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Welding Study Guide #1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 4hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When cutting, the space that is left is known as the

a)

drag

b)

line of cut

c)

lag

d)

kerf.

2.

Cutting tip size is determined by

a)

material thickness to be cut

b)

acetylene and oxygen working pressure

c)

the orifice diameter

d)

all of the above.

3.

What current and polarity is used for carbon arc cutting – air (CAC-A) of cast iron?

a)

AC

b)

DC

c)

DCEP

d)

DCEN

4.

Plasma arc cutting can be used to cut

a)

steel

b)

stainless steel

c)

aluminum

d)

all of the above.

5.

OFC stack cutting is limited to plates up to thick because of the difficulty in clamping heavier material in a tight stack.

a)

1/2"

b)

3/8"

c)

1/4"

d)

1/8"

6.

Compressed air quality used in the PAC process must be

a)

completely dry

b)

moist

c)

lubricated

d)

CO₂.

7.

Peening is done mainly to:

a)

change the contour of the weld

b)

flatten the weld

c)

make the assembly easier

d)

relieve internal stresses.

8.

The process of softening metals by heating to a temperature above the critical temperature and then cooling very slowly is called:

a)

annealing

b)

quenching

c)

stress relieving

d)

tempering.

9.

Tensile strength is the resistance a metal has to being:

a)

bent

b)

compressed

c)

pulled apart

d)

twisted.

10.

What element is added more than others to iron in the manufacture of steel?

a)

carbon

b)

magnesium

c)

monel

d)

sulphur.

11.

Increasing hardness and strength when heat treating steel requires sufficient _____ content.

a)

carbon

b)

phosphorus

c)

sulphur

d)

hydrogen.

12.

Which element in steel is most undesirable for welding?

a)

silicon

b)

chromium

c)

sulfur

d)

manganese.

13.

Oxides with a higher melting point than the base metal will appear as:

a)

fractures

b)

inclusions

c)

gas holes

d)

voids.

14.

Underbead cracking is often eliminated by:

a)

preheating

b)

chipping

c)

peening

d)

backwelding.

15.

The amount that a piece of metal expands per unit of length when its temperature is raised one degree is its:

a)

expansion rate

b)

coefficient of expansion

c)

ratio of heat input to expansion

d)

thermal rate.

16.

The portion of the base metal that is NOT melted during welding, but whose structure and properties are altered, is called the

a)

heat affected zone

b)

lower toe

c)

penetration

d)

throat.

17.

Referring to the symbol below, which one of the following letters is the reference line?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

18.

Referring to the symbol below, what type of finish contour is needed?

a)

convex

b)

concave

c)

flush

d)

fillet

19.

The leg size of the other side fillet weld is

a)

10"

b)

2"

c)

5/16"

d)

1/4"

20.

A fillet weld on the other side is indicated by which one of the following letters?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

21.

Referring to the symbol below, the circle at the break in the arrow signifies

a)

field weld

b)

weld all around

c)

pipe weld

d)

fillet weld on tubing.

22.

Referring to the symbol below, what is the significance of the 3/16" dimension?

a)

size of legs

b)

length of weld

c)

root opening

d)

extent of weld

23.

Referring to the symbol below, which letter indicates melt-thru of the weld?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

24.

Root openings of single vee-welded joints are commonly shown

a)

inside the single vee-weld symbol

b)

outside the single vee-weld symbol

c)

inside the arrow tail of the weld symbol

d)

over the arrow of the weld symbol.

25.

Welds extending completely around a joint are shown by a/an

a)

circle

b)

flag

c)

inverted triangle

d)

square above the symbol.

26.

The spacing between increments for an intermittent weld is termed the

a)

fillet

b)

pitch (center to center spacing)

c)

jog

d)

lag.

27.

Two plates together with each edge double beveled form a ______ joint.

a)

single vee

b)

double bevel

c)

double vee

d)

single bevel

28.

When a plate with a 90° edge is placed against a plate with a 30° edge, the joint is called a ______ joint.

a)

butt

b)

single bevel

c)

single vee

d)

double vee

29.

Information contained in the tail of a welding symbol might include

a)

specifications

b)

finish

c)

field weld

d)

size of weld.

30.

The major consideration in joint design is the

a)

service for which the product is intended

b)

process being used

c)

position the part will be welded in

d)

all of the above.

31.

A groove melted into the base metal adjacent to the toe or root of a weld and left unfilled by weld metal is:

a)

slag inclusion

b)

undercut

c)

cold lap

d)

stress crack.

32.

During the guided bend test, when the face of the weld bead is on the outside of the "U", it is likely the examiner is looking for

a)

cross-sectional strength

b)

quality of fusion

c)

shearing strength

d)

degree of penetration.

33.

Radiographic tests are used to determine

a)

soundness

b)

strength

c)

elasticity

d)

uniformity.

34.

Dye penetrant testing requires a four-step process. Which answer best describes these steps in order?

a)

cleaning, grinding, developer application, penetrant application

b)

cleaning, penetrant application, visual inspection, developer application

c)

clean thoroughly, penetrant application, cleaning of overspray, application of developer

d)

none of the above

35.

Which of the following weld test methods would be most useful in detecting internal defects?

a)

dye penetrant

b)

visual

c)

ultrasonic

d)

magnetic particle

36.

Which of the following characteristics of a weld could NOT be determined by visual inspection?

a)

cracks

b)

dilution

c)

inclusions

d)

contour

37.

Which of the following weld tests would be classified as a destructive test?

a)

magnetic particle test

b)

microscopic test

c)

liquid penetrant test

d)

ultrasonic test

38.

Which of the following processes does NOT involve a consumable electrode?

a)

electrode slag welding

b)

gas metal arc welding

c)

gas tungsten arc welding

d)

submerged arc welding

39.

Which electrode is considered nonconsumable?

a)

copper

b)

steel

c)

chromium

d)

tungsten

40.

The primary function of shielding gas in GTAW is to

a)

shield the weld

b)

dioxidize the weld

c)

preheat the weld

d)

cool the weld.

41.

The suffix "B2" in E-8018-B2 represents

a)

a major alloying element

b)

multiple-pass brass alloy

c)

operating characteristic

d)

back-stepping.

42.

In GMAW, one of the most widely used deoxidizing elements in the consumable electrode filler wire is

a)

aluminum

b)

silicon

c)

titanium

d)

columbium.

43.

Argon and helium gases are considered to be ________

a)

reactive

b)

inert

c)

reducing

d)

oxidizing.

44.

What is the proper type current to use with a 308-15 stainless steel electrode?

a)

AC

b)

DC

c)

DCEP

d)

DCEN

45.

Which of the following is not a GMAW electrode wire?

a)

ER-4043

b)

E-705-6

c)

E-312-16

d)

ER-5356

46.

Which gas would be used for a spray type transfer?

a)

75% Argon/25% CO₂

b)

60-70% Helium/25-35% Argon/4-5% CO₂

c)

100% CO₂

d)

Argon/1-5% Oxygen

47.

Which classification denotes the rod used for oxyfuel welding?

a)

E-XX18

b)

ER-XX5-1

c)

RG-45

d)

ER-7XT-2

48.

Which stainless suffix indicates the electrode is to be with DC+?

a)

-15

b)

-16

c)

-18

d)

-14

49.

What is the effect of mixing oil and compressed oxygen?

a)

an oxidizing flame

b)

equal oxygen and acetylene pressure

c)

explosion or fire

d)

regulators will not squeak

50.

When arc welding between 100 and 200 amps, which filter lens is generally used?

a)

No. 4

b)

No. 6

c)

No. 10

d)

either dark green or black

51.

When arc welding, protective clothing should be worn by welders to protect them from

a)

heat

b)

rays

c)

spatter

d)

all of the above.

52.

Acetylene becomes dangerous if used beyond

a)

15 PSI

b)

5 PSI

c)

3 PSI

d)

the oxygen working pressure.

53.

Safety glasses should be worn

a)

when grinding

b)

when welding

c)

when chipping slag

d)

at all times.

54.

The proper type of fire extinguisher to use on an electrical fire is

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type C

d)

Type D.

55.

The minimum recommended distance that oxygen cylinders should be stored from flammable materials is ______ feet.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

16

d)

20

56.

Welding machines are rated according to the

a)

voltage output

b)

watts per hour

c)

duty cycle

d)

ampere rating input.

57.

The only lubricant to use on an oxygen or acetylene regulator is

a)

light oil

b)

silicon base lubricant

c)

vacuum grease

d)

none at all.

58.

Which one of the following is not a cause of overheating of an electrode holder?

a)

loose connection

b)

excessive amperage

c)

insufficient current flow

d)

undersized cable

59.

Which of the following represent three arc-welding power supplies?

a)

alternator, generator, tachometer

b)

tachometer, generator, rectifier

c)

transformer, rectifier, generator

d)

none of the above

60.

Arc welding with alternating current will minimize

a)

air pollution

b)

magnetic arc blow

c)

spatter

d)

voltage loss.

61.

The weakest point in an electrical circuit is the

a)

cable

b)

electrode

c)

fuse

d)

polarity switch.

62.

Sixty hertz alternating current changes direction how many times a second?

a)

60

b)

110

c)

120

d)

240

63.

A power source rated at 250 amps, 50 percent duty cycle, could be used at 250 amps for which one of the following?

a)

about 50 hours; then allow cooling

b)

30 percent of the time

c)

five minutes out of every ten minutes

d)

six minutes out of every ten minutes

64.

Which is the most commonly used power source for GMAW welding?

a)

AC transformer

b)

DC constant-current rectifier

c)

an engine-driven generator

d)

DC constant-voltage rectifier

65.

The size of the welding tip selected depends upon the

a)

thickness of the metal to be welded

b)

type of filler to be used

c)

gas pressure being used

d)

travel speed at which to weld.

66.

Acetylene is produced by adding water to calcium

a)

hydroxide

b)

carbide

c)

sulfate

d)

carbonate

67.

Cast iron is cooled slowly after welding or brazing to

a)

make it hard and close grained

b)

minimize contraction stresses

c)

raise the combined carbon content

d)

keep oxidation at its lowest possible level.

68.

In torch brazing, when the brazing temperature is reached, the flux will

a)

turn to a crystal clear solid

b)

have a reddish glow

c)

start to flow and spread evenly

d)

start to bubble slightly and spread evenly at the edges.

69.

Which one of the following welding electrodes has the highest deposition rate?

a)

E-7016

b)

E-7018

c)

E-6013

d)

E-7028

70.

Which is considered a fast freeze electrode?

a)

6010

b)

6012

c)

6027

d)

7020

71.

Which electrode would most likely be used for a weld in test position 5G with mild steel base metal?

a)

6010

b)

6020

c)

6027

d)

6030

72.

Coated electrodes protect the molten metal from oxides and nitrides by

a)

allowing higher current densities to be used

b)

injecting lower thermal input

c)

creating a gas or slag shield

d)

creating an inert gas shield.

73.

The purpose of the low hydrogen electrode is to eliminate

a)

underbead cracking

b)

gas pockets

c)

slag inclusions

d)

undercutting

74.

At which temperature should low hydrogen electrodes be held?

a)

32° to 72° F

b)

200° to 300° F

c)

600° to 800° F

d)

800° to 1000° F

75.

The proper type current to use with a 308 - 15 stainless steel electrode is

a)

AC

b)

DC

c)

DCRP

d)

DCSP.

76.

When using straight polarity, the electrode will be

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

alternating

d)

none of the above.

77.

One of the major problems in welding galvanized steel is

a)

spatter

b)

toxic fumes

c)

slag

d)

cold lap.

78.

The element which has the most important effect on the weldability of ordinary gray cast iron is

a)

copper

b)

carbon

c)

steel

d)

sulphur

79.

The last "0" in E6010 indicates

a)

cellulose sodium coating

b)

DC reverse polarity current

c)

operating characteristic

d)

all of the above.

80.

The suffix "B2" in E-8018-B2 represents

a)

a major alloying element

b)

multiple-pass brass alloy

c)

operating characteristic

d)

back-stepping.

81.

Which bevel angle would be correct for a Vee-groove open butt joint on a 3/8 structured steel plate?

a)

30 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

50 degrees

d)

65 degrees

82.

In selecting a welding electrode, it is important to

a)

be sure it will operate on the welding current you are using

b)

match base metal properties

c)

use the correct size for the job

d)

do all of the above.

83.

Which electrode would produce maximum deposition rates?

a)

E6010

b)

E6013

c)

E7018

d)

E7024

84.

The best choice of electrode for welding medium carbon or high-strength, low-alloy steels is the ________

a)

E6010

b)

E7024

c)

E8010

d)

E9018

85.

When making a heavy fillet production weld on a mild steel plate in the flat position, which electrode should be used?

a)

E6012

b)

E7018

c)

E7024

d)

E6016

86.

A device that holds materials rigidly in position while welding is called a

a)

clamp

b)

fixture

c)

jig

d)

all of the above.

87.

An electrode that has deep penetrating characteristics has a tendency to cause

a)

overlapping

b)

pin holes

c)

sagging

d)

undercutting.

88.

The size of the electrode holder and the welding cable to be used is determined by which one of the following?

a)

current rating of the welding machine

b)

resistance of the part being welded

c)

resistance of the welding rod

d)

voltage rating of the welding machine

89.

Which one of the following electrodes is of the low hydrogen type?

a)

E-6011

b)

E-6012

c)

E-7024

d)

E-9018

90.

Which one of the following is NOT the cause of arc blow?

a)

working in corners

b)

using direct current

c)

unsuitable ground position

d)

using alternating current

91.

Too short an arc in shielded metal arc welding will cause

a)

the base metal to warp excessively

b)

excessive oxidation of the deposited metal

c)

excessive heat input

d)

excessive porosity in deposited metal.

92.

Undercutting is a condition that generally occurs when the

a)

welding current is too high

b)

welding current is too low

c)

welding travel speed is too slow

d)

arc length is too short.

93.

When a transformer type welding machine is in operation, the electrode is supplied with

a)

higher voltages

b)

direct current

c)

alternating current

d)

higher amperages.

94.

The temperature of a shielded metal electric arc is

a)

3,000° F

b)

6,000° F

c)

9,000° F

d)

12,000° F.

95.

An electrode classification commonly employed with the FCAW process is

a)

ER70S-X

b)

E70XX

c)

E7XT-X

d)

F7X-EXXX.

96.

The primary electrical input for welding machines can be either single phase or ___ phase.

a)

half

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

97.

Open circuit voltage, in reference to welding, means that

a)

current is flowing

b)

current is not flowing

c)

voltage of the input current is positive

d)

voltage of the secondary coil is negative.

98.

Positioners are used in production welding to

a)

eliminate handling weldments with a crane

b)

facilitate the use of larger electrodes and higher current settings

c)

reduce the number of handlers in the welding shop

d)

all of the above.

99.

Which one of the following is NOT a consideration when a welding equipment set-up is being made?

a)

the type and size of electrode to be used

b)

the type and amount of welding current to be used

c)

the type and size of ground clamp to be used

d)

the type of parent metal to be welded

100.

A major limitation of flux-cored welding is that it

a)

is a low deposition process

b)

produces low quality welds

c)

is limited to thin gauge materials

d)

produces slag covering which must be removed.