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UNIT 4 MCQ QUESTIONS - Cryptography and Network Security

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A secure email system combines confidentiality, integrity, and availability. If a system provides only 2 out of these 3 features, how many core principles of CIA triad are violated?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

2.

A security analyst finds that 12 out of 80 emails in a batch were spoofed. What is the spoofing rate (in percentage)?

a)

13

b)

21

c)

15

d)

40

3.

An attacker sends 300 phishing emails, 45 of which are clicked by users. What is the click-through rate of this phishing campaign?

a)

15

b)

20

c)

10

d)

45

4.

An organization uses 2048-bit RSA keys for email encryption. If the same organization decides to use a symmetric key equivalent, what should be the key length (in bits) approximately?

a)

213

b)

200

c)

112

d)

520

5.

A secure email protocol encrypts both header and body, which results in a 25% increase in message size. What is the final size of a 4 KB email after encryption?

a)

5

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

6.

An organization uses an email filter that successfully blocks 920 out of 1000 spam messages. What is its spam blocking accuracy (in percentage)?

a)

86

b)

92

c)

17

d)

64

7.

If an encrypted email system introduces a 60 ms delay per email due to cryptographic processing, how long will it take (in seconds) to process 1000 emails?

a)

30

b)

10

c)

20

d)

60

8.

A company processes 10,000 emails per hour. If 5% of them are infected with malware, how many emails per hour must be quarantined?

a)

300

b)

250

c)

500

d)

400

9.

An attacker forges an email identity using a compromised SMTP server. If it takes 7 seconds per message and they send 360 messages, how long (in minutes) does the whole operation take?

a)

24

b)

32

c)

11

d)

42

10.

If an email encryption system uses a 256-bit key and a message digest of 512 bits, what is the combined bit-length of both operations?

a)

768

b)

289

c)

431

d)

460

11.

During a penetration test, 120 spoofed emails were sent, and only 18 were marked as “suspicious” by the email client. What is the detection rate in percentage?

a)

81

b)

15

c)

24

d)

30

12.

An email security gateway reports 99.8% accuracy. Out of 5000 messages, how many were misclassified?

a)

10

b)

28

c)

30

d)

55

13.

An email system employs SSL/TLS to protect communication. However, an attacker manages to intercept and replay previously sent encrypted messages to a recipient. Which security property is primarily compromised here?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Freshness

14.

A company uses SPF and DKIM to verify incoming emails. An email passes SPF but fails DKIM validation. What is the most likely implication?

a)

The email sender’s IP is unauthorized, so message is spam.

b)

The message integrity may be compromised.

c)

The email is encrypted end-to-end.

d)

The recipient mailbox is full.

15.

Why is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) vulnerable to spoofing attacks?

a)

It does not authenticate sender identity.

b)

It encrypts messages end-to-end.

c)

It only supports POP3 clients.

d)

It uses too many encryption layers.

16.

In email security, which of the following techniques primarily prevents unauthorized modification of an email’s content during transit?

a)

Digital signatures

b)

Symmetric encryption

c)

Virus scanning

d)

Spam filtering

17.

A user receives an email claiming to be from their bank, asking for password reset via a link. Which security attack is this an example of?

a)

Phishing

b)

Man-in-the-middle

c)

Replay attack

d)

Brute force

18.

Which layer of the Internet protocol stack is primarily responsible for email delivery?

a)

Application layer

b)

Network layer

c)

Data Link layer

d)

Physical layer

19.

An email system employs both encryption and hashing. Which combination of security goals do these techniques achieve?

a)

A. Confidentiality and integrity

b)

B. Availability and confidentiality

c)

C. Integrity and availability

d)

D. Confidentiality and availability

20.

Why is end-to-end encryption critical in secure email systems?

a)

It ensures only sender and recipient can read the message.

b)

It enables faster email delivery.

c)

It reduces server storage requirements.

d)

It provides public key distribution.

21.

Which type of email attack exploits software vulnerabilities to automatically forward emails without user consent?

a)

Email worm

b)

Spoofing

c)

Phishing

d)

Replay attack

22.

A company notices a surge in emails claiming to be from their domain but sent by unauthorized users. What technique can they implement to reduce this spoofing?

a)

DKIM and SPF records

b)

POP3 and IMAP

c)

Virus scanning

d)

SMTP without TLS

23.

A digital signature is verified using the sender’s public key. Which property does this guarantee?

a)

The message was encrypted by the sender.

b)

The message was sent by the claimed sender and was not altered.

c)

The message is unreadable to anyone except the sender.

d)

The message is virus-free.

24.

Why might relying solely on encryption fail to protect against replay attacks in email?

a)

Encryption doesn’t prevent message replay or duplication.

b)

Encryption is too slow.

c)

Encryption alters message content.

d)

Encryption prevents email delivery.

25.

Which email security feature helps ensure the sender cannot deny sending an email?

a)

Non-repudiation via digital signatures

b)

Confidentiality through encryption

c)

Spam filtering

d)

Virus scanning

26.

An email is sent with an encrypted body but an unencrypted subject line. What potential risk remains?

a)

Exposure of sensitive metadata

b)

Loss of confidentiality for the body

c)

Email won’t be delivered

d)

Digital signature becomes invalid

27.

Which protocol extends SMTP to allow message submission and authentication for outgoing email?

a)

SMTP AUTH

b)

POP3

c)

IMAP

d)

DNS

28.

You receive an email with a suspicious “Received” header showing multiple unknown relay servers from foreign IP addresses. What does this most likely indicate?

a)

The email was sent via a secure corporate server.

b)

The email passed through unauthorized intermediate relays (open relays).

c)

The email is encrypted end-to-end.

d)

The email was blocked by spam filters.

29.

The “From” field in an email header shows a trusted domain, but the “Reply-To” field contains a different, unknown domain. What security risk does this pose?

a)

Message integrity attack

b)

Phishing or social engineering attack to redirect replies

c)

Virus infection

d)

Email delivery failure

30.

In an email header, the “Message-ID” field is identical for two distinct emails received several days apart. What can this duplication imply?

a)

Emails are duplicates or part of a replay attack.

b)

The emails are encrypted.

c)

The emails come from different senders.

d)

The emails are filtered as spam.

31.

An email header includes the following line: DKIM-Signature: v=1; a=rsa-sha256; d=example.com; s=selector1;. What does the s=selector1 indicate?

a)

The signature algorithm used.

b)

The subdomain or key selector used to locate the DKIM public key.

c)

The recipient domain.

d)

The encryption method.

32.

How does the “Received” header help in forensic email analysis?

a)

It tracks the path and time taken by the email across servers.

b)

It encrypts the email body.

c)

It verifies sender identity.

d)

It scans for malware.

33.

If an email header shows “X-Originating-IP” as a private IP (e.g., 192.168.x.x), what can be inferred?

a)

The email was sent from inside a private network.

b)

The email is spam.

c)

The email was encrypted.

d)

The email is blocked.

34.

Why is the “Return-Path” header important in email delivery?

a)

It specifies the bounce address for delivery failures.

b)

It shows the sender’s public key.

c)

It encrypts the email.

d)

It authenticates the sender.

35.

Assertion (A): The “Subject” header can be used to filter spam effectively. Reason (R): The “Subject” is always encrypted and verified in email headers.

a)

A and R are true, and R explains A.

b)

A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

c)

A is true, R is false.

d)

Both A and R are false.

36.

An email header shows multiple “Received” fields. Which “Received” header is closest to the original sender?

a)

The first “Received” header from the top

b)

The last “Received” header at the bottom

c)

The one with the largest IP address

d)

None of the above

37.

An email’s “Content-Type” header is set to “text/html” instead of “text/plain.” What security risk might this pose?

a)

HTML emails can contain scripts that lead to phishing or XSS attacks.

b)

Text/plain emails are always spam.

c)

HTML emails cannot be encrypted.

d)

Text/html disables attachments.

38.

You notice an email header with “Authentication-Results: fail (spf)”. What does this mean?

a)

The sender IP is not authorized to send emails for the domain.

b)

The email is encrypted.

c)

The recipient rejected the email.

d)

The email is spam.

39.

Which header can reveal the mail client software used to send the email?

a)

User-Agent or X-Mailer

b)

Received

c)

DKIM-Signature

d)

Content-Type

40.

An attacker modifies an email header to hide the original sender IP address. Which header field is most likely targeted?

a)

Received

b)

Subject

c)

To

d)

Message-ID

41.

An email claims to come from your CEO but the “Reply-To” header directs replies to an unknown external email address. What kind of attack is this?

a)

CEO fraud or Business Email Compromise (BEC)

b)

Spam attack

c)

Replay attack

d)

Virus infection

42.

The “X-Spam-Status” header in an email show “No, score=4.0 required=5.0”. What does this indicate about the email?

a)

It is likely not spam, as score is below threshold.

b)

It is spam.

c)

The email is encrypted.

d)

The email failed DKIM.

43.

PGP encrypts a message by first compressing it, then encrypting the compressed data with a session key, which is itself encrypted with the recipient’s public key. Why is compression done before encryption?

a)

To increase the entropy and strengthen encryption

b)

To reduce the size and remove redundancy before encryption

c)

To simplify key management

d)

To speed up public key encryption

44.

In PGP, the digital signature is created by:

a)

Encrypting the entire message with the sender’s private key

b)

Hashing the message and encrypting the hash with the sender’s private key

c)

Encrypting the message digest with the recipient’s public key

d)

Hashing the message only

45.

Which of the following is NOT a feature provided by PGP?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Authentication

c)

Non-repudiation

d)

Virus scanning

46.

When Bob receives a PGP message from Alice, what keys does he use to decrypt the message?

a)

His private key and Alice’s public key

b)

Alice’s private key and Bob’s public key

c)

Bob’s private key and the session key encrypted by Bob’s public key

d)

Only Bob’s public key

47.

Assertion (A): PGP uses both symmetric and asymmetric encryption to balance security and performance. Reason (R): Symmetric encryption is faster but key distribution is challenging, asymmetric encryption is slower but simplifies key distribution.

a)

A. A and R true, R explains A

b)

B. A and R true, R doesn’t explain A

c)

C. A true, R false

d)

D. A false, R true

48.

In PGP, what is the purpose of the “Web of Trust”?

a)

Centralized Certificate Authority (CA) system

b)

Decentralized trust model based on user key signatures

c)

Symmetric key exchange protocol

d)

Virus detection method

49.

Which hash algorithm is commonly used by PGP for message digest?

a)

SHA-256

b)

MD5

c)

SHA-1

d)

DES

50.

What does PGP do if the recipient’s public key is not found during encryption?

a)

Encrypts using symmetric encryption only

b)

Fails to encrypt the session key, causing encryption failure

c)

Generates a new key automatically

d)

Uses sender’s public key instead

51.

If a PGP message contains a 2 KB compressed message encrypted by a 128-bit symmetric session key, how many bits is the key?

a)

128 bits

b)

64 bits

c)

256 bits

d)

512 bits

52.

What is the significance of "Key ID" in PGP key management?

a)

It identifies a specific public/private key pair uniquely.

b)

It is used as a password.

c)

It encrypts the message digest.

d)

It represents the message hash.

53.

Why is PGP considered vulnerable if the private key is compromised?

a)

The attacker can decrypt all messages encrypted with that public key.

b)

The attacker can generate new public keys.

c)

The attacker can send emails only.

d)

No vulnerabilities arise.

54.

How does PGP ensure message integrity?

a)

By encrypting the message twice

b)

By creating a message digest and signing it digitally

c)

By using a passphrase

d)

By sending the message over a secure channel

55.

Alice sends a signed and encrypted message to Bob using PGP. Bob finds the signature invalid. What could be the reason?

a)

Alice’s private key was compromised

b)

Message was altered during transit

c)

Bob’s public key is outdated

d)

Both A and B

56.

Which of the following is TRUE about PGP key revocation?

a)

Keys cannot be revoked once published.

b)

Revocation certificates allow users to revoke compromised keys.

c)

Revocation only happens automatically.

d)

Only the recipient can revoke keys.

57.

In PGP, what is the role of a session key?

a)

To encrypt the entire email using symmetric encryption

b)

To sign the message

c)

To verify the sender’s identity

d)

To decrypt the message digest

58.

S/MIME provides email security by combining encryption and digital signatures. Which standard is primarily used for the digital signature in S/MIME?

a)

RSA

b)

AES

c)

SHA-256

d)

DES

59.

In S/MIME, what format is used to bundle the signed and encrypted message along with certificates?

a)

MIME Multipart

b)

PKCS#7 (Cryptographic Message Syntax)

c)

XML Signature

d)

JSON Web Token

60.

Assertion (A): S/MIME encrypts the entire email content including attachments. Reason (R): S/MIME uses symmetric encryption for the message and asymmetric encryption for the session key.

a)

A. A and R true, R explains A

b)

B. A and R true, R doesn’t explain A

c)

C. A true, R false

d)

D. Both false

61.

How does S/MIME handle certificate validation to establish trust?

a)

Trusts any certificate presented by the sender

b)

Validates the sender’s certificate against a trusted Certificate Authority (CA) chain

c)

Uses a Web of Trust model like PGP

d)

Does not validate certificates

62.

Which of the following is NOT supported by S/MIME?

a)

Message encryption

b)

Digital signatures

c)

Virus scanning

d)

Certificate-based authentication

63.

What does S/MIME use to generate the symmetric session key used to encrypt the message body?

a)

Random key generated by the sender’s device

b)

Recipient’s private key

c)

Sender’s public key

d)

A fixed key shared among users

64.

An email message encrypted using S/MIME is 10 MB. If the symmetric encryption algorithm used has a block size of 128 bits and the padding adds 8 bytes, what is the approximate size of the encrypted message in MB?

a)

Approximately 10.095 MB

b)

Approximately 10.0095 MB

c)

Approximately 10.95 MB

d)

Approximately 10.0095 MB

65.

Which certificate format does S/MIME typically use for certificates?

a)

PEM (Privacy-Enhanced Mail)

b)

DER (Distinguished Encoding Rules)

c)

PFX/P12 (Personal Information Exchange)

d)

All of the above

66.

If an S/MIME-encrypted email is sent to a recipient whose public key certificate is expired, what happens?

a)

The email is encrypted normally

b)

The sender is notified of an invalid certificate and encryption may fail

c)

The message is sent without encryption

d)

The sender’s private key is used instead

67.

Which of the following best describes S/MIME’s method to prevent email spoofing?

a)

Encrypting only attachments

b)

Using digital signatures validated by trusted CAs

c)

Sending emails via secured SMTP only

d)

Adding random noise to the message content

68.

68. Assertion (A): S/MIME allows multiple recipients to be encrypted with the same message content. Reason (R): S/MIME encrypts the session key separately for each recipient’s public key.

a)

A. A and R true, R explains A

b)

B. A and R true, R doesn’t explain A

c)

C. A true, R false

d)

D. Both false

69.

A limitation of S/MIME compared to PGP is:

a)

It relies on centralized certificate authorities.

b)

It does not support email encryption.

c)

It is not compatible with any email clients.

d)

It is less secure than PGP.

70.

When an S/MIME email is digitally signed, what does the recipient use to verify the signature?

a)

The sender's public key certificate

b)

The sender's private key

c)

The recipient's private key

d)

A symmetric session key

71.

What encryption algorithms are commonly used in S/MIME for symmetric encryption?

a)

A. AES, 3DES

b)

B. RSA only

c)

C. MD5 and SHA-1

d)

D. Diffie-Hellman

72.

An organization uses S/MIME to secure emails. A recipient receives a message but cannot open it because the client says the certificate is not trusted. What is a probable cause?

a)

The recipient's certificate expired

b)

The sender's certificate is not issued by a trusted CA in the recipient's trust store

c)

The message was corrupted

d)

The sender forgot to encrypt the message

73.

An email filtering system uses Bayesian spam filtering, which calculates the probability that an email is spam based on the presence of certain words. If the word "free" appears in 80% of spam emails and 10% of legitimate emails, how does the presence of "free" affect the spam probability?

a)

Increases spam probability significantly

b)

Decreases spam probability

c)

Has no effect on spam probability

d)

Makes the email definitely spam

74.

In a machine learning-based spam detection system, which of the following features is least likely to improve classification accuracy?

a)

Frequency of suspicious keywords

b)

Length of email body

c)

Sender's IP address reputation

d)

Number of images in the email signature

75.

75. Assertion (A): Email spam detection systems often use blacklists to block known spam IP addresses. Reason (R): Blacklists are dynamic and updated frequently to include new spammers.

a)

A. A and R true, R explains A

b)

B. A and R true, R does not explain A

c)

C. true, R false

d)

D. Both false

76.

Why is it difficult for spam filters to detect phishing emails that mimic legitimate business communications?

a)

They use random words

b)

They closely replicate formatting and language of legitimate emails

c)

They are always encrypted

d)

They only use images

77.

Which of the following is an example of a false positive in spam detection?

a)

A spam email classified as legitimate

b)

A legitimate email classified as spam

c)

An email that is neither spam nor legitimate

d)

An email deleted without classification

78.

A spam filter classifies 1200 emails. 100 are spam, and it correctly identifies 90 spam emails. What is the real rate of the spam filter?

a)

0.8

b)

0.9

c)

0.5

d)

0.7

79.

What is the primary purpose of the SPF (Sender Policy Framework) record in combating spam?

a)

To encrypt emails

b)

To authenticate sender IPs authorized to send mail on behalf of a domain

c)

To filter images in emails

d)

To blacklist IP addresses

80.

Assertion (A): Content-based spam filters analyze email headers and body text to detect spam. Reason (R): Content-based filters rely solely on sender IP reputation.

a)

A and R true, R explains A

b)

A and R true, R does not explain A

c)

true, R false

d)

Both false

81.

An email filter uses a Support Vector Machine (SVM) trained on features extracted from email text. What is the role of the kernel function in SVM?

a)

To reduce dimensionality of the data

b)

To transform data into a higher-dimensional space to make it linearly separable

c)

To remove irrelevant emails

d)

To encrypt data for privacy

82.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of rule-based spam filtering systems?

a)

They adapt well to new spam trends

b)

They require frequent manual updates to rules

c)

They have no false positives

d)

They use machine learning

83.

A company notices many phishing emails bypassing their spam filter. Analysis shows most phishing emails spoof the sender address of trusted contacts. What technical control can help mitigate this?

a)

Use DKIM and DMARC email authentication protocols

b)

Block all emails with attachments

c)

Disable external email access

d)

Increase mailbox size

84.

In a spam classification task, if the precision is 0.95 and the number of true positives is 190, how many false positives did the system classify?

a)

10

b)

13

c)

5

d)

8

85.

WPA2 is a security protocol used to provide users and firms with strong data security and protection for their networks to give them confidence that only authorized users can access their network.

a)

Ethernet

b)

Bluetooth

c)

Wi-Fi

d)

Email

86.

Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in ______

a)

Wired personal area network

b)

Wireless networks

c)

Wired local area network

d)

Wired metropolitan area network

87.

PGP is an encryption method used _____ to encrypt and decrypt the content of an e-mail transmitted over the internet. It makes sure that the message cannot be stolen by other unauthorized users.

a)

Browser security

b)

Email security

c)

FTP security

d)

WiFi security

88.

In a ____, the attacker won’t let the victims access the network by using a certain method that ensures that an essential network resource is unavailable to the victim. The methods that the attacker can use are vulnerability attack, bandwidth flooding and connection flooding.

a)

Denial-of-service attack

b)

Virus attack

c)

Worms attack

d)

Botnet process

89.

IPSec is a set of protocols used to provide authentication, data integrity and confidentiality between two machines in an IP network. In the TCP/IP model, it provides security at the ______

a)

Transport layer

b)

Network layer

c)

Application layer

d)

Session layer

90.

When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving that information, then it is called

a)

DNS lookup

b)

DNS hijacking

c)

DNS spoofing

d)

DNS authorizing

91.

Which authentication protocol is commonly used for securing internet communication, providing secure and encrypted connections?

a)

OAuth

b)

SSL/TLS

c)

Kerberos

d)

LDAP

92.

X.509 Digital Certificates are used for ____, ensuring that the communication parties are who they claim to be.

a)

Message integrity

b)

Authentication

c)

Authorization

d)

Access Control

93.

Which access control mechanism grants or denies access based on the user’s identity and their permissions?

a)

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

b)

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

c)

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

d)

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

94.

An ip address which is 32 bits long, that means it is of 4 bytes and is composed of a network and host portion and it depends on address class. The size of the ____ depends upon the class of the address in classful IP addressing.

a)

only network address

b)

only host address

c)

network address & host address

d)

network address & MAC address

95.

A ____ also called as VCID (virtual circuit identifier) is a type of identifier which is used to distinguish between several virtual circuits in a connection oriented circuit switched network. Each virtual circuit is used to transfer data over a larger packet switched network.

a)

full source and destination address

b)

a short VC number

c)

only source address

d)

only destination address

96.

Spanning tree protocol (STP) is a network protocol that creates a loop free logical topology for ethernet networks. It is a layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network.

a)

spanning tree

b)

spider structure

c)

spider tree

d)

special tree

97.

Internet Control Message Protocol is used by networking devices to send ____ and operational information indicating a host or router cannot be reached. ICMP operates over the IP packet to provide error reporting functionality as IP by itself cannot report errors.

a)

error and diagnostic functions

b)

addressing

c)

forwarding

d)

routing

98.

For each ______ the Kerberos Key Distribution Center (KDC) maintains a database of the realm’s principal and the principal’s associated “secret keys”.

a)

key

b)

realm

c)

document

d)

image

99.

KDC uses the client’s secret and the server’s secret to construct _____ which allows the client and server to mutually authenticate each other, while keeping the secrets hidden.

a)

ticket

b)

local

c)

token

d)

user

100.

Linux systems can store Kerberos authentication keys for a service principal in ______ files.

a)

Client

b)

Server

c)

keytab

d)

User