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WorksheetsChapter 12: The Respiratory System Overview & Assessment
Total questions: 150
Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins
Which statement best summarizes the primary job of the respiratory system?
Deliver nutrients to tissues
Bring oxygen in and remove carbon dioxide out
Maintain body temperature
Filter pathogens from blood
In respiratory terminology, what equals one respiration?
Two inhalations
One inhalation plus one exhalation
One exhalation only
A full minute of breathing
During the initial encounter, when does respiratory assessment begin according to best practice?
After placing the stethoscope on the chest
Once vital signs are recorded
The moment you see the patient
After obtaining health history
Which findings are specifically part of inspection in a respiratory assessment? Select all that apply.
Breathing pattern
Skin color
Respiratory effort
Tracheal position
Subcutaneous air (crepitus)
Which abnormalities are assessed by palpation in a respiratory exam?
Cyanosis and respiratory rate
Lung sounds in all lobes
Tracheal position, subcutaneous air, and chest expansion
Speech clarity and cough quality
What is auscultation used for in a respiratory assessment?
Measuring oxygen saturation
Listening to lung sounds with a stethoscope
Observing posture and work of breathing
Palpating for rib tenderness
Which observation during inspection may indicate dyspnea?
Midline trachea
Bent over to breathe better after walking
Normal chest expansion
Absence of crepitus
Which prefix refers to the nose in respiratory terminology?
Rhino-
Laryngo-
Tracheo-
Broncho-
Select all terms that correctly pair with their meanings in the respiratory system.
Laryngo- = voice box
Tracheo- = windpipe
Broncho- = lungs/air passageways
-pnea = difficulty breathing
Tachypnea most accurately means which of the following?
Fast breathing
Slow breathing
Shortness of breath with activity
Difficulty breathing at night
Hemoptysis is best defined as:
Coughing or spitting up blood
Inflammation of the bronchi
Surgical reconstruction of the nose
Removal of the larynx
An obstruction in the upper respiratory system will primarily cause which problem?
Prevents air from entering
Decreases oxygen diffusion in alveoli
Reduces diaphragm contraction strength
Increases red blood cell production
According to the scope of practice note, which assessment technique should LPNs avoid and instead focus on look-feel-listen?
Percussion
Inspection
Palpation
Auscultation
Which statement best describes the primary function of the epiglottis during swallowing?
It vibrates to create sound.
It opens and closes to protect the airway.
It humidifies inhaled air.
It propels food into the esophagus.
Failure of the epiglottis leads most directly to which clinical concern?
Pneumothorax
Aspiration risk
Hypoglycemia
Pulmonary embolism
Select all roles of the larynx described.
Protects the lower respiratory tract from aspiration
Responsible for speech production
Filters particulates in the nasal cavity
Initiates digestion of carbohydrates
A post-operative patient is still drowsy from anesthesia. Why are they kept NPO (nothing by mouth) until fully awake?
To prevent dehydration
Cough and gag reflexes are reduced, increasing aspiration risk
To reduce postoperative bleeding
Because the epiglottis is absent after surgery
Which situation exemplifies the instructor’s safety reminder about intoxicated or unconscious patients?
Place them flat on their back to maintain spinal alignment.
Keep them supine with legs elevated to prevent shock.
Avoid laying them flat; if they vomit while supine, they may aspirate.
Give sips of water to prevent dry mouth.
Which upper airway disorder–effect pairing is correct?
Tonsillitis — improves airflow through the oropharynx
ACE inhibitors — may cause tongue swelling requiring medical attention
Anaphylaxis — causes mild nasal congestion only
Anaphylaxis — rarely affects the airway
Arrange the lower respiratory structures in the order air travels after leaving the upper tract.
Bronchi → Trachea → Bronchioles → Alveoli
Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli
Alveoli → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Trachea
Bronchioles → Alveoli → Trachea → Bronchi
Which function occurs at the alveoli in the lower respiratory system?
Production of red blood cells
Gas exchange
Filtration of lymph
Regulation of blood glucose
Which combination is emphasized as critical indicators in vital-sign assessment for respiratory status?
Blood pressure and pulse
Respirations and oxygen saturation
Temperature and capillary refill
Pupil size and reflexes
What is the normal adult respiratory rate according to the material?
6–10 breaths/min
12–20 breaths/min
20–28 breaths/min
30–40 breaths/min
Select all findings commonly associated with chronic low oxygen over years.
Clubbing of fingers/toes
Acute wheeze after exercise
Barrel chest
Immediate cyanosis after brief breath-holding
Barrel chest is most commonly seen in which condition?
Early-stage pneumonia
Late-stage COPD
Acute asthma attack
Pulmonary embolism
Which statement best defines Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
A single infection that affects only the upper airway
A group of diseases causing airflow blockage and breathing-related problems
An autoimmune disorder that destroys alveoli overnight
A temporary bronchospasm triggered by cold air only
Which of the following are major types included under COPD according to the material? Select all that apply.
Emphysema
Chronic Bronchitis
Asthma
Cystic Fibrosis
What is identified as the primary cause of COPD?
Allergen exposure
Air pollution
Smoking
Viral infections
In COPD, what does the term “obstructive” indicate and what physiologic consequences follow?
Airway blockage leading to air trapping and CO2 retention
Hyperventilation leading to respiratory alkalosis
Fluid accumulation leading to hypovolemia
Surfactant loss leading to alveolar collapse only
What is the normal range for oxygen saturation listed in the material?
80–90%
88–92%
90–94%
95–100%
Which combination best lists hallmark signs and symptoms associated with COPD?
Barrel chest, dyspnea, wheezing, clubbing, cyanosis
Fever, rash, stiff neck, photophobia
Sudden chest pain, hemoptysis, unilateral leg swelling
Productive cough, pleuritic pain, night sweats only
For a patient with COPD requiring oxygen, which target and approach are recommended?
High-flow oxygen to achieve 99–100% SaO2
Low-flow oxygen aiming for 88–92% SaO2
No oxygen unless SaO2 is below 70%
High-flow oxygen until SaO2 reaches 95% then discontinue
Why is excessive oxygen administration potentially dangerous in COPD?
It triggers acute bronchospasm
It increases risk of pulmonary embolism
It can lead to CO2 retention which may be fatal
It causes immediate airway bleeding
An instructor advises: “When their O2 sat hits 95, back it down—they’re getting too much.” This guidance primarily applies to which condition?
Asthma in remission
COPD
Healthy athletes at altitude
Pulmonary embolism
Match each normal lung sound with its description.
Vesicular: low–medium pitch, soft “mushy,” inspiration longer than expiration (2–3×)
Bronchovesicular: moderate pitch, equal inspiration/expiration, muffled hollow
Bronchial: high pitch, loud/harsh, longer expiration
All normal sounds: high pitch with inspiration longer than expiration
Which description best matches rales (crackles)?
Low snoring/gurgling due to thick mucus
Small clicking/popping/bubbling sounds
High-pitched musical wheeze on expiration
Pleural friction rub, grating quality
Rhonchi are most consistent with which description and common associations?
Low snoring/gurgling; associated with bronchitis and COPD mucus
Small popping sounds; associated with pneumonia and CHF
High pitch loud/harsh; normal over trachea
Snoring-like sound from air moving through mucus; seen in cystic fibrosis
Which conditions are commonly associated with rales (crackles) according to the table?
Pneumonia and congestive heart failure
Asthma and pulmonary embolism
COPD mucus and cystic fibrosis
Pleural effusion and pneumothorax
Which lung sound is a harsh, high-pitched noise heard on inspiration due to an upper airway problem and signals an emergency?
Stridor
Wheezing
Crackles
Rhonchi
Wheezing is most commonly associated with which condition?
Pulmonary edema
Asthma (bronchospasm)
Pneumothorax
Pleuritis
A patient with asthma suddenly stops wheezing and has minimal chest movement. What is the best interpretation?
Improving airflow
No air movement—impending respiratory crash
Development of pleural effusion
Onset of pneumothorax
Cheyne-Stokes respirations are best described as which pattern?
Continuous rapid breathing
Cycles of fast to slow breathing followed by apnea
Irregular shallow breaths without pauses
Regular deep breaths at a constant rate
Pulmonary embolism most often originates from which source?
Clot from the coronary arteries
Clot from a deep vein in the leg
Air embolus from IV tubing
Fat embolus from long-bone fracture
Select all treatments that are listed for pulmonary embolism management.
Heparin IV in hospital
Lovenox (SQ) as bridge therapy
Warfarin (PO) for long-term therapy
Aspirin only
Which laboratory tests are specifically paired with the listed anticoagulants for PE treatment monitoring?
PT for heparin; aPTT for warfarin
aPTT for heparin; INR for warfarin
INR for heparin; PT for warfarin
D-dimer for both heparin and warfarin dosing
Which diagnostic test is used to rule out deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism?
ABG
D-dimer
Sputum analysis
Pulse oximetry
Which diagnostic test continuously monitors oxygen saturation at the bedside?
Arterial blood gas (ABG)
D-dimer
Pulse oximetry
Chest X-ray
What does an arterial blood gas (ABG) evaluate according to the material?
Type of lung infection (bacterial vs viral)
Oxygen and carbon dioxide levels plus acid-base balance
Presence of pulmonary embolism
Ventilation-perfusion mismatch only
A patient presents with frothy, pink or blood-tinged sputum. What is the most likely associated condition and urgency?
Chronic bronchitis; routine follow-up
Pulmonary edema; emergency
Asthma; non-productive cough
Pulmonary infection; outpatient antibiotics
Which sputum appearance is classically linked to Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Scant, rust-colored
Yellow/green with foul odor
Bloody or streaked
Very thick, viscous
The term hemoptysis on the sputum chart most closely corresponds to which finding and condition?
Scant mucus in asthma
Bloody/streaked sputum in TB or lung cancer
Thick, tenacious sputum in chronic bronchitis
Frothy pink sputum in pulmonary edema
In airway management, which set lists only signs of altered breathing patterns noted in the material? Select all that apply.
Dyspnea and tachypnea > 20/min
Cyanosis and use of accessory muscles
Bradycardia and hypotension
Restlessness/agitation and fatigue/exhaustion
What is the primary goal of airway management as stated?
Prevent aspiration pneumonia
Maintain open airway and adequate gas exchange
Reduce sputum production
Normalize blood pressure
Which sputum characteristic suggests dehydration and what is the recommended action?
Scant mucus; non-productive cough
Very thick, viscous; give fluids
Thick, tenacious, ropy; encourage fluids to thin secretions
Yellow/green with foul odor; start diuretics
A patient with blue lips and fingertip discoloration, tachypnea over 20/min, and neck retractions is exhibiting which problem?
Adequate gas exchange
Early hypoxia only
Altered breathing patterns indicating possible hypoxia
Normal recovery from exertion
Which patient positioning best helps open airways and reduce the work of breathing by having the person sit up and lean forward on pillows or a bedside table?
Supine position
Orthopneic position
Trendelenburg position
Lateral recumbent position
A client with COPD is struggling to breathe. Which immediate nursing action is most appropriate based on positioning guidance?
Place the client flat in supine position
Encourage the orthopneic position
Apply Trendelenburg positioning
Turn the client to prone position
According to the prevention list, what is identified as the first line of defense against common respiratory infections?
Wearing a mask at all times
Antibiotic prophylaxis
Hand hygiene
Daily vitamin supplementation
Which prevention strategies are recommended for respiratory infections? Select all that apply.
Avoid crowds during flu/COVID season
Encourage smoking cessation
Maintain hydration and nutrition
Start antibiotics at first sign of cough
Which vaccine guidance is correctly matched with its purpose or note?
Pneumococcal vaccine—prevents viral pneumonia only
Influenza vaccine—yearly unless egg allergy
COVID-19 vaccine—only for high-risk adults
RSV vaccine—self-administered for all adults
For adults age 50 or older or otherwise high-risk, which vaccine protects against bacterial pneumonia?
Influenza
Pneumococcal
COVID-19
RSV
Arrange the initial steps of smoking cessation education following the “Ask–Advise–Assess–Assist–Arrange” framework as described in the material.
Ask about tobacco use; Advise to quit; Assess readiness
Advise to quit; Arrange follow-up; Ask about tobacco use
Assess readiness; Ask about tobacco use; Arrange follow-up
Arrange follow-up; Assist with quit plan; Ask about tobacco use
Which intervention best supports the airway priority for a respiratory patient?
Encourage large meals three times daily
Maintain a patent airway by elevating the head of bed and suctioning as needed
Cluster all care activities together to reduce interruptions
Limit oral care to once weekly
A nurse is monitoring a respiratory patient. Which parameters are specifically listed under breathing-focused care? Select all that apply.
O2 saturation
Respiratory rate
Capillary refill
Vaccination status
For infection prevention in respiratory patients, which action is recommended?
Restrict fluids
Daily oral care with hand hygiene and vaccines
Avoid vaccines to reduce fever risk
Minimize oral intake to prevent aspiration
What is the recommended approach to manage fatigue in respiratory patients?
Encourage continuous activity to build endurance
Space activities with rest between care
Schedule all procedures back-to-back
Offer high-intensity exercise twice daily
Which respiratory rate falls within the normal adult range?
8 breaths per minute
12 breaths per minute
24 breaths per minute
30 breaths per minute
A patient with COPD has an O2 saturation of 90%. Based on the key numbers to memorize, how should this be interpreted?
Below acceptable for COPD
Within the acceptable 88–92% range for COPD
Normal for all adults (95–100%)
Critically high
Identify the normal arterial blood gas (ABG) values listed. Select all that apply.
pH 7.35–7.45
PaCO2 35–45 mmHg
PaO2 60–80 mmHg
HCO3− 22–26 mEq/L
Which device is used in emergencies to deliver the highest oxygen concentration prior to intubation?
Nasal cannula
Simple face mask
Non-rebreather mask
Venturi mask
A patient with bronchitis is prescribed a nebulizer treatment. What is the primary action of the medication delivered via nebulizer in this context?
Thins pulmonary secretions
Opens airways with bronchodilators
Suppresses cough reflex
Increases surfactant production
Which statement best describes appropriate patient teaching for use of an incentive spirometer after surgery?
Exhale forcefully into the device to clear mucus
Inhale slowly to encourage deep breathing; do not blow out
Use only when coughing is present
Hold breath before using the device
Which medications are correctly matched with their primary purpose? Select all that apply.
Bronchodilators — open narrowed airways in bronchitis/asthma
Steroids (corticosteroids) — reduce inflammation anywhere in the body
Antibiotics — treat viral infections such as influenza
Diuretics (Lasix/furosemide) — used for pulmonary edema
A patient uses albuterol before exercise. Which common effect should you anticipate and teach about?
Bradycardia and sedation
Increased heart rate and jitteriness
Severe hypoglycemia
Urinary retention
Which teaching point is correct for a patient prescribed inhaled steroids such as prednisone?
Take only until symptoms improve; stopping early is fine
Rinse the mouth after inhaled use to reduce side effects
Expect immediate relief of acute bronchospasm
Use instead of completing antibiotics
Which situation represents a respiratory red-flag sign that warrants calling a provider immediately?
O2 saturation of 94% on room air
Mild, clear sputum with a cold
O2 saturation less than 90%
Occasional dry cough after exercise
Which findings should raise concern for life-threatening conditions? Select all that apply.
Frothy pink sputum suggesting pulmonary edema
No breath sounds on one side suggesting pneumothorax
Silent chest in asthma indicating no air movement
Cyanosis of lips or nails
Sneezing with watery eyes
Which of the following falls within the normal respiratory rate range listed for adults in the recall sheet?
8–10 breaths/min
12–20 breaths/min
22–28 breaths/min
30–36 breaths/min
According to the quick recall, the normal oxygen saturation range for a healthy adult is best described as:
85–90%
88–92%
90–94%
95–100%
For a patient with COPD, what is the target oxygen saturation range emphasized in the material?
80–84%
85–90%
88–92%
93–97%
95–100%
A patient produces frothy pink sputum. Based on the summary sheet, what is the priority interpretation?
Likely viral infection; monitor only
Allergic reaction; give antihistamine
Emergency—suggests pulmonary edema
Normal in early morning
Match each lung sound with its most likely implication as listed in the recall sheet.
Crackles → fluid
Wheezing → bronchospasm
Rhonchi → mucus
Stridor → obstruction
Which findings together suggest chronic hypoxia in the recall list? Select all that apply.
Barrel chest
Digital clubbing
Bradycardia
Hypotension
Which action is correct patient instruction for using an incentive spirometer according to the material?
Blow out forcefully into the device
Inhale slowly through the device
Hold breath for 10 seconds, then exhale into the device
Alternate inhale and exhale through the device rapidly
The quick recall lists the first line general defense against respiratory infection as:
Handwashing
Mask wearing
Cough etiquette
Vaccination
Which statement best differentiates productive from non-productive coughs as highlighted in the test hints?
Productive coughs are dry; non-productive are wet
Productive coughs expel sputum; non-productive do not
Productive coughs occur only at night
Non-productive coughs always indicate asthma
In suspected pulmonary edema, the instructor hint 'Set them up and give Lasix' refers to which immediate nursing actions? Select all that apply.
Position the patient upright
Administer a loop diuretic
Increase fluid intake rapidly
Place the patient supine
Which airway findings are identified as emergencies in the test hints? Select all that apply.
Stridor
Airway swelling
Aspiration
Hoarseness only
Which structure is listed as part of the upper airway in the recall sheet?
Alveoli
Bronchioles
Larynx
Trachea
Which statement aligns with the recall sheet on causes of respiratory disease?
Secondhand perfume exposure is the #1 cause
Air pollution is the #1 cause
Smoking is the #1 cause
Genetics is the #1 cause
According to the summary, what is the main function of the respiratory system?
Immune regulation
Gas exchange
Nutrient absorption
Blood filtration
Which structures are included in the upper airway? Select all that apply.
Nose
Sinuses
Mouth
Pharynx
Larynx
What is the primary consequence if any portion of the upper airway becomes obstructed or infected?
Carbon dioxide retention in the kidneys
Oxygen flow to the lungs decreases
Immediate collapse of the alveoli
Increased airflow to the lower airway
Which statement best summarizes the functions of the upper airway?
Exchange gases with the blood and regulate acid–base balance
Bring air in, filter, warm, humidify, and protect the lower airway
Store oxygen and release it during exhalation
Generate surfactant to prevent airway collapse
Which disorder listed below is caused by a virus and can affect both the upper and lower respiratory tracts?
Rhinitis
Sinusitis
Influenza (flu)
Laryngitis
Which cause best explains most cases of rhinitis (common cold)?
Bacterial infection of the sinuses
Viral infection such as rhinovirus or coronavirus
Fungal colonization
Autoimmune reaction
Which signs and symptoms are typical of rhinitis? Select all that apply.
Runny or stuffy nose
Purulent yellow-green drainage
Sneezing and watery eyes
Facial tenderness over sinuses
Low-grade fever and fatigue
A patient asks for antibiotics for a cold. What is the most appropriate nursing teaching?
Antibiotics shorten viral colds by 2–3 days
Antibiotics prevent rebound congestion
Antibiotics do not treat viral rhinitis
Antibiotics eliminate watery eyes
Which nursing intervention best helps thin mucus in rhinitis?
Restrict fluids
Encourage rest and fluids
Start antibiotics immediately
Apply cold, dry air
Which sequence describes the pathophysiology of sinusitis?
Allergy triggers autoimmunity → tissue necrosis
Blockage traps mucus → bacterial growth
Viral load decreases → inflammation subsides
Dry air → ciliary hyperactivity → drainage
Which clinical picture most suggests acute bacterial sinusitis rather than simple rhinitis?
Watery rhinorrhea with sneezing and mild cough
Facial pain/pressure worse when bending forward with fever and purulent yellow-green drainage
Clear nasal discharge and itchy eyes
Low-grade fever and fatigue only
Which treatment is specifically indicated for sinusitis when the cause is bacterial?
Antihistamines only
Antibiotics
Saline sprays only
Humidifier use only
Which pathogen is a common bacterial cause of pharyngitis that warrants antibiotic therapy to prevent complications?
Group A Streptococcus
Staphylococcus aureus
Haemophilus influenzae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
A patient presents with a sore, scratchy throat, difficulty swallowing, red inflamed throat with possible white patches, enlarged cervical lymph nodes, and fever. Which diagnostic test best confirms bacterial pharyngitis?
Chest X-ray
Throat culture or rapid strep test
Monospot test
Sinus CT scan
Which treatment plan is most appropriate for viral pharyngitis?
Immediate antibiotics and corticosteroids
Symptom management with fluids, salt-water gargles, and lozenges
High-dose ibuprofen only
Decongestants only
Which complications are specifically associated with untreated streptococcal pharyngitis? Select all that apply.
Peritonsillar abscess
Rheumatic fever
Glomerulonephritis
Chronic laryngitis
Tonsillitis is best defined as which of the following?
Inflammation of the pharynx due to allergens
Inflammation of the tonsils caused by Streptococcus or viral infection
Acute infection of the epiglottis
Chronic sinus inflammation
Which sign is most concerning for airway obstruction in tonsillitis?
White exudate on tonsils
Kissing tonsils
Fever and chills
Ear pain (referred)
Which combination represents recommended management for bacterial tonsillitis? Select all that apply.
Antibiotics
Rest and fluids
Analgesics/antipyretics
Routine corticosteroids
A child is recovering from a tonsillectomy. Which instruction is correct for post-op care?
Use straws to encourage hydration
Offer cold fluids only and avoid red liquids
Encourage frequent coughing to clear the airway
Ignore frequent swallowing unless there is visible blood
During post-tonsillectomy monitoring, which early sign suggests bleeding and requires prompt evaluation?
Hoarseness
Frequent swallowing
Mild ear pain
Tickling sensation in throat
Which statement about laryngitis management is accurate?
Antibiotics are first-line therapy
Voice rest is recommended; do not whisper
Smoking relieves symptoms
GERD is unrelated to laryngitis
Which statement best defines laryngitis?
Inflammation of the larynx causing hoarseness or loss of voice
Bacterial infection of the tonsils leading to severe sore throat
Obstruction of the trachea causing stridor
Viral pneumonia with alveolar inflammation
A patient with laryngitis should be advised to prioritize which actions for symptom relief? Select all that apply.
Voice rest and avoid whispering
Steam inhalation or use of a humidifier
Increase fluids to keep throat moist
Smoke a small amount to open airways
Use alcohol-based gargles
Which sign or symptom most strongly suggests laryngitis rather than influenza?
Hoarseness or loss of voice
Sudden fever (102–104 °F)
Chills and body aches
Runny nose
Which statement accurately defines influenza according to the material?
A mild common cold limited to the upper airway
A highly contagious viral infection of the respiratory tract that can progress to pneumonia
A bacterial sinus infection requiring antibiotics
An allergic reaction to airborne particles
What are the primary modes of influenza transmission listed?
Droplet spread during coughing
Contact with contaminated water
Sneezing and talking droplets
Bloodborne transmission
Which set lists common influenza signs and symptoms from the material?
Gradual low-grade fever, productive cough, rash
Sudden high fever, chills, body aches, headache, fatigue, dry cough, sore throat, runny nose
Wheezing, chest tightness, hemoptysis
Severe diarrhea and vomiting
Which treatment recommendation for influenza is time-sensitive?
Start oseltamivir (Tamiflu) within 48 hours of symptom onset
Begin antibiotics as soon as fever starts
Use steroids after 5 days of illness
Delay all medications until fever resolves
Which prevention guidance and contraindication for influenza vaccination are both correctly paired?
Best defense: annual flu vaccine; Contraindicated in egg allergy or Guillain-Barré history
Best defense: vitamin C; Contraindicated in asthma
Best defense: handwashing only; Contraindicated in latex allergy
Best defense: wearing an N95; Contraindicated in peanut allergy
A patient with a muffled “hot‑potato” voice, swelling, drooling, and fever most likely has which condition?
Peritonsillar abscess
Epiglottitis
Otitis media
Orbital cellulitis
In suspected epiglottitis, which immediate nursing action is correct?
Swab the throat for a rapid strep test
Insert an oral airway to secure breathing
Avoid placing anything in the mouth and call a rapid response
Give oral fluids to assess swallowing
Which warning signs are most consistent with epiglottitis? Select all that apply.
Sudden sore throat
Stridor
Tripod position
Ear pain after URI
Hot‑potato voice
Progression of sinus infection to orbital cellulitis is suggested by which finding, requiring ER evaluation?
Muffled voice
Eye swelling or pain
Nasal congestion only
Low‑grade fever without other symptoms
Which diagnostic result most supports a bacterial etiology?
Negative throat culture
Positive nasal swab for flu
X‑ray showing sinusitis
CBC with elevated WBC
For otitis media after an upper respiratory infection, the primary treatment if bacterial is:
Antivirals such as Tamiflu
Antibiotics
Decongestants only
Antipyretics only
Which statement about decongestants is accurate?
Pseudoephedrine is an antiviral
Oxymetazoline (Afrin) nasal spray should not be used longer than 3 days to prevent rebound congestion
Decongestants reduce fever
Decongestants must be started within 48 hours of symptom onset
Which medication counseling point is correct for antibiotics listed (Penicillin, Amoxicillin, Azithromycin)?
Stop once symptoms improve
Take with antacids to enhance absorption
Finish the entire course and monitor for allergy
Use only if fever is present
A patient with suspected upper airway swelling presents with drooling and stridor. What is the nurse’s first priority?
Encourage fluids to thin secretions
Assess and secure the airway
Begin antibiotic therapy immediately
Provide a warm compress
Which nursing action helps prevent oral candidiasis when using fluticasone (Flonase) corticosteroid nasal spray?
Use before meals
Rinse mouth after use
Increase daily fluid intake
Limit use to every other day
Select all nursing priorities appropriate for upper respiratory infections according to the quick review.
Teach hand hygiene and cover mouth when coughing
Vaccination education
Smoking cessation
Start antibiotics for all viral rhinitis cases
A client with rhinitis has a runny nose and sneezing. What is the correct teaching point?
Antibiotics are indicated
No antibiotics are needed
Start steroids immediately
Seek surgery if symptoms persist 24 hours
A patient reports facial pressure that worsens when leaning forward. Which condition is most consistent with this symptom profile?
Rhinitis
Sinusitis
Laryngitis
Tonsillitis
For sinusitis management, which nursing interventions are emphasized in the quick review?
Warm compress
Increase fluids
Strict voice rest
Immediate tonsillectomy
Which statement about pharyngitis (strep) is accurate and aligns with prevention goals?
It presents with hoarseness and voice loss; advise voice rest
It requires antibiotics mainly to prevent rheumatic fever
It is usually viral and needs no antibiotics
Pain is primarily in the ear with “kissing tonsils”
Post-tonsillectomy care should prioritize which assessment?
Monitoring for post-operative bleeding
Encouraging whispering to rest the voice
Administering flu vaccine before discharge
Promoting early strenuous activity
Which teaching is correct for laryngitis?
Use antibiotics to prevent complications
Voice rest with no whispering
Increase nasal steroid use
Encourage smoking to open airways
A patient with sudden fever and body aches asks about prevention. What is the best response based on the review sheet?
Begin prophylactic antibiotics
Get the flu shot annually
Avoid all fluids until fever resolves
Use warm compresses to prevent infection
Which structures are included in the lower respiratory tract? Select all that apply.
Trachea
Bronchi/Bronchioles
Alveoli (lungs)
Nasal cavity
Pharynx
What is the primary function of the areas identified as gas exchange regions in the lower respiratory tract?
Filtering pathogens from inspired air
Producing surfactant to lubricate the trachea
Exchanging oxygen in and carbon dioxide out
Generating mucous to trap particulates
A patient has a blockage preventing air from reaching the alveoli. According to the overview, what is the most likely consequence?
Improved ventilation with mild tachypnea
No change in gas exchange
Respiratory distress or failure
Only a decrease in cough reflex
Which of the following are listed as common lower airway conditions? Select all that apply.
Bronchitis
Pneumonia (bacterial, viral, fungal)
Asthma
Otitis media
Pulmonary Embolism (PE)
COPD is best described in this overview as which combination?
Bronchitis and Pneumonia
Asthma and Tuberculosis
Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema
Pulmonary Edema and Lung Cancer
Which statement best defines acute bronchitis?
Inflammation of bronchi, usually viral but can be bacterial
Inflammation of alveoli filled with pus or fluid
Chronic obstruction of bronchioles due to asthma
Allergic swelling of the larynx only
A patient with acute bronchitis develops a cough that starts dry and later produces mucus. Which additional signs/symptoms are commonly associated with this condition? Select all that apply.
Wheezing or rhonchi
Severe high fever consistently above 40°C
Sore chest from coughing
Low-grade fever and fatigue
According to the treatment guidance for acute bronchitis, when are antibiotics indicated?
For all cases to prevent complications
Only if the cause is bacterial
Never, because bronchitis is always viral
Only when cough suppressants fail
Which intervention directly helps open the bronchi to allow air movement when airways are tight?
Expectorants (guaifenesin)
Cough suppressants at night
Bronchodilators
Humidified air
Which set of home-care measures is recommended for acute bronchitis?
Rest and fluids; humidified air or vaporizer
High-intensity exercise; dry air
Antibiotics and steroids for all patients
Only expectorants during the day and night
Which statement best defines pneumonia?
Inflammation/infection of bronchi causing dry cough
Inflammation/infection of alveoli leading to filling with pus, fluid, or debris
Spasm of bronchioles without infection
Fluid accumulation limited to the pleural space
Which types of pneumonia are correctly listed in the material? Select all that apply.
Bacterial (most serious)
Viral (less severe)
Aspiration (inhaled food/vomit)
Community- vs Hospital-acquired
Fungal (most common)
