Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Skeletal Diseases

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

age where we reached maximum bone density

a)

30

b)

40

c)

25

d)

50

2.

metabolic bone disease

reduced bone density & structural integrity

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Paget's Disease

d)

Osteomyelitis

3.

there are more bone resorption than synthesis

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Paget's Disease

d)

Osteomyelitis

4.

"silent disease"

only observed late in course of disease

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Paget's Disease

d)

Osteomyelitis

5.

known as "rickets" in children

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Paget's Disease

d)

Osteomyelitis

6.

inadequate & delayed mineralization of osteoid

due to deficiency in Calcium and Vitamin D

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Paget's Disease

d)

Osteomyelitis

7.

In Paget's disease, intense osteoclast activity is followed by

a)

chaotic bone formation

b)

chaotic bone synthesis

c)

mosaic bone pattern

8.

increased bone remodeling: resorption & formation

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Paget's Disease

d)

Osteomyelitis

9.

result in poor bone quality and disorganization

easily bowed & fractured

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Paget's Disease

d)

Osteomyelitis

10.

bacterial infection of bone

could be infected through endogenous or exogenous pathway

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Paget's Disease

d)

Osteomyelitis

11.

what bacteria causes osteomyelitis?

a)
Clostridium difficile
b)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c)
Escherichia coli
d)
Staphylococcus aureus
12.

in osteomyelitis, what do you call the THICK BONE being formed around an area of necrotic bone

a)

sequestrum

b)

involucrum

c)

septicemia

13.

in osteomyelitis, infection occurs or blood poisoning also known as _____

a)

sequestrum

b)

involucrum

c)

septicemia

14.

in osteomyelitis, what do you call the necrotic bone or dead bone

a)

sequestrum

b)

involucrum

c)

septicemia

15.

osteomyelitis provokes inflammatory response

a)

True

b)

False

16.

because of the very rigid bone situation in osteomyelitis, what are the factors influencing unsuccessful healing

a)

WBCs cannot enter small canaliculi

b)
Excessive physical activity during recovery
c)
Presence of foreign objects in the wound
d)

lack of space for swelling and exudation

e)

Blood vessels blocked

17.

symptoms of osteomyelitis

a)

malaise

b)

fever

c)

chills

d)

anorexia

e)

fatigue

18.

example of endogenous

a)

through blood infection

b)

open wound

c)

bite

d)

surgery

19.

what are the bones typically affected by Paget's Disease?

a)
humerus, radius, ulna, clavicle, scapula
b)

skull, spine, sternum

femur, vertebrae, pelvis,

c)
sternum, ribs, mandible, maxilla, zygomatic
d)
carpals, tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges, vertebrae
20.

what are the clinical manifestation of Paget's disease?

a)
Joint swelling, muscle cramps, weight loss, fever, and chills.
b)
Vision problems, hearing loss, respiratory issues, skin lesions, and infections.
c)
Skin rashes, headaches, nausea, dizziness, and fatigue.
d)

mosaic lamellar bone pattern, arthritis, kyphosis, bone bowing

e)

neurological symptoms such as: headache, vertigo, dementia

21.

osteomalacia result to renal disease due to:

a)

low dietary intake

b)

low renal tubules formation

c)

low intestinal uptake

d)

low phosphate retention in the kidneys

e)

low sunlight exposure

22.

clinical manifestations of osteomalacia

a)

hip & back tenderness

b)

waddling gait or muscle weakness

c)

femur & radius facture

d)

lost balance

e)

hunchback

23.

osteomalacia can be treated with increase diet in:

a)
Magnesium
b)
Vitamin D
c)
Iron
d)
Calcium
24.

amongst the cases, who are mostly likely to develop osteoporosis

a)

A 50-year-old Asian female, 4'11", works a corporate job, and has a hormonal disorder

b)

A 25-year-old male construction worker who lifts heavy materials daily

c)

A 45-year-old woman who jogs regularly and takes calcium supplements

d)

A 35-year-old male athlete with a high-protein diet

25.

osteoporosis statistics in women who are 50+

a)

1 in 3

b)

1 in 5

c)

1 in 4

26.

osteoporosis statistics in men who are 50+

a)

1 in 3

b)

1 in 5

c)

1 in 4

27.

mild form of osteoporosis

meaning bones are becoming less dense

(a)  

28.

what are some clinical manifestations of osteoporosis?

a)

wight & height loss

b)

thinning of cortex

c)

pulmonary fat embolism

d)

trabeculae formation

e)

swelling

29.

what are some clinical manifestations of osteoporosis?

a)

deformity

b)

kyphosis

c)

pain

d)

vertebrae weakening

e)

hips replacement

30.

what kind of supplements are helpful in preventing osteoporosis

a)
Iron, zinc, vitamin C, and folic acid supplements.
b)

Calcium, vitamin D, calcitonin

c)
Sodium, potassium, vitamin B12, and coenzyme Q10 supplements.
d)
Omega-3 fatty acids, protein powder, and fiber supplements.
31.

one of the treatment options for osteoporosis is bone cement or what is known as

(a)  

32.

inflammation of the joint

damage of destruction in the synovial membrane or articular cartilage

a)

arthritis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

gout

33.

can be cause by infectious or noninfectious

a)

arthritis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

gout

34.

this event causes bone to grind in osteoarthritis

a)

joint mice

b)

cartiliage eroding

c)

osteophytes

d)

synovitis

e)

sclerosis/eburnation

35.

joint space narrowing

subchondral bone thickens & hardens

in osteoarthritis

a)

joint mice

b)

cartiliage eroding

c)

osteophytes

d)

synovitis

e)

sclerosis/eburnation

36.

fragments of cartilage and bone become dislodged and float

in osteoarthritis

a)

joint mice

b)

cartiliage eroding

c)

osteophytes

d)

synovitis

e)

sclerosis/eburnation

37.

knowns as spurs

form that alter contours and enlarge joint

in osteoarthritis

a)

joint mice

b)

cartiliage eroding

c)

osteophytes

d)

synovitis

e)

sclerosis/eburnation

38.

nonspecific inflammation of synovial membrane

in osteoarthritis

a)

joint mice

b)

cartiliage eroding

c)

osteophytes

d)

synovitis

e)

sclerosis/eburnation

39.

most common form of arthritis

loss of articular cartilage in synovial joints

a)

arthritis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

gout

40.

systemic autoimmune disease

cause chronic inflammation of connective tissue

a)

arthritis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

gout

41.

targets synovial membrane first

a)

arthritis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

gout

42.

targets cartilage first

a)

arthritis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

gout

43.

disorder of purine metabolism or excretion of hyperuricemia

a)

arthritis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

gout

44.

in Rheumatoid Arthritis, (a)   is formed within the joint which immobilizes it

45.

which is not a cause of gout

a)

increased dietary purine

b)

increased purine synthesis

c)

increased breakdown of purine

d)

increased renal excretion of uric acid

46.

a soft tissue injury

where skin is intact

hemorrhaging occurs below

a)

contusion / bruise

b)

hematoma

c)

laceration

47.

a soft tissue injury

collection of blood at a site

larger than local hemorrhage

a)

contusion / bruise

b)

hematoma

c)

laceration

48.

a soft tissue injury

skin is torn

a)

contusion / bruise

b)

hematoma

c)

laceration

49.

two bones articulate

a)

joints

b)

ligaments

c)

tendons

50.

connect bone to bone

a)

joints

b)

ligaments

c)

tendons

51.

connect bone to muscle

a)

joints

b)

ligaments

c)

tendons

52.

unusual contraction

excessive forcible stretch

a)

strain

b)

sprain

c)

dislocation

53.

stretch or tear of ligament

a)

strain

b)

sprain

c)

dislocation

54.

result of substantial trauma

recurrent in shoulder or knee

associated with fractures

a)

strain

b)

sprain

c)

dislocation

55.

mild dislocation

bone surface partially lose contract

(a)  

56.

any discontinuity or break of bone exceeding strength of bone

(a)  

57.

in clarifying fractures using incompleteness

Avulsion is described as

a)

ligament/ tendon torn away

b)

splintering of inner bone

c)

bending of bone

d)

minor tear/ doesn't break completely

58.

in clarifying fractures using incompleteness

Torus is described as

a)

ligament/ tendon torn away

b)

splintering of inner bone

c)

bending of bone

d)

minor tear/ doesn't break completely

59.

occurs as a reflex

distal radius & ulna facture

common in kids

a)

Colle's Fracture

b)

Pott's Fracture

60.

common in athletes

distal fibula & tibia

a)

Colle's Fracture

b)

Pott's Fracture

61.

mins to days

clot formation

a)

Hematoma Formation

b)

Fibro-cartilaginous Callous Formation

c)

Bony Callous Formation

d)

Remodeling

62.

days to weeks

angiogenesis

production of fibrocartilaginous soft callus

bridges broken bones

a)

Hematoma Formation

b)

Fibro-cartilaginous Callous Formation

c)

Bony Callous Formation

d)

Remodeling

63.

months or so

ossification by osteoblasts

spongy bone formation

a)

Hematoma Formation

b)

Fibro-cartilaginous Callous Formation

c)

Bony Callous Formation

d)

Remodeling

64.

3-6 months

compact bone replaces spongy bone

a)

Hematoma Formation

b)

Fibro-cartilaginous Callous Formation

c)

Bony Callous Formation

d)

Remodeling

65.

impaired healing where the bone is in incorrect anatomical position

a)

malunion

b)

nonunion

c)

delayed union

66.

failure of bone ends to grow together

gap fills with dense fibrous or cartilaginous fiber

a)

malunion

b)

nonunion

c)

delayed union

67.

fracture treatment involving realigning and immobilization

a)

reduction

b)

traction

c)

internal fixation

d)

external fixation