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Chapter 10: Reproductive Hormones Introduction

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to the diagram of the male reproductive endocrine axis. Which statement best describes the initiating control and primary functions of this system as outlined?

a)

Initiated by the pituitary; functions are estrogen (E2) synthesis and oogenesis

b)

Initiated by the hypothalamus; functions include testosterone (T2) production and spermatogenesis

c)

Initiated by the testes; functions are LH and FSH secretion only

d)

Initiated by the adrenal cortex; functions include inhibin and progesterone release

2.

Based on the female reproductive system overview in the figure, which pairing correctly matches a hormone with a listed physiological role?

a)

Progesterone (P4) — stimulates spermatogenesis

b)

Estrogen (E2) — supports oogenesis, estrus, and ovulation

c)

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) — initiates lactation without ovarian involvement

d)

Luteinizing hormone (LH) — maintains gestation independent of progesterone

3.

Using the estrus cycle summary and graph, during which phase does an LH surge coincide with peak estrogen (E2) and lead to ovulation?

a)

Proestrus

b)

Estrus

c)

Metestrus

d)

Diestrus

4.

According to the diagram of steroid hormone response, what is the immediate cellular consequence after the steroid-receptor complex binds DNA in the nucleus?

a)

Activation of a signal transduction cascade at the cell membrane

b)

Opening of voltage-gated ion channels

c)

Initiation of mRNA transcription leading to protein synthesis

d)

Release of stored calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum

5.

In the depicted peptide hormone response pathway, which event occurs first upon hormone binding to the receptor?

a)

Translocation of the hormone–receptor complex into the nucleus

b)

Direct binding of the complex to DNA response elements

c)

Membrane-localized receptor activation that triggers a signal transduction cascade

d)

Immediate synthesis of structural proteins without intermediates

6.

Which statement best distinguishes steroid hormone action from peptide hormone action as illustrated?

a)

Steroid hormones act by activating membrane receptors to trigger second messengers, while peptides directly regulate gene transcription.

b)

Steroid hormones directly regulate gene transcription via intracellular receptors; peptides act through membrane receptors and cascades.

c)

Both steroid and peptide hormones must enter the nucleus before any cellular response occurs.

d)

Peptide hormones primarily alter DNA methylation, whereas steroids only change membrane potentials.

7.

Which clinical indication aligns with GnRH use based on the material?

a)

Treatment of hypothyroidism by increasing TSH secretion

b)

Induction of ovulation and medical castration

c)

Enhancement of insulin release in type 2 diabetes

d)

Immediate reversal of GnRH receptor desensitization

8.

Prolonged exposure to GnRH can lead to which side effect mentioned in the material?

a)

Up-regulation of GnRH receptors resulting in hypersensitivity

b)

Desensitization and down-regulation of GnRH receptors

c)

Permanent destruction of pituitary tissue

d)

Autoimmune attack on hypothalamic nuclei

9.

Refer to the diagram showing the natural cycle versus the hormonal cycle with GnRH analogue. Which statement best explains why FSH and LH secretion becomes suppressed after continued GnRH analogue administration?

a)

GnRH analogues permanently destroy pituitary cells that produce FSH and LH

b)

Down-regulation of GnRH receptors reduces pituitary responsiveness, lowering FSH/LH release

c)

Analogues convert FSH and LH into inactive metabolites within the ovary

d)

GnRH analogues block hypothalamic synthesis of native GnRH

e)

FSH and LH are diluted by increased blood volume during treatment

10.

A farm implements an Ovsynch protocol starting with a GnRH injection, followed by PGF2α seven days later, then another GnRH two days after PGF2α. What physiological events are intended between the first GnRH and the timed artificial insemination (TAI)?

a)

Follicular cyst formation and persistent CL

b)

Ovulation/luteinization of the dominant follicle, luteolysis, and ovulation of a new dominant follicle

c)

Immediate medical castration and permanent anestrus

d)

Suppression of GnRH receptors preventing LH surge

11.

Compared with gonadorelin, which characteristic is most accurate for buserelin?

a)

Less potent and slower to induce LH surge

b)

More potent and induces an LH surge within hours

c)

Equivalent potency with prolonged duration only

d)

Acts primarily as a GnRH antagonist in rabbits

12.

Which dosing guideline aligns with the material for using buserelin across species?

a)

Cattle 100–200 µg; horses 40 µg; pigs 10 µg/head

b)

Cattle 10–20 µg; horses 40 µg; pigs 10 µg/head

c)

Dogs 4.7 or 9.4 µg/dog; ferrets 10 µg/head

d)

Cattle 5 µg; horses 10 µg; pigs 1 µg/head

13.

What adverse effects and monitoring considerations are associated with deslorelin according to the material?

a)

Severe systemic anaphylaxis is common; no monitoring required

b)

Local inflammation and decreased libido; allergy is rare but requires monitoring

c)

Renal failure and hypertension; routine ECG only

d)

Profound hypoglycemia; continuous glucose monitoring mandatory

14.

Which product form is specifically shown for deslorelin and what is its typical dose in small carnivores?

a)

Injectable solution; dogs/ferrets 100–200 µg

b)

Oral tablet; dogs/ferrets 1 mg/kg

c)

Implant; dogs/ferrets 4.7 or 9.4 µg/dog

d)

Transdermal patch; pigs 10 µg/head

15.

Which synthetic GnRH agonist is commonly used for estrus synchronization programs across ruminants due to its ability to activate FSH receptors and drive folliculogenesis?

a)

Gonadorelin

b)

Buserelin

c)

Deslorelin

d)

Equine chorionic gonadotropin (eCG/PMSG)

16.

Gonadorelin’s primary indication in veterinary practice is best described as which of the following?

a)

Treatment of follicular cysts via LH surge induction

b)

Long-term contraception through downregulation of GnRH receptors

c)

Superovulation program with precise recombinant dosing

d)

Postpartum anestrus treatment using chorionic gonadotropin

17.

Deslorelin implants are most appropriately indicated for which scenario in veterinary reproduction?

a)

Synchronizing estrus in ruminants during breeding season

b)

Inducing ovulation and managing reproductive timing in species such as horses or companion animals

c)

Treating postpartum anestrus in dairy cattle

d)

Replacing FSH in superovulation protocols for goats

18.

Which potential side effect can occur due to administering cross‑species protein hCG?

a)

Anti‑hCG antibody formation

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Severe hypoglycemia

d)

Anaphylactic shock unique to r-FSH

19.

Which statement best describes the pharmacologic role of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in reproductive therapy?

a)

It acts as a follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) analog to promote follicular growth.

b)

It functions as a luteinizing hormone (LH) analog to trigger ovulation and luteinization.

c)

It mimics prolactin to enhance milk letdown during lactation.

d)

It primarily inhibits GnRH release to suppress estrus.

20.

A clinician aims to induce rhythmic uterine contractions during labor while avoiding contraindicated scenarios. Which situation is a clear contraindication to oxytocin administration?

a)

Post-term pregnancy with intact membranes and cephalic presentation

b)

Uterine atony after delivery of the placenta

c)

Known cephalopelvic disproportion or obstructed labor

d)

Elective induction at term with favorable cervix

21.

Carbetocin is often discussed alongside oxytocin. Which statement best distinguishes carbetocin from oxytocin in clinical use?

a)

Carbetocin is a long-acting oxytocin analog used to sustain uterine tone postpartum

b)

Carbetocin is a dopamine antagonist that suppresses prolactin

c)

Carbetocin is a prostaglandin analog that causes luteolysis

d)

Carbetocin is a glucocorticoid that promotes fetal lung maturity

22.

Which statement best describes dopamine’s role in regulating prolactin in lactogenesis?

a)

Dopamine stimulates prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary

b)

Dopamine inhibits prolactin release, thereby reducing lactogenesis

c)

Dopamine converts prolactin to progesterone in the mammary gland

d)

Dopamine has no interaction with prolactin during lactation

23.

In an animal with agalactia due to inadequate prolactin activity, which intervention aligns with the mechanism of action of bromocriptine/cabergoline?

a)

Avoid dopamine agonists because they reduce prolactin needed for milk production

b)

Use dopamine agonists to enhance prolactin signaling in the mammary gland

c)

Block progesterone synthesis to increase prolactin release

d)

Administer PGF2α to stimulate lactogenesis via uterine contractions

24.

During the luteal phase of the estrous cycle, which statement best describes the primary physiological role of Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α)?

a)

Stimulates granulosa cell proliferation to promote follicular dominance

b)

Induces luteolysis by causing regression of the corpus luteum

c)

Enhances endometrial proliferation through positive feedback on LH

d)

Maintains progesterone secretion from the corpus luteum

25.

Which potential effect should be considered when using pharmacological preparations of PGF2α for reproductive management?

a)

Risk of maintaining the corpus luteum and delaying estrus

b)

Possible systemic side effects associated with prostaglandins such as smooth muscle contraction and transient discomfort

c)

Enhanced estrogen synthesis leading to persistent positive feedback on LH

d)

Development of bone marrow aplasia similar to historical concerns with certain estrogen analogs

26.

According to the material, which adverse effect is specifically noted in dogs following estradiol administration?

a)

Aplastic anemia

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hepatic lipidosis

d)

Pulmonary edema

27.

Estrus induction and ovulation with estrogen depend on feedback that increases luteinizing hormone (LH). Which preparation aligns with this mechanism as an estrogen used in practice?

a)

Estradiol benzoate

b)

Medroxyprogesterone acetate

c)

CIDR intravaginal implant

d)

Diethylstilbestrol is a progestin

28.

Recall/Skill: Which clinical use is linked to estrogen preparations in reproductive management protocols?

a)

Induction of abortion through luteolysis support

b)

Treatment of urinary incontinence due to urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence

c)

First-line therapy for pyometra in intact bitches

d)

Stimulating lactation by upregulating prolactin receptors

29.

Which application aligns with a pharmacological preparation of progesterone (P4) in reproductive management?

a)

Emergency treatment of uterine inertia by increasing contractions

b)

Contraception by suppressing estrus through GnRH inhibition

c)

Induction of parturition by stimulating oxytocin receptors

d)

Enhancement of spermatogenesis via FSH activation

30.

When using P4 analogs for estrus control, which consequence should be anticipated due to endocrine feedback?

a)

Increased GnRH secretion leading to hyperfertility

b)

Suppressed GnRH secretion that decreases LH/FSH availability

c)

No change in hypothalamic activity but elevated uterine tone

d)

Direct destruction of ovarian follicles without hormonal change

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