

c)

Scar

d)

Mufasa

165.
a)

Jack Jack

b)

Gus Gus

c)

Pip Squeak

d)

Blue Cheese

166.
a)

Dumbo

b)

Bambi

c)

Pinocchio

d)

Peanut

167.
a)

Mrs.Potts

b)

Lumiere

c)

Chip

d)

Clocksworth

168.
a)

Prince Charming

b)

Eric

c)

Chief Powhatan

d)

John Smith

169.
a)

Marlin

b)

Nemo

c)

Fins

d)

Sharkbait

170.
a)

Hayhay

b)

Heihei

c)

Donald

d)

Pua

171.
a)

Mickey

b)

Aladdin

c)

Genie

d)

Blues Clues

172.
a)

Pooh

b)

Tiger

c)

Piglet

d)

Eeyore

173.
a)

Mushu

b)

Pua

c)

Kano

d)

Kansai

174.
a)

Piglet

b)

Pumbaa

c)

Pua

d)

Hamm

175.
a)

Jasmine

b)

Bubbles

c)

Ariel

d)

Belle

176.
a)

Jasmine

b)

Stalker

c)

Snow White

d)

Belle

177.
a)

Dopey

b)

Grumpy

c)

Bashful

d)

Sneezy

178.
a)

Daisy

b)

Donald

c)

Mickey

d)

Minnie

179.
a)

Jasmine

b)

Jasmine

c)

Jasmine

d)

Rapunzel

180.
a)

Cogsworth

b)

Beast

c)

Clocksworth

d)

Lumiere