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Study Smarts Questions - Maycee

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does DRIP stand for?

a)

Dividend reinvestment plan

b)

Direct retirement investment program

c)

Deferred revenue insurance policy

d)

Dynamic rate interest plan

2.

What does ETF stand for?

a)

Exchange Traded Fund

b)

Electronic Transfer Facility

c)

Equity Trading Forum

d)

Economic Trust Fund

3.

What does FDIC stand for?

a)

Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation

b)

Federal Department of Investment Control

c)

Financial Development and Insurance Council

d)

Federal Division of International Commerce

4.

What's an IRA?

a)

Individual retirement account

b)

International Revenue Agency

c)

Investment Risk Assessment

d)

Internal Resource Allocation

5.

What does SEC stand for?

a)

Security and Exchange Commission

b)

Society of Economic Consultants

c)

State Education Council

d)

Scientific Engineering Committee

6.

How you divide your money among different types of investments (like stocks, bonds, and cash) to manage risk and meet your goal.

a)

Asset allocation

b)

Market timing

c)

Tax evasion

d)

Credit scoring

7.

Profit you make when you sell something for more than you paid for it.

a)

Capital Gain

b)

Depreciation

c)

Dividend

d)

Liability

8.

Earning on both the money you save and the interest that the money earns over time.

a)

Compound interest

b)

Simple interest

c)

Gross income

d)

Net worth

9.

A fund that holds a mix of traded investment like a mutual fund but trades on the stock market like a stock.

a)

Exchange-traded fund

b)

Index fund

c)

Bond fund

d)

Money market fund

10.

A type of fund designed to follow the performance of a specific group of investments like the S&P 500.

a)

Index fund

b)

Mutual fund

c)

Hedge fund

d)

Money market fund

11.

How quickly and easily you can turn something into cash without losing value.

a)

liquidity

b)

profitability

c)

solvency

d)

depreciation

12.

A pool of money from many people that's used to buy a variety of investments, managed by professionals.

a)

Mutual fund

b)

Savings account

c)

Certificate of deposit

d)

Credit card

13.

How much your money can buy often reduced over time by inflation.

a)

Purchasing power

b)

Interest rate

c)

Gross income

d)

Net worth

14.

The actual profit on an investment from an investment after subtracting taxes and inflation.

a)

Real return

b)

Gross return

c)

Nominal return

d)

Capital gain

15.

How much risk or potential loss you're comfortable with when investing.

a)

Risk tolerance

b)

Asset allocation

c)

Liquidity

d)

Diversification

16.

How often investments in a fund are bought and sold; can affect taxes and costs.

a)

Turnover

b)

Dividend Yield

c)

Expense Ratio

d)

Net Asset Value

17.

What does ACH stand for?

a)

Automated clearing house

b)

Advanced Credit Handling

c)

Accountable Cash Holdings

d)

American Currency Hub

18.

What does API stand for?

a)

Application Programming Interface

b)

Advanced Programming Instruction

c)

Automated Process Integration

d)

Applied Protocol Interface

19.

What does KYC stand for?

a)

Know Your Customer

b)

Keep Your Cash

c)

Key Yearly Calculation

d)

Knowledge Yielding Course

20.

What is UI?

a)

User interface

b)

Universal Input

c)

Ultimate Interface

d)

User Integration

21.

Banking Without a Branch: 5. UX

a)

User Experience

b)

Universal Exchange

c)

Unique X-factor

d)

Urban Expansion

22.

A bank to bank transfer used for things like direct deposit or bill pay.

a)

ACH transfer

b)

Wire transfer

c)

Cashier's check

d)

Money order

23.

A smaller, newer bank- usually app based- that competes with traditional banks.

a)

Challenger bank

b)

Central bank

c)

Investment bank

d)

Credit union

24.

An app or service that stores your payment information so you can pay with your phone and computer.

a)

Digital wallet

b)

Photo editor

c)

Weather app

d)

Music player

25.

A bank that operates entirely online with no physical branches is called a _________

a)

Digital-only bank

b)

Retail bank

c)

Investment bank

d)

Community bank

26.

A unique number showing that a bank is FDIC certified is called a _________.

a)

FDIC certificate number

b)

Bank routing number

c)

Account number

d)

SWIFT code

27.

A legal process that requires banks to verify your identity before opening an account is called _________

a)

Know your customer

b)

Credit scoring

c)

Loan underwriting

d)

Account reconciliation

28.

A newer type of bank that operates entirely online, often with lower fees and modern features account is called a _________?

a)

Neobank

b)

Credit Union

c)

Traditional Bank

d)

Savings and Loan

29.

A service that connects your financial apps like Venmo to your bank account is called _________.

a)

Plaid

b)

Stripe

c)

PayPal

d)

Square

30.

A security step requiring two forms of ID to access your account is called _________.

a)

2FA, two factor authentication

b)

Single sign-on

c)

Password reset

d)

Biometric login

31.

A temporary or masked card number used to protect your real debit or credit card online is called a _________.

a)

Virtual Card Number

b)

Physical Card Number

c)

PIN Code

d)

Account Number

32.

What does DNC stand for?

a)

Democratic National Committee

b)

Department of National Commerce

c)

Digital Network Corporation

d)

Direct News Channel

33.

What does FEC stand for?

a)

Federal election commission

b)

Foreign Exchange Council

c)

Financial Education Center

d)

Food and Environment Committee

34.

What does GOTV stand for?

a)

Get out the vote

b)

Go on to victory

c)

Government of the voters

d)

General office to vote

35.

What does RNC stand for?

a)

Republican national committee

b)

Royal National College

c)

Regional Network Council

d)

Radio Network Corporation

36.

What does PAC stand for?

a)

Political Action Committee

b)

Public Affairs Council

c)

Professional Advisory Council

d)

Private Account Corporation

37.

A ballot issued at home and returned by mail or drop box before election day, used when not voting in person is called a _________?

a)

Absentee ballot

b)

Provisional ballot

c)

Sample ballot

d)

Secret ballot

38.

A question or proposal on the ballot that voters approve or reject is called a _________.

a)

Ballot measure

b)

Referendum

c)

Amendment

d)

Petition

39.

Supported by members of both major political parties is called _________.

a)

Bipartisan

b)

Unilateral

c)

Partisan

d)

Nonpartisan

40.

A person who lives in a district and is represented by an elected official is called a _________

a)

Constituent

b)

Resident

c)

Voter

d)

Citizen

41.

The part of the government that enforces laws (includes the president, governors, etc.) is called the _________

a)

Executive branch

b)

Legislative branch

c)

Judicial branch

d)

Federal Reserve

42.

The branch that interprets the laws (includes courts and judges) is called the _________

a)

Judicial branch

b)

Executive branch

c)

Legislative branch

d)

Administrative branch

43.

The part of government that makes laws (includes congress and state legislators) is called the _________

a)

Legislative branch

b)

Executive branch

c)

Judicial branch

d)

Administrative branch

44.

Elections held halfway through a president's term, often for congress or local offices, are called _________

a)

Midterm elections

b)

General elections

c)

Primary elections

d)

Runoff elections

45.

A proposed law change that voters can approve or reject on the ballot is called a _________.

a)

Proposition

b)

Amendment

c)

Referendum

d)

Resolution

46.

A rule that caps how many times someone can be elected to the same office is called a _________

a)

Term limit

b)

Majority rule

c)

Veto power

d)

Electoral college

47.

The process of signing up to be eligible to vote is called _________.

a)

Voter registration

b)

Ballot casting

c)

Electoral college

d)

Polling station

48.

What does ASTM stand for?

a)

American society for testing and materials

b)

Association of Science and Technology Management

c)

American Standards for Technical Manufacturing

d)

Advanced Society for Technical Materials

49.

What does HE stand for?

a)

High efficiency

b)

Heavy equipment

c)

Heat exchanger

d)

Hydraulic engine

50.

What is a MSDS?

a)

Material Safety Data Sheet

b)

Medical Safety Data Sheet

c)

Mechanical Safety Data Sheet

d)

Manufacturing Safety Data Sheet

51.

What does P&G stand for?

4 lines
52.

What's an SDS?

4 lines
53.

The scrubbing or motion that helps cleaners work better but too much can damage fabric

(a)  

54.

To gently press a cloth or paper towel on a stain to lift it- rubbing can make it worse

(a)  

55.

A stain from strong colors (like ink, grass, or berries) that may need special treatments to remove

(a)  

56.

A product that uses natural enzymes to break down stains from food, sweat, and other organic messes

(a)  

57.

A chemical reaction (often from air or other cleaners) that can set stains and make them harder to remove

(a)  

58.

A stain from blood, eggs, or dairy-best treated with an enzyme cleaner and cold water

4 lines
59.

An ingredient in cleaners that helps water spread and lift stains more easily

(a)  

60.

A stain from coffee, tea, wine, or tomato sauce- heat can make it worse, so treat with cool water

4 lines
61.

What does CC stand for?

4 lines
62.

What is the DMCA?

4 lines
63.

What does IP stand for?

4 lines
64.

What is the USPTO?

4 lines
65.

What does WIPO stand for?

4 lines
66.

A formal request to stop using someone else's copyrighted or trademarked work

4 lines
67.

Legal protection for original works (like songs, videos, or art) That gives the creator the exclusive right to use and share them

(a)  

68.

Using someone else's copyrighted work without permission when permission is required

4 lines
69.

A new creation that builds on an existing copyrighted work - like a remix or mashup

(a)  

70.

A legal exception allowing limited use of copyrighted work for things like commentary, education, or news

(a)  

71.

Creations like songs, books, or logos that can be legally protected (includes copyright and trademarks)

4 lines
72.

A humorous imitation that can sometimes be protected under fair use

(a)  

73.

Creative work that's free to use because the copyright has expired or been waived

(a)  

74.

A protected symbol, logo or phrase that identifies a brand or product

(a)  

75.

A Customer Service agent/representative is called a _______.

a)

CSA/CSR

b)

CEO

c)

CFO

d)

CTO

76.

The Department of transportation is abbreviated as _______.

a)

DOT

b)

DPT

c)

DTR

d)

DTP

77.

Estimated time of arrival is also known as _______.

a)

ETA

b)

ETD

c)

EOD

d)

ETC

78.

Passenger name record is abbreviated as _______.

a)

PNR

b)

PCR

c)

PNB

d)

PNS

79.

Round trip is abbreviated as _______.

a)

RT

b)

RP

c)

TR

d)

RD

80.

A discounted price for booking far in advance—often cheaper but nonrefundable is called _______.

a)

Advance purchase

b)

Last minute deal

c)

Refundable rate

d)

Flexible fare

81.

Extra features offered at a hotel like Wi-Fi, breakfast, or a pool are called _______.

a)

Amenities

b)

Reservations

c)

Concierge

d)

Rates

82.

The starting cost of a plane ticket before adding taxes and fees is called _______.

a)

Base Fare

b)

Service Charge

c)

Total Fare

d)

Discounted Fare

83.

The rules that determine if you can get a refund or credit if you cancel are called _______.

a)

Cancellation policy

b)

Privacy policy

c)

Return policy

d)

Exchange policy

84.

The price per day for a hotel room or rental car before taxes and extra fees is called _______.

a)

Daily rate

b)

Total cost

c)

Reservation fee

d)

Service charge

85.

Extra costs from a hotel stay, like minibar snacks, room service, or late checkout are called _______.

a)

Incidental charges

b)

Base rate

c)

Reservation fee

d)

Advance deposit

86.

A plan that lists your travel details—flights, hotel stays, and scheduled activities is called an _______.

a)

Itinerary

b)

Brochure

c)

Passport

d)

Reservation

87.

A stop between flights before reaching your final destination is called a _______.

a)

Layover

b)

Detour

c)

Transit

d)

Stopover

88.

A booking that can't be refunded or changed, often offered at a lower price, is called _______.

a)

Nonrefundable

b)

Flexible

c)

Refundable

d)

Transferable

89.

When more reservations are accepted than there is space, sometimes in cancellations or bumps, it is called _______.

a)

Overbooking

b)

Underbooking

c)

Double-booking

d)

No-show

90.

An overnight flight that departs late and arrives the next morning is called a _______.

a)

Red-eye flight

b)

Direct flight

c)

Charter flight

d)

Connecting flight

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