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GENERAL ANESTHETICS

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 45-year-old man undergoing abdominal surgery develops malignant hyperthermia after anesthesia. Which agent most likely triggered this reaction?

a)

Nitrous oxide

b)

Halothane

c)

Midazolam

d)

Propofol

e)

Ketamine

2.

A 6-year-old child requires induction of anesthesia for tonsillectomy. The anesthetist prefers a non-irritant, rapid-acting inhalational agent. Which is most suitable?

a)

Isoflurane

b)

Sevoflurane

c)

Desflurane

d)

Halothane

e)

Nitrous oxide

3.

A 60-year-old man develops hepatitis a few days after surgery. He was anesthetized with an inhalational agent known for hepatotoxicity. Which drug is responsible?

a)

Enflurane

b)

Isoflurane

c)

Halothane

d)

Desflurane

e)

Nitrous oxide

4.

A 35-year-old woman undergoing cesarean section is given an IV anesthetic that allows rapid recovery and minimal neonatal depression. Which is preferred?

a)

Propofol

b)

Thiopental

c)

Ketamine

d)

Etomidate

e)

Midazolam

5.

A 50-year-old man with coronary artery disease is undergoing surgery. Which IV anesthetic should be avoided due to increased myocardial depression?

a)

Propofol

b)

Thiopental

c)

Ketamine

d)

Etomidate

e)

Midazolam

6.

A 25-year-old trauma patient with hypovolemic shock needs anesthesia for emergency surgery. Which IV agent maintains cardiovascular stability?

a)

Propofol

b)

Thiopental

c)

Etomidate

d)

Ketamine

e)

Midazolam

7.

A 30-year-old woman receives an IV anesthetic that produces dissociative anesthesia, analgesia, and hallucinations. Which drug was used?

a)

Propofol

b)

Etomidate

c)

Ketamine

d)

Thiopental

e)

Midazolam

8.

A 70-year-old patient develops postoperative nausea after use of an inhalational anesthetic. Which drug is least likely to cause this?

a)

Isoflurane

b)

Halothane

c)

Sevoflurane

d)

Desflurane

e)

Nitrous oxide

9.

During anesthesia, a patient shows rapid induction and emergence due to low blood:gas partition coefficient. Which agent likely used?

a)

Halothane

b)

Isoflurane

c)

Sevoflurane

d)

Desflurane

e)

Enflurane

10.

A 40-year-old woman with porphyria is planned for anesthesia. Which agent is contraindicated?

a)

Propofol

b)

Ketamine

11.

A 58-year-old man develops arrhythmias and hepatic dysfunction after exposure to an anesthetic gas. Identify the agent.

a)

Halothane

b)

Isoflurane

c)

Sevoflurane

d)

Desflurane

e)

Nitrous oxide

12.

A 10-year-old child requires dental extraction under sedation. Which benzodiazepine is most suitable for short procedures?

a)

Diazepam

b)

Lorazepam

c)

Midazolam

d)

Flurazepam

e)

Alprazolam

13.

A 40-year-old man on chronic corticosteroid therapy undergoes surgery. Which anesthetic should be avoided due to adrenal suppression?

a)

Propofol

b)

Etomidate

c)

Thiopental

d)

Midazolam

e)

Ketamine

14.

A patient undergoing anesthesia is found to have diffusely increased muscle rigidity and hyperthermia. What is the best treatment?

a)

Cooling blanket

b)

Dantrolene

c)

Diazepam

d)

Succinylcholine

e)

Naloxone

15.

A 50-year-old woman undergoing laparoscopic surgery requires an agent that provides analgesia as well as anesthesia. Which drug fulfills both?

a)

Propofol

b)

Ketamine

c)

Thiopental

16.

A 45-year-old man develops megaloblastic anemia after prolonged anesthesia exposure. Which gas may cause this?

a)

Nitrous oxide

b)

Halothane

c)

Isoflurane

d)

Sevoflurane

e)

Desflurane

17.

A patient receives thiopental for induction. Which pharmacokinetic property explains its brief duration of action?

a)

Rapid metabolism

b)

Redistribution

c)

Renal excretion

d)

Enzyme inhibition

e)

Plasma hydrolysis

18.

A 28-year-old woman under general anesthesia suddenly develops muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and acidosis. Which combination likely caused it?

a)

Propofol + Ketamine

b)

Halothane + Succinylcholine

c)

Isoflurane + Midazolam

d)

Nitrous oxide + Thiopental

e)

Sevoflurane + Etomidate

19.

A 45-year-old patient requires an anesthetic with rapid onset and recovery for ambulatory surgery. Which pair of properties is ideal?

a)

Low blood solubility, high MAC

b)

High blood solubility, low MAC

c)

High lipid solubility, high MAC

d)

High potency, high blood solubility

e)

Low lipid solubility, low potency

20.

A patient is maintained on nitrous oxide anesthesia. Despite high concentration, surgical anesthesia is not achieved. Why?

a)

High potency

b)

Low potency (high MAC)

c)

High solubility

21.

A 45-year-old man undergoing surgery with halothane shows delayed emergence. Which pharmacokinetic property explains this?

a)

High MAC

b)

Low lipid solubility

c)

High blood solubility

d)

Rapid elimination

e)

Low potency

22.

A 50-year-old man is given an inhalational anesthetic that antagonizes NMDA receptors rather than acting on GABA-A. Identify it.

a)

Sevoflurane

b)

Halothane

c)

Desflurane

d)

Nitrous oxide

e)

Enflurane

23.

A 25-year-old man with schizophrenia is treated with haloperidol but develops severe rigidity and tremor. Which alternative drug would be least likely to cause these symptoms?

a)

Fluphenazine

b)

Haloperidol

c)

Clozapine

d)

Trifluoperazine

e)

Chlorpromazine

24.

A patient on long-term fluphenazine develops involuntary lip-smacking and tongue protrusion. What is the most appropriate step?

a)

Increase dose

b)

Add anticholinergic

c)

switch to clozapine

d)

Add benzodiazepine

e)

Continue same dose

25.

A 40-year-old male on haloperidol presents with hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and autonomic instability. Which drug is most appropriate for treatment?

a)

Dantrolene

b)

Diazepam

26.

A 28-year-old woman on clozapine therapy develops sore throat and fever. What is the next step?

a)

Continue drug

b)

Add antibiotic

c)

Stop clozapine and check CBC

d)

Reduce dose

e)

Add G-CSF prophylactically

27.

A 30-year-old woman on olanzapine gains 12 kg over 8 months. Which receptor blockade explains this?

a)

A. 5-HT2C and H1 blockade

b)

B. D2 blockade

c)

C. α1 blockade

d)

D. β2 blockade

e)

E. M1 blockade

28.

A patient on risperidone develops galactorrhea and menstrual irregularities. Which mechanism is responsible?

a)

5-HT2A blockade

b)

D2 blockade

c)

α2 blockade

d)

D1 blockade

e)

H1 blockade

29.

A 50-year-old patient on thioridazine reports dry mouth and constipation. Which receptor is responsible?

a)

H1

b)

M1

c)

D2

d)

α1

e)

5-HT2C

30.

A 60-year-old man develops dizziness and postural hypotension after starting chlorpromazine. Mechanism?

a)

α1 blockade

b)

D2 blockade

c)

H1 blockade

d)

5-HT2C blockade

e)

M1 blockade

31.

A patient on risperidone shows improvement with fewer extrapyramidal effects compared to haloperidol. What receptor action explains this?

a)

A. Stronger D₂ blockade

b)

B. Additional 5-HT₂A antagonism

c)

C. Dopamine agonism

d)

D. GABA-A stimulation

e)

E. NMDA antagonism

32.

Which antipsychotic is most effective for treating negative symptoms of schizophrenia (social withdrawal, blunted affect)?

a)

Haloperidol

b)

Fluphenazine

c)

Clozapine

d)

Trifluoperazine

e)

Thioridazine

33.

A 26-year-old woman treated with risperidone complains of breast tenderness and galactorrhea. This effect is due to blockade of D₂ receptors in which pathway?

a)

A. Mesolimbic

b)

B. Mesocortical

c)

C. Nigrostriatal

d)

D. Tuberoinfundibular

e)

E. Mesohippocampal

34.

A 30-year-old woman with bipolar disorder is started on lithium carbonate. Which of the following best describes its mechanism?

a)

Dopamine receptor blockade

b)

Inhibition of inositol monophosphatase

c)

Activation of GABA-A receptors

d)

Inhibition of COMT enzyme

e)

NMDA blockade

35.

A pregnant woman on lithium gives birth. Which statement is correct?

a)

Lithium is safe in all trimesters

b)

Causes neural tube defects

c)

Causes Ebstein’s anomaly

d)

Increases fetal growth

e)

Has no teratogenicity

36.

A bipolar patient on lithium complains of polyuria and thirst. Which condition best explains this?

a)

Central DI

b)

Nephrogenic DI

37.

A 29-year-old woman on lithium throughout the first trimester delivers a baby with tricuspid valve displacement. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Tetralogy of Fallot

b)

Ebstein’s anomaly

c)

Transposition of great arteries

d)

PDA

e)

Coarctation of aorta

38.

Chlorpromazine and haloperidol can be considered prototypes of two relatively old but still used antipsychotic drugs—the phenothiazines and the butyrophenones—respectively. While many of the actions and side effects of these drugs are qualitatively similar, they are different quantitatively: that is, in terms of incidence and severity. Which of the following effects or side effects typically occur more frequently, and could be said to be more severe, with haloperidol?

a)

Extrapyramidal reactions

b)

Intense atropine-like side effects

c)

Lethal blood dyscrasias

d)

Orthostatic hypotension

e)

Urinary retention necessitating bladder catheterization

39.

After a few weeks on a drug, a patient reports profound thirst and the production of copious volumes of clear (dilute) urine each day. Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for the signs and symptoms?

a)

Diazepam

b)

Fluoxetine

c)

Haloperidol

d)

Lithium

e)

Phenytoin

40.

Within days of starting haloperidol treatment for a psychiatric disorder, a young male patient developed severe generalized muscle rigidity and a high fever. In the emergency room he was incoherent, with increased heart rate, hypotension, and diaphoresis, Laboratory studies indicated acidosis, leukocytosis, and increased creatine kinase. The most likely reason for these symptoms is that the patient was suffering from

a)

Agranulocytosis

b)

A severe bacterial infection

c)

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

d)

Spastic retrocollis