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Cryptography Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An organization uses self-signed certificates for internal services. What is the most critical limitation of this approach?

a)

Certificates are costly

b)

They are not trusted by browsers without manual configuration

c)

They cannot encrypt data

d)

They require symmetric encryption

2.

During an SSL handshake, asymmetric encryption is used to:

a)

Encrypt all user data permanently

b)

Securely exchange the session key used for symmetric encryption

c)

Verify the CA's public key

d)

Compress the data stream

3.

Which best explains why HTTPS still relies on both asymmetric and symmetric encryption?

a)

Asymmetric encryption alone is too slow for data transmission

b)

Symmetric encryption is weaker than asymmetric

c)

Both are used only for compatibility

d)

Symmetric encryption cannot be automated

4.

To enhance SSL/TLS security in a banking application, which combination of actions is most effective?

a)

Disable encryption to reduce latency

b)

Enforce TLS 1.3, enable HSTS, and use certificate pinning

c)

Use SSL 2.0 for backward compatibility

d)

Allow self-signed certificates for speed

5.

What is the main reason organizations prefer TLS 1.3 over earlier SSL versions?

a)

It supports more cipher suites

b)

It removes handshake latency and insecure algorithms

c)

It only works with RSA encryption

d)

It disables encryption by default

6.

A financial firm upgrades all servers to TLS 1.3 to improve web security. During testing, they notice connections establish faster with fewer round trips. What technical change in TLS 1.3 enables this improvement?

a)

More encryption types

b)

Fewer handshake steps

c)

Dual authentication

d)

Cipher rotation

7.

While accessing a banking website, the browser warns “certificate not trusted.” The certificate appears valid but signed by an unknown issuer. What is the most probable cause?

a)

Expired key

b)

Untrusted CA

c)

Weak cipher

d)

Server overload

8.

A company evaluates SSL 3.0 versus TLS 1.2 for secure communications. After analysis, they decide TLS 1.2 is more secure. Which main factor supports this decision?

a)

Easier installation

b)

Stronger encryption

c)

Faster file transfer

9.

In the Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) protocol, which parties must exchange digital certificates to ensure authentication and secure payment flow?

a)

Bank and Issuer

b)

Cardholder, Merchant, Gateway

c)

Issuer and Network

d)

Merchant and Customer

10.

An e-commerce site tested both TLS and SET for online payments. SET ensured layered verification but added delay and complexity. Why would the company choose TLS instead?

a)

More expensive

b)

Easier to implement

c)

Less secure

d)

Needs extra software

11.

A system admin enables SSH key-based login, but users can still access servers using passwords. Which configuration option must be modified to enforce key-only access?

a)

PermitRootLogin

b)

PasswordAuthentication

c)

AuthorizedKeysFile

d)

ClientAliveInterval

12.

A web developer is unsure whether to use TLS or SSH. TLS protects the website's customer transactions, while SSH secures remote administration. Which mapping of purpose is correct?

a)

TLS → Remote login; SSH → Web encryption

b)

TLS → Web traffic; SSH → Remote login

c)

TLS → File sharing; SSH → Databases

d)

TLS → Email; SSH → Browsing

13.

Security logs reveal repeated brute-force login attempts on an SSH server from foreign IPs. Which preventive step best strengthens protection?

a)

Reset all passwords

b)

Use key authentication and restrict IPs

c)

Disable SSH service

d)

Change port every day

14.

You are designing an e-commerce security model that requires safe online payments and protected administrative access. Which combination provides end-to-end security?

a)

SET + FTP

b)

TLS + SSH

c)

SSL 2.0 + HTTP

d)

VPN + SMTP

15.

A site enforces both TLS and HSTS policies. Even when users manually type “http://”, the browser automatically redirects to “https://”. What added protection does HSTS provide?

a)

Blocks TLS entirely

b)

Forces HTTPS usage

16.

An organization’s cloud VMs experience repeated infections even after antivirus cleanup. Logs show malware spreading automatically across networked machines. Which strategy best prevents further spread?

a)

Disable logging

b)

Network isolation of infected nodes

c)

Restart servers

d)

Delete user profiles

17.

A user downloads what seems to be a PDF reader update, but it installs backdoor access to the attacker. Which malware type fits this scenario?

a)

Trojan

b)

Worm

c)

Virus

d)

Adware

18.

A malicious code attaches itself to legitimate files and activates when users open them, causing slowdowns in a shared cloud workspace. Identify the malware type.

a)

Trojan

b)

Virus

c)

Botnet

d)

Worm

19.

In a cloud environment, which configuration most effectively limits the damage from self-replicating worms?

a)

Shared credentials

b)

Flat network design

c)

Segmentation and least privilege

d)

File encryption only

20.

You are designing a multi-tenant cloud system. How can you prevent a Trojan from compromising multiple tenants if one VM is infected?

a)

Single firewall for all

b)

Virtual isolation per tenant

c)

Disable SSL

d)

Use shared admin keys

21.

An admin finds a process sending sensitive data to an unknown IP from a trusted application binary. What does this imply?

a)

Application trojanized

b)

Misconfigured DNS

c)

Unused port open

d)

Power fluctuation

22.

A company uses cloud antivirus that failed to detect a new worm variant. What next step shows higher security maturity?

a)

Disable the AV

b)

Deploy behavior-based intrusion detection

c)

Reinstall OS

23.

You are tasked to strengthen malware defenses in a SaaS platform. Which combined approach provides layered protection?

a)

Firewalls only

b)

Sandboxing + Endpoint monitoring

c)

Open network ports

d)

Shared admin access

24.

A Trojan hides as a cloud management plugin and steals API tokens. Which preventive control would best detect such behavior early?

a)

Continuous monitoring of API activity logs

b)

Password complexity

c)

SSL certificate renewal

d)

Database backup

25.

A company notices that some unauthorized inbound connections are blocked, but some malicious traffic still passes through. Which firewall type is most likely in use?

a)

Packet-filtering firewall

b)

Application-layer firewall

c)

Stateful inspection firewall

d)

Proxy firewall

26.

A network admin must choose a firewall type to monitor traffic for specific applications like HTTP and SMTP. Which firewall is most effective for this requirement?

a)

Packet-filtering

b)

Application-layer firewall

c)

Stateless firewall

d)

Circuit-level firewall

27.

An organization implements an IDS that alerts on abnormal login attempts but does not block them. Which IDS type is this?

a)

Passive IDS

b)

Active IDS

c)

IPS

d)

Honeypot

28.

A bank wants to automatically block traffic that shows known attack signatures in real time. Which system should they implement?

a)

IDS only

b)

IPS

c)

Packet-filtering firewall

d)

Stateful firewall

29.

During a network audit, the admin finds high CPU usage on the firewall. It performs both stateful packet inspection and deep application inspection. What is a probable cause?

a)

Low bandwidth

b)

Resource-intensive inspection

30.

You are designing a hybrid security system for a corporate network. Which combination provides both prevention and monitoring?

a)

Firewall only

b)

IDS only

c)

Firewall + IPS

d)

Proxy only

31.

Alerts show multiple failed SSH login attempts on the network. The system blocks IPs automatically after 5 attempts. Which system feature is being demonstrated?

a)

Passive monitoring

b)

Intrusion prevention

c)

Packet filtering

d)

Circuit-level inspection

32.

A company is considering a next-generation firewall that can detect and block malware in HTTPS traffic. Why is this firewall better than a traditional packet-filtering firewall?

a)

Slower traffic

b)

Application-layer inspection

c)

Only monitors ports

d)

Ignores payload

33.

Design a secure network segment for a DMZ with web servers. Which approach ensures attackers cannot access internal servers directly?

a)

Open firewall rules

b)

Stateful firewall + IPS

c)

IDS only

d)

Switch segmentation only

34.

An IPS generates frequent false positives, blocking legitimate traffic. What is the best corrective action?

a)

Disable IPS

b)

Tune detection signatures

c)

Block all traffic

d)

Replace firewall

35.

A cloud-hosted server starts generating excessive outbound traffic to random IPs without user activity. What type of malware behavior does this indicate?

a)

Trojan

b)

Worm

c)

Spyware

d)

Rootkit

36.

SSL/TLS protocols are commonly used in websites that handle sensitive data such as banking or e-commerce. What does this protocol primarily ensure during data transmission?

a)

Data compression and faster page loading

b)

Data confidentiality and integrity through encryption

37.

During an SSL handshake, which component is mainly responsible for verifying the identity of a website?

a)

Firewall

b)

Digital certificate issued by a trusted CA

c)

Web browser settings

d)

HTTP header information

38.

The TLS protocol improved upon SSL by adding stronger encryption algorithms and better handshake mechanisms. What version of TLS is currently considered secure for use?

a)

TLS 1.0

b)

TLS 1.2 or higher

c)

SSL 2.0

d)

TLS 0.9

39.

In the Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) protocol, which cryptographic method is mainly used to secure credit card details?

a)

Steganography

b)

Symmetric and asymmetric encryption combination

c)

Hashing only

d)

Plain text communication

40.

SSH is often used by system administrators to access servers remotely. Which feature makes SSH secure compared to Telnet?

a)

It uses data compression to hide information

b)

It encrypts the communication channel

c)

It uses multiple IP addresses for protection

d)

It runs only on private networks

41.

A virus needs user intervention to spread, while a worm spreads automatically. Which of the following best describes a Trojan horse?

a)

A program that self-replicates like a worm

b)

A software that looks harmless but executes malicious code

c)

A code embedded in network routers

d)

A file that can delete system updates

42.

Which of the following best describes a stateful inspection firewall?

a)

It filters traffic only based on static rules

b)

It tracks the state of network connections to make filtering decisions

c)

It hides the user's IP address from websites

d)

It only scans outgoing packets

43.

In cloud computing, multi-tenancy introduces a major security risk. What does multi-tenancy mean in this context?

a)

Multiple servers in a single building

b)

Multiple users sharing the same physical or virtual resources

c)

One user having multiple cloud accounts

d)

Cloud providers storing data in many locations

44.

What is the main advantage of using an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) over an IDS?

a)

IPS only records events for later analysis

b)

IPS can actively block or prevent detected threats in real time

c)

IPS requires no configuration or monitoring

d)

IPS works only on encrypted traffic

45.

Which statement correctly differentiates a Trojan horse from a virus?

a)

Trojans replicate automatically, while viruses do not

b)

Viruses disguise themselves as legitimate software, while Trojans attach to documents

c)

Trojans appear as useful software but secretly perform malicious actions

d)

Viruses never require user execution, but Trojans do

46.

What is the main function of a firewall in network security?

a)

To physically block unauthorized users

b)

To encrypt emails sent across the network

c)

To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic

d)

To scan storage drives for malware

47.

Which type of firewall filters traffic based on source and destination IP address, port, and protocol?

a)

Application-level gateway

b)

Packet-filtering firewall

c)

Proxy firewall

d)

Stateful inspection firewall

48.

What distinguishes an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) from an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?

a)

IDS can block attacks, while IPS can only monitor

b)

IDS monitors and alerts administrators, while IPS can actively block threats

c)

Both perform the same functions with different names

d)

IDS is used for encryption, while IPS is for authentication

49.

Which of the following is a key security concern in cloud services and applications?

a)

Excessive local hardware usage

b)

Difficulty in updating antivirus software

c)

Data privacy and unauthorized access to cloud data

d)

High cost of hardware maintenance

50.

A company suffered a DDoS attack, what is the first line of defense?

a)

a) IDS

b)

b) Firewall

c)

b) Firewall

d)

d) Backup