wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Infection & Disease I

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

in microbial relationships,

symbiosis means

a)

living together

b)

both benefit

c)

one benefits, other unaffected

d)

1 + 1 = 3

e)

one benefits, other is harmed

2.

in microbial relationships, a subcategory of symbiosis

" MUTUALISM" means

a)

living together

b)

both benefit

c)

one benefits, other unaffected

d)

1 + 1 = 3

e)

one benefits, other is harmed

3.

in microbial relationships, a subcategory of symbiosis

"COMMENSALISM" means

a)

living together

b)

both benefit

c)

one benefits, other unaffected

d)

1 + 1 = 3

e)

one benefits, other is harmed

4.

in microbial relationships, a subcategory of symbiosis

"SYNERGISM" means

a)

living together

b)

both benefit

c)

one benefits, other unaffected

d)

1 + 1 = 3

e)

one benefits, other is harmed

5.

in microbial relationships, a subcategory of symbiosis

"PARASITISM" means

a)

living together

b)

both benefit

c)

one benefits, other unaffected

d)

1 + 1 = 3

e)

one benefits, other is harmed

6.

all microbes that live normally live on or in the healthy body without causing disease

a)
Normal flora or microbiota
b)
Harmful microorganisms
c)
Infectious agents
d)
Pathogenic bacteria
7.

If human body has about 30 trillion human cells, how many microbials cells does a healthy human has?

a)
Roughly 25 trillion microbial cells.
b)
Approximately 40 trillion microbial cells.
c)
About 10 trillion microbial cells.
d)
Nearly 50 trillion microbial cells.
8.

where should you find NORMAL FLORA in human body?

a)
Brain, muscles, bones, and joints.
b)
Nails, hair, eyes, and teeth.
c)
Blood, liver, kidneys, and heart.
d)

Skin, mouth, nose, genital, GI and respiratory tract.

9.

where should you NOT find NORMAL FLORA in human body?

a)
Skin and mucous membranes
b)

Stomach

c)
Nasal passages and oral cavity
d)

Blood, internal organs, bladder

e)

CNS & fetus

10.

A fetus is free of microbes

a)

True

b)

False

11.

one of the beneficial effects of normal flora is

a)
enhancement of nutrient absorption
b)
production of harmful toxins
c)
prevention of pathogen colonization
d)
stimulation of immune response
12.

Normal Flora Benefits:

_____ in large intestine produces Vitamin K for clotting

a)

Staph

b)

Lactobacilli

c)

E. coli

d)

Enterobacter

13.

Normal Flora Benefits include INTESTINAL Bacteria aid in breakdown of

a)

Fibers

b)
Minerals and vitamins
c)
Artificial additives and preservatives
d)
Simple sugars and proteins
14.

Normal Flora Benefits include _______ Bacteria altering our genes expression

a)
Pathogenic Flora
b)

Blood

c)

Intestinal

d)

Epithelial

15.

the destruction or translocation of normal flora results in infections such as

a)

strep throat and sinusitis.

b)

UTI, diarrhea/colitis, and yeast infections.

c)

viral pneumonia and bronchitis.

d)

tuberculosis and meningitis.

e)

toxic shock and Staph infection (wounds)

16.

invasion of the body by a pathogenic organism

a)
disease
b)
infestation
c)
infection
d)
contamination
17.

any change from a state of good health

a)
disease
b)
infestation
c)
infection
d)
contamination
18.

infection is

a)

"to mix with"

b)

"living apart"

c)

"suffering"

d)

"full of poison"

19.

disease is

a)

"to mix with"

b)

"living apart"

c)

"full of poison"

d)

"suffering"

20.

pathogenicity is

a)

"to mix with"

b)

"living apart"

c)

"full of poison"

d)

"suffering"

21.

virulence is

a)

"to mix with"

b)

"living apart"

c)

"full of poison"

d)

"suffering"

22.

ability of a parasitic microbe to infect and bring about a disease

include the SEVERITY of the disease

a)
Virulence
b)
Pathogenicity
c)
Infectivity
d)
Contagiousness
23.

the degree of pathogenicity

a)
Virulence
b)
Pathogenicity
c)
Infectivity
d)
Contagiousness
e)

Avirulent

24.

meaning does not cause disease

a)
Virulence
b)
Pathogenicity
c)
Infectivity
d)
Contagiousness
e)

Avirulent

25.

how long incubation period lasts?

a)

10 days

b)

3 weeks

c)

1-20 days

d)

1-30 days

26.

which has shortest incubation period?

a)

Salmonellosis

b)

Influenza

c)

Cholera

d)

Genital Herpes

e)

SARS CoV 2

27.

in the infectious disease process

this is the time from INITIAL contact with pathogen to appearance of many symptoms

affected by many factors

a)
incubation period
b)

prodromal period

c)

acme period

d)

decline period

e)

convalescent period

28.

in the infectious disease process

you feel unwell

body started to fight

general symptoms present: headache, malaise. back hurts

a)
incubation period
b)

prodromal period

c)

acme period

d)

decline period

e)

convalescent period

29.

in the infectious disease process

acute illness stage

characteristic symptoms

fevers and chills

most transmissable period

a)
incubation period
b)

prodromal period

c)

acme period

d)

decline period

e)

convalescent period

30.

in the infectious disease process

symptoms such as pox in chicken pox or jaundice in hepatitis is present

a)
incubation period
b)

prodromal period

c)

acme period

d)

decline period

e)

convalescent period

31.

in the infectious disease process

this is the third stage

a)
incubation period
b)

prodromal period

c)

acme period

d)

decline period

e)

convalescent period

32.

in the infectious disease process

symptoms decrease

sweating

a)
incubation period
b)

prodromal period

c)

acme period

d)

decline period

e)

convalescent period

33.

in the infectious disease process

recovery period but still weak

susceptible to re-infection or secondary infection

a)
incubation period
b)

prodromal period

c)

acme period

d)

decline period

e)

convalescent period

34.

direct transmission means:

a)

close or personal contact with infected person

b)

can involve direct physical contact, inhalation, and droplet

c)

infectious agent pasess from infected house to intermediate object

d)

"vehicle transmission"

e)

involves either fomites or vectors

35.

indirect transmission means:

a)

close or personal contact with infected person

b)

can involve direct physical contact, inhalation, and droplet

c)

infectious agent pasess from infected house to intermediate object

d)

"vehicle transmission"

e)

involves either fomites or vectors

36.

what type of direct transmission is

hand to hand, mouth, nose, or eyes, kissing, sexual intercourse

a)

direct physical contact

b)

inhalation of respiratory secretions

c)

droplet transmission

37.

what type of direct transmission involves inspiration of tiny aerosol droplets during talking, sneezing, coughing

a)

direct physical contact

b)

inhalation of respiratory secretions

c)

droplet transmission

38.

what type of direct transmission involves travelling of liquid drops?

it is affected by size of particles, method propulsions, and ventilation.

a)

direct physical contact

b)

inhalation of respiratory secretions

c)

droplet transmission

39.

a sneeze can propel

a)

7 to 8 meters

b)

"turbulent gas cloud"

c)

1 to 2 meters

d)

beyond 2 meters

e)

"larger droplets"

40.

compared to sneeze, another droplet transmission involves ____ and can travel upto

a)

7 to 8 meters

b)

"turbulent gas cloud"

c)

1 to 2 meters

d)

beyond 2 meters

e)

"larger droplets"

41.

it remains unclear if SARS CoV2 can travel _____

a)

7 to 8 meters

b)

"turbulent gas cloud"

c)

1 to 2 meters

d)

beyond 2 meters

e)

"larger droplets"

42.

mode of direct transmission from

mother to child via placenta or birth canal

a)

animal bite

b)

congenital transfer

c)

fomite

d)

vector

43.

which infection can a mother pass through placenta barrier?

a)

HIV

b)

herpes

c)

tuberculosis

d)

rubella

44.

which infection can a mother pass to a NEW BORN through birth canal?

a)

HIV

b)

herpes

c)

tuberculosis

d)

rubella

45.

mode of direct transmission from

animal to human

e.g. rabies

a)

animal bite

b)

congenital transfer

c)

fomite

d)

vector

46.

vehicle of indirect transmission:

inanimate objects that carry pathogens

a)

animal bite

b)

congenital transfer

c)

fomite

d)

vector

47.

vehicle of indirect transmission:

includes waterborne, foodborne, and small airborne particles

evaporated particles of mucus or dust

a)

animal bite

b)

congenital transfer

c)

fomite

d)

vector

48.

vehicle of indirect transmission:

live organisms usually are arthropods

a)

animal bite

b)

congenital transfer

c)

fomite

d)

vector

49.

vehicle of indirect transmission:

examples are mosquitoes and ticks

a)

animal bite

b)

congenital transfer

c)

fomite

d)

vector

50.

any place where pathogen can include living or nonliving

a)

reservoir of infection

b)

living reservoirs

c)

nonliving reservoirs

51.

involves humans and animals

a)

reservoir of infection

b)

living reservoirs

c)

nonliving reservoirs

52.

involves soil, water. food, fomites

a)

reservoir of infection

b)

living reservoirs

c)

nonliving reservoirs

53.

Other HUMANS are the most important reservoir for human infections because they:

a)
are resistant to environmental changes.
b)

are carriers and have the disease but asymptomatic

c)
are primarily found in animals.
d)
are difficult to identify in populations.
54.

what is the branch of science that deals with disease frequency and distribution in a population

(a)  

55.

what are the importance of the measurement of health & disease:

a)

For resource allocation, and evaluating health interventions.

b)
Health measurements are only useful for individual diagnosis.
c)
Disease measurement is irrelevant to healthcare policies.
d)
Public health does not rely on health and disease metrics.
e)

Identification of new disease and impact

56.

what steps ensure the determination of disease frequency is accurate

a)
Vague population criteria, inconsistent data sources, and random case definitions.
b)
Ambiguous statistical methods, unverified data sources, and unclear population definitions.
c)
Inconsistent case definitions, unreliable data sources, and lack of statistical analysis.
d)

Accurate population definition, reliable data sources, consistent case definitions, and systematic approach.

57.

death rate

a)

Mortality

b)

Prevalence

c)

Incidence

58.

number of NEW cases of a disease in a given area or population during a given period time

a)

Mortality

b)

Prevalence

c)

Incidence

59.

total number of cases

in a given areas or population during a given period of time

a)

Mortality

b)

Prevalence

c)

Incidence

60.

formula for INCIDENCE RATE

a)

÷

b)

number of new cases

c)

number of old cases

d)

number of people at risk

e)

number of new cases & number of old cases

61.

formula for PREVALENCE RATE

a)

÷

b)

number of new cases

c)

number of old cases

d)

number of people at risk

e)

number of new cases & number of old cases

62.

which statistical rate is always higher?

a)

incidence rate

b)

prevalence rate

c)

mortality rate

d)
Divorce rate
63.

which rates are not always true?

a)

incidence rate

b)

prevalence rate

c)

mortality rate

d)

divorce rate

Similar Resources on Wayground

Page 1

60 questions

Page 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Fluids & Electrolytes — NCLEX Practice (30 Questions)

60 questions

Fluids & Electrolytes — NCLEX Practice (30 Questions)

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Jenis Tes Genetik

58 questions

Jenis Tes Genetik

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development