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Term 4 exam prep.

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes the significance of valuing ecosystem services?

a)

It helps in making informed decisions about resource use and conservation.

b)

It only benefits scientists and researchers.

c)

It is mainly useful for economic development without considering the environment.

d)

It is not necessary for sustainable development.

2.

Which of the following is NOT an example of an ecosystem service provided by the environment?

a)

Clean air to breathe

b)

Fertile soils for crops

c)

Paying money for ecosystem services

d)

Nutritious foods to eat

3.

Ecosystem services are generally classified into how many categories?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

4.

Which of the following are examples of Provisioning Services?

a)

Drinking water

b)

Raw materials

c)

Components used for medicine

d)

Pollination of crops

5.

Which of the following processes are considered Supporting Services?

a)

Nutrient cycling

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Soil formation

d)

Food provision

6.

Which of the following is an example of a cultural service provided by natural environments?

a)

Spiritual enrichment

b)

Water purification

c)

Soil formation

d)

Carbon sequestration

7.

Which of the following are benefits provided by forests that may not be considered in purely economic terms?

a)

Air regulation

b)

Aesthetic appeal

c)

Improved soil quality

d)

Immediate profit from timber

8.

According to research, what is the estimated annual economic value of global pollination services?

a)

200 billion U.S. dollars

b)

2 billion U.S. dollars

c)

20 million U.S. dollars

d)

500 million U.S. dollars

9.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four types of ecosystem services?

a)

Provisioning services

b)

Regulating services

c)

Cultural services

d)

Industrial services

10.

Which of the following best describes an ecocentric worldview?

a)

Humans are the most important beings and nature exists to serve us.

b)

Nature and all living things have intrinsic value, and humans are just one part of the ecosystem.

c)

Economic growth should be prioritized over environmental protection.

d)

Technology can solve all environmental problems.

11.

What is the main difference between 'price' and 'value' as described in the lesson?

a)

Price is the amount of money paid, while value is based on perception.

b)

Price is always higher than value.

c)

Value is determined by the government, price is not.

d)

Price is about usefulness, value is about money.

12.

Which of the following statements best describes a worldview?

a)

A worldview is a mental model of reality and a framework of ideas and attitudes about the world, ourselves, and life.

b)

A worldview is a set of rules for living in society.

c)

A worldview is a religious belief system.

d)

A worldview is a scientific theory about the environment.

13.

Select all the factors that can shape a person's worldview regarding environmental issues.

a)

Cultural background

b)

Personal experiences

c)

Economic status

d)

Media exposure

14.

The indigenous people of New Zealand, the (a)   , lived in the country long before Europeans arrived.

15.

Which of the following best describes the difference between European and Māori views of the natural environment in 18th and 19th century New Zealand?

a)

Europeans saw the environment as something to be converted and exploited, while Māori integrated with it.

b)

Both Europeans and Māori saw the environment as something to be exploited.

c)

Māori placed themselves above nature, while Europeans integrated with it.

d)

Europeans and Māori both valued the environment for its usefulness to humans.

16.

Homocentric and ecocentric are two types of (a)   worldviews.

17.

Why is it important to understand the indigenous Australian worldview when learning about caring for Country?

a)

Because it helps us appreciate their connection to the land and environment.

b)

Because it is required for passing exams and getting a good paying job

c)

Because it is the only worldview that matters, regardless of what anyone says.

d)

Because it is a recent development in Australia.

18.

Which of the following best describes the worldview of Indigenous Australians towards the environment?

a)

Anthropocentric, focusing on human needs above all

b)

Ecocentric, seeing all features of the landscape as interconnected

c)

Technocentric, relying on technology to manage the land

d)

Biocentric, valuing only living things over non-living

19.

Which of the following are responsibilities included in 'caring for Country' according to Indigenous Australian beliefs?

a)

Maintaining natural resources

b)

Ignoring traditional stories

c)

Passing responsibility to future generations

d)

Exploiting resources for profit

20.

If an ecosystem was under pressure, what action would Aboriginal communities most likely take to maintain balance?

a)

Continue hunting in the same area

b)

Move in search of thriving populations and plants in season

c)

Hunt more animals to reduce competition

d)

Stop hunting altogether

21.

How did Aboriginal Australians traditionally pass on information about the type and location of food, medicine, poisons, and drinking water?

a)

Through rock art

b)

Through written books

c)

By word of mouth only

d)

By planting signs

22.

Which of the following are true about the use of fire by the Nyungar people?

a)

They used two types of fire: cool fire and hot fire

b)

Fire was used to promote growth and protect biodiversity

c)

Only hot fires were used for all purposes

d)

Cool fires were used to clear undergrowth

23.

How often were areas of thick vegetation burnt using hot fire?

a)

Every 10-15 years

b)

Every year

c)

Every 2 years

d)

Every 20 years

24.

Which of the following best describes the difference between a homocentric and an ecocentric worldview?

a)

A homocentric worldview prioritizes human needs, while an ecocentric worldview values all living things equally.

b)

A homocentric worldview values all living things equally, while an ecocentric worldview prioritizes human needs.

c)

Both worldviews prioritize economic growth over environmental protection.

d)

Both worldviews ignore the importance of biodiversity.

25.

Which of the following best describes a worldview?

a)

A scientific theory about the environment and its effect on different organisms

b)

A framework of attitudes and ideas about ourselves, the world and life.

c)

A set of laws governing human behavior and their interaction to nature

d)

A religious belief system that involves the worship of the environment

26.

Environmental worldviews lie on a spectrum. What are the two opposing ends of this spectrum called?

a)

Anthropocentrism and Biocentrism

b)

Homocentrism and Ecocentrism

c)

Utilitarianism and Preservationism

d)

Humanism and Environmentalism

27.

Which of the following statements are true about intermediate worldviews?

a)

Humans are placed above all other life and the environment

b)

Living things have intrinsic value, non-living things have utilitarian value

c)

Humans are not placed above other life, but above non-living things

d)

Intermediate worldviews can align more closely to either homocentrism or ecocentrism

28.

Which of the following best describes the difference between a homocentric and an ecocentric worldview regarding environmental preservation?

a)

Homocentric worldviews value the environment for its usefulness to humans, while ecocentric worldviews value the environment for its own sake.

b)

Homocentric worldviews value all life equally, while ecocentric worldviews only value humans.

c)

Homocentric worldviews focus on the intrinsic value of nature, while ecocentric worldviews focus on economic benefits.

d)

Homocentric worldviews are more common in indigenous beliefs, while ecocentric worldviews are more common in developed countries.

29.

Which of the following are likely outcomes of an ecocentric worldview?

a)

Greater protection and preservation of ecosystems

b)

Valuing natural environments only for their economic benefits

c)

Careful consideration of the impact on all species before altering ecosystems

d)

Prioritizing human needs above all else

30.

Which of the following best describes the term 'habitat loss'?

a)

The destruction or alteration of natural environments, making them unable to support the species that live there.

b)

The increase in the number of species in an area.

c)

The process of animals migrating to new habitats.

d)

The creation of new habitats by humans.

31.

What is habitat loss and how does it occur?

a)

It is the creation of new habitats for species by humans.

b)

It is the loss of habitats for species due to human activities that degrade or destroy ecosystems.

c)

It is the migration of species to new areas for better resources.

d)

It is the increase in biodiversity due to ecosystem services.

32.

Which of the following are consequences of desertification?

a)

Poor quality soils

b)

Increased erosion and susceptibility to disasters

c)

Famine

d)

All of the above

33.

According to the pie chart, what is the leading cause of deforestation in the Amazon rainforest?

a)

Logging

b)

Small-scale agriculture

c)

Cattle ranching

d)

Large-scale agriculture

34.

What are some ways humans can help reduce habitat loss?

a)

By planting more trees and restoring forests

b)

By increasing urban development

c)

By expanding agricultural land

d)

By draining wetlands for construction

35.

Which of the following best describes the concept of 'joint management' in the context of environmental conservation?

a)

A partnership between Indigenous communities and government agencies to manage natural resources.

b)

A system where only government agencies are responsible for managing national parks.

c)

A process where private companies take over the management of public lands.

d)

A method where local communities manage parks without any external support.

36.

How were indigenous people affected by the traditional management of Australia's National Parks?

a)

They were marginalized and excluded from decision-making.

b)

They were given full rights over land use.

c)

They were always consulted on land use.

d)

They managed the parks independently.

37.

What is the main goal of joint management in the context of Australian National Parks?

a)

To share knowledge between Traditional Owners and the State.

b)

To exclude indigenous people from park management.

c)

To privatize national parks.

d)

To increase tourism only.

38.

In what year did Gurig National Park become the first jointly managed National Park in Australia?

(a)  

39.

Which of the following are benefits of joint management for Traditional Aboriginal Owners?

a)

Recognition of cultural relationship with the land

b)

Retaining spiritual and cultural activities

c)

Lending their voice to park management decision making

d)

Exclusion from decision making

40.

Joint management provides the State with opportunities to apply traditional knowledge and management practices to contemporary issues, improving (a)   and conservation.

41.

What was the significance of the 1985 decision to pass the Uluru-Kata Tjuta National Park title deeds back to the Anangu people?

a)

It allowed mining in the park.

b)

It formally recognised Anangu ownership.

c)

It ended tourism in the park.

d)

It removed all government involvement.

42.

What is one key benefit of joint environmental management in Australia, particularly in places like Uluru-Kata Tjuta National Park?

a)

It allows for the integration of Indigenous knowledge and Western science.

b)

It reduces the number of visitors to national parks.

c)

It eliminates the need for government involvement.

d)

It focuses only on economic development.

43.

Which of the following is a key topic to be discussed in the lesson about the Carmichael Coal Mine?

a)

The history of coal mining in Europe

b)

The positives and negatives of coal as a resource

c)

The process of diamond mining

d)

The impact of gold mining in Australia

44.

What is the main reason coal is considered a contentious environmental issue in Australia?

a)

It is expensive to extract from underground

b)

It is a major source of energy but causes environmental harm

c)

It is only found in a few places, which makes it an expensive commodity

d)

It is not used for electricity generation, but can be used in freight transport.

45.

Which of the following are uses of coal besides generating energy?

a)

Manufacturing plastics

b)

Making medicines

c)

Producing insecticides

d)

Generating wind power

46.

Burning coal emits (a)   dioxide gas, which is a leading cause of global climate change.

47.

What are some negative impacts of coal mining on the environment and people?

a)

It creates new habitats for species

b)

It is hazardous to miners and destroys habitats

c)

It improves air quality by adding oxygen and removing carbon dioxide

d)

It reduces health risks by increasing the greenhouse gases in the atmosphere

48.

Why is there growing opposition to the coal industry in Australia?

a)

It is too expensive to maintain

b)

It harms human and environmental health.

c)

It is not used for electricity generation

d)

It contributes to climate change

49.

Which of the following is a reason why the Australian government supports the Carmichael Coal Mine project?

a)

It will increase greenhouse gas emissions.

b)

It will create economic benefits for Queensland.

c)

It will reduce the use of groundwater for farmers.

d)

It will protect the Great Barrier Reef; a national treasure.

50.

Which of the following are potential negative impacts of the Carmichael Coal Mine according to environmentalists and Indigenous Australians?

a)

Increase in greenhouse gas emissions

b)

Contamination of land and waterways

c)

Threat to cultural heritage

d)

Creation of 10,000 jobs

51.

Why is it important to understand the impact of pollution on marine life?

a)

Because it helps us protect endangered species and maintain ecosystem balance.

b)

Because it increases the number of marine animals.

c)

Because pollution has no effect on marine life.

d)

Because marine life does not interact with pollution.

52.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the environment that can be polluted by humans?

a)

Soil

b)

Air

c)

Waterways

d)

Mountains

53-56.

Answer the questions below after watching the video

53.

What is eutrophication?

a)

A process where water bodies become clearer due to reduced nutrients.

b)

A process that occurs in water bodies when too many nutrients are added.

c)

A natural phenomenon that increases oxygen levels in water.

d)

A method for purifying water by removing algae.

54.

What is the immediate effect of increased nutrient concentration in a water body?

a)

A decrease in the population of algae.

b)

An increase in the number of fish.

c)

A thick green algal bloom.

d)

Clearer water due to nutrient absorption.

55.

How does an algal bloom affect plants at the bottom of a water body?

a)

It provides them with more nutrients, helping them grow.

b)

It increases the amount of sunlight reaching them, boosting photosynthesis.

c)

It absorbs sunlight, preventing it from reaching the bottom plants, causing them to die.

d)

It has no significant effect on bottom plants.

56.

What happens to non-bacterial life in a water body when it becomes anoxic?

a)

It thrives due to the increased food supply.

b)

It adapts to the new conditions and continues to grow.

c)

It migrates to other water bodies.

d)

It dies due to the lack of oxygen.

57.

Which of the following substances are commonly found in agricultural runoff?

a)

Pesticides

b)

Fertilisers

c)

Animal faeces

d)

Plastic bottles

58.

When agricultural runoff enters waterways, it causes (a)   .

59.

What is the term used for an area in the ocean where nothing can survive due to high concentrations of pollutants?

a)

Eutrophication zone

b)

Dead zone

c)

Red tide

d)

Hypoxic area

60.

Pollution can harm marine animals such as turtles. Which of the following is NOT a way to help reduce pollution in the oceans?

a)

Properly disposing of plastic waste

b)

Participating in beach clean-ups

c)

Throwing trash into the sea

d)

Using reusable bags instead of plastic ones

61.

Which of the following is a key aspect to assess when evaluating hydroelectric dam projects in the Balkans?

a)

The historical architecture of the region

b)

The different views surrounding the projects

c)

The popularity of local cuisine

d)

The climate of Western Europe

62.

What is hydropower and why is it considered a renewable source of energy?

a)

It uses the energy of running water to generate electricity and water can be replaced quickly.

b)

It uses coal to generate electricity and coal is abundant.

c)

It uses oil to generate electricity and oil is renewable.

d)

It uses natural gas to generate electricity and gas is renewable.

63.

Which of the following are advantages of hydropower?

a)

It is simple and cost effective.

b)

It is reliable as long as there is water.

c)

It does not emit greenhouse gases.

d)

It requires fossil fuels to operate.

64.

Hydropower is considered environmentally friendly, but it can have (a)   impacts on wildlife and ecosystems.

65.

Why is there controversy over damming wild rivers in the Balkans?

a)

Because it affects the natural landscape and there are many different viewpoints about the projects.

b)

Because there are not enough rivers and lakes that have fishes in them in the Balkans.

c)

Because the Balkans do not use electricity.

d)

Because dams are only built in the Balkans.

66.

What is the main reason the governments of the Balkans support the construction of dams?

a)

To shift away from non-renewable coal-fired power plants

b)

To increase tourism in the region

c)

To protect endangered species

d)

To reduce water usage

67.

Which of the following are concerns raised by environmentalists about damming rivers in the Balkans?

a)

Disruption of natural water flow

b)

Flooding large areas of land

c)

Increase in tourism

d)

Threat to endangered species

68.

The tourism industry in the Balkans opposes the dams because they threaten the (a)   that support tourism.

69.

Why do many local people in the Balkans oppose the construction of dams?

a)

They fear losing access to water needed for fishing and farming

b)

They want more coal-fired power plants

c)

They support increased foreign investment

d)

They prefer urban development

70.

Which of the following best describes the main controversy surrounding the proposed hydroelectric dam projects in the Balkans?

a)

The environmental impact versus the need for renewable energy

b)

The cost of construction versus the benefits to local communities

c)

The historical significance of the rivers versus modern development

d)

The potential for tourism versus agricultural needs

71.

Which of the following is a likely impact of climate change?

a)

Rising sea levels

b)

Decreased rainfall everywhere

c)

Slower plant growth globally

d)

Permanent winter in all regions

72.

Which of the following gases is NOT considered a greenhouse gas?

a)

Methane (CH4)

b)

Ozone (O3)

c)

Oxygen (O2)

d)

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

73.

Fill in the blank: The main consequence of the enhanced greenhouse effect is known as (a)   change.

74.

Which of the following are methods climate scientists use to examine long term patterns and trends in Earth's climate?

a)

Looking at tree rings

b)

Studying ice cores

c)

Observing daily weather changes

d)

Analyzing ocean tides

75.

Which of the following are effects of climate change mentioned in the slides?

a)

Melting ice caps

b)

Increased biodiversity

c)

rising sea levels

d)

Stable weather patterns

76.

What was the main goal agreed upon by 195 countries at the Paris climate conference in 2015?

a)

To keep global temperature rise under 2°C

b)

To eliminate all greenhouse gases by 2020

c)

To stop all fossil fuel use immediately

d)

To reduce sea levels by 1 meter

77-80.

Answer the questions below after watching the video

77.

What is the projected temperature increase if greenhouse gas emissions were halted immediately?

a)

0.5 degrees Celsius

b)

1 degree Celsius

c)

1.5 degrees Celsius

d)

2 degrees Celsius

78.

Which of the following is a predicted consequence of a single degree Celsius temperature increase?

a)

The American Midwest will become a desert.

b)

All mountain glaciers will disappear.

c)

Freshwater from a third of the planet could be eliminated.

d)

Sea levels will rise by 6 meters.

79.

How does the melting of ice contribute to a self-reinforcing process of global warming?

a)

Melting ice releases trapped greenhouse gases, increasing atmospheric temperatures.

b)

Oceans absorb more heat as ice melts, leading to further temperature increases.

c)

The increased volume of meltwater causes sea levels to rise, which in turn melts more ice.

d)

The absence of ice causes more sunlight to be reflected back into space, cooling the planet.

80.

What is the remaining carbon emission budget to avoid a 2-degree Celsius global temperature rise, given that 1.9 trillion tonnes have already been used?

a)

0.5 trillion tonnes

b)

1 trillion tonnes

c)

1.9 trillion tonnes

d)

2.9 trillion tonnes

81.

Why can even small increases in global temperature (such as 1-4°C) have massive impacts on the planet?

a)

Small temperature changes can disrupt ecosystems and cause extreme weather events.

b)

Small temperature changes are not significant enough to cause any impact because it is an increase by 2 or 3 degrees.

c)

Only large temperature changes affect the planet because of the massive heat difference.

d)

Temperature changes only affect polar regions, as the presence of ice makes it prone to melting.

82.

Which of the following actions can help reduce the amount of greenhouse gases being emitted into the atmosphere?

a)

Reducing the demand for products that increase emissions

b)

Switching to cleaner alternatives

c)

Increasing the use of fossil fuels

d)

Burning more fossil fuels for food production

83.

Climate change is closely linked to the enhanced (a)   effect.

84.

Why is it important to understand the environmental and social impacts of water diversion and depletion?

a)

Because it helps us protect freshwater ecosystems.

b)

Because it is required for passing exams and assessments.

c)

Because it only affects people living near rivers and other aquatic biomes.

d)

Because it is a recent phenomenon with little historical impact.

85.

Which of the following is NOT a use of water mentioned in the lesson?

a)

To drink and bathe in

b)

To grow food

c)

To make and manufacture products

d)

To use as fuel for machines

86.

Select all the reasons why irrigation is important for agriculture.

a)

Helps crops grow

b)

Reduces reliance on rainfall

c)

Increases soil erosion

d)

Supports entire communities and economies

87.

Groundwater is water that occurs (a)   Earth's surface.

88.

Which of the following is NOT a negative impact of lake, wetland, or river depletion?

a)

Increased soil erosion

b)

Reduced tourism

c)

Increased biodiversity

d)

Exposed land too saline for agriculture

89.

Which of the following are negative effects of building dams and altering the natural water flow of rivers on wildlife?

a)

Blocking migratory routes of fish

b)

Changing water temperature and flow

c)

Increasing plant and animal populations

d)

Accumulating effects on the ecosystem

90-93.

Answer the questions below after watching the video

90.

Where is the Belo Monte hydroelectric dam located?

a)

Amazon River

b)

Tapajos River

c)

Xingu River

d)

Parana River

91.

What has been a significant consequence for local communities due to the Belo Monte hydroelectric dam project?

a)

Increased economic opportunities

b)

Improved access to clean water

c)

Decimation of traditional fishing and loss of land/livelihoods

d)

Enhanced biodiversity in the region

92.

How many dams does Brazil's government reportedly plan to build across the Amazon?

a)

At least 10

b)

At least 25

c)

At least 50

d)

At least 100

93.

What is the stance of the Munduruku indigenous people regarding the proposed dam on the Tapajos River?

a)

They welcome the development for economic growth.

b)

They are neutral, awaiting more information.

c)

They will resist any attempt to build the dam.

d)

They have already relocated to a new area.

94.

Our freshwater ecosystems are threatened by dams, diversion and (a)   .

95.

Why is biodiversity important for the health of our planet?

a)

It provides food and medicine, maintains ecosystem balance, and supports life.

b)

It only makes the planet look beautiful, as there are different colours of plants and different species of animals.

c)

It slows down technological progress because there are more outdoor places to explore.

d)

It increases pollution because there are lots of organisms that release lots waste.

96.

Which of the following best describes biodiversity?

a)

The number of animals in a zoo at any given location

b)

The variety of living organisms within ecosystems

c)

The amount of water in lakes and rivers that can hold aquatic organisms

d)

The number of trees in a forest that determines what type of forest it is.

97-100.

Answer the questions below after watching the video

97.

What is the primary function of lianas in a rainforest ecosystem?

a)

They provide food for large herbivores.

b)

They help trees grow by crawling up to the canopy and supporting them.

c)

They decompose organic matter to enrich the soil.

d)

They disperse seeds throughout the forest.

98.

What is a consequence for species that have low genetic diversity?

a)

They become more resilient to environmental changes.

b)

They are better able to adapt to new food sources.

c)

They are more vulnerable to fluctuations like climate change or disease.

d)

They tend to have larger population numbers.

99.

Which three intertwined features form the basis of biodiversity?

a)

Ecosystem, species, and genetic diversity

b)

Habitat, population, and community diversity

c)

Climate, geographical, and biological diversity

d)

Structural, functional, and compositional diversity

100.

What defines a keystone organism in an ecosystem?

a)

It is the largest and most dominant species in its habitat.

b)

It is a species that is not dependent on any other organisms.

c)

It is a species that many other organisms rely on for their survival.

d)

It is a species that can survive in a wide range of environments.

101.

Which of the following are likely consequences of high biodiversity in an ecosystem?

a)

Greater stability and resilience to change

b)

More pollution

c)

Fewer species interactions

d)

Lower chances of survival for organisms

102.

What are two major human activities that contribute to the decline in biodiversity?

a)

Deforestation and pollution

b)

Planting trees and recycling

c)

Building parks and reserves

d)

Using renewable energy

103.

Which of the following best explains how the removal and reintroduction of wolves affected the Yellowstone ecosystem?

a)

The removal of wolves led to an increase in deer, which caused ecosystem imbalance, but reintroducing wolves reduced deer numbers, allowing plants and other animals to thrive again.

b)

The removal of wolves had no effect on the ecosystem, but reintroducing them caused problems for other species.

c)

The removal of wolves increased biodiversity, while reintroducing them decreased it.

d)

The removal and reintroduction of wolves only affected the rivers, not the rest of the ecosystem.

104.

Soil fertility, pollination, and purification of air and water are examples of services provided by (a)   .

105.

What are some consequences of biodiversity decline caused by human actions?

a)

Loss of ecosystem services

b)

Increase in species diversity

c)

Improved air quality

d)

Expansion of natural habitats