wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Acute Coronary Syndromes Ch 30

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the contents, which class of drugs is specifically mentioned for secondary prevention after ACS?

a)

Drugs for Secondary Prevention After ACS

b)

Antiviral Drugs

c)

Beta Blockers Only

d)

Diuretics

2.

Based on the table of contents, what is the primary focus of Chapter 30?

a)

Acute Coronary Syndromes

b)

Chronic Kidney Disease

c)

Diabetes Mellitus

d)

Hypertension

3.

If a student wanted to learn about the differences between UA, NSTEMI, and STEMI, which section should they refer to?

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Background

c)

Key Counseling Points

d)

Other Considerations

4.

Which of the following is a type of antiplatelet drug mentioned in the contents?

a)

P2Y12 Inhibitors

b)

ACE Inhibitors

c)

Statins

d)

Calcium Channel Blockers

5.

Suppose a patient is being treated for ACS and the physician is considering a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist. Which section of the chapter would provide more information about this drug class?

a)

Antiplatelet Drugs

b)

Fibrinolytics

c)

Diagnosis

d)

Key Counseling Points

6.

A student is preparing a presentation on the key counseling points for patients after ACS. Which page should they refer to according to the contents?

a)

Page 505

b)

Page 497

c)

Page 498

d)

Page 500

7.

Which of the following best describes the main cause of acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?

a)

Plaque buildup (atherosclerosis) in the coronary arteries

b)

Viral infection of the heart muscle

c)

High levels of potassium in the blood

d)

Congenital heart defects

8.

Which symptom is most commonly associated with acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?

a)

Chest pain lasting more than 10 minutes

b)

Sudden loss of vision

c)

Persistent cough

d)

Severe abdominal cramps

9.

Which of the following is NOT a modifiable risk factor for ACS?

a)

Age

b)

Smoking

c)

Lack of exercise

d)

Excessive alcohol

10.

What should a patient do if chest pain is not improved or worsens five minutes after the first dose of sublingual nitroglycerin?

a)

Call 911

b)

Take another medication

c)

Wait for 30 minutes

d)

Drink a glass of water

11.

Which diagnostic test should be performed and evaluated within ten minutes at the site of first medical contact for suspected ACS?

a)

12-lead ECG

b)

Chest X-ray

c)

Echocardiogram

d)

MRI scan

12.

Which cardiac biomarkers are considered the most sensitive and specific for diagnosing ACS?

a)

Cardiac troponins I and T (TnI and TnT)

b)

Creatine kinase myocardial isoenzyme (CK-MB)

c)

Myoglobin

d)

C-reactive protein

13.

A 60-year-old male with a history of hypertension and smoking presents with chest pain radiating to his jaw. Which risk factors for ACS does he have?

a)

Age, hypertension, smoking

b)

Female gender, diabetes, lack of exercise

c)

Young age, no family history, healthy lifestyle

d)

Only excessive alcohol use

14.

Why is it important to obtain cardiac biomarker levels at presentation and again 3–6 hours after symptom onset in patients with ACS symptoms?

a)

To detect changes in cardiac enzyme levels that confirm diagnosis

b)

To monitor blood sugar levels

c)

To check for kidney function

d)

To assess lung capacity

15.

Which of the following best explains why ACS is considered a medical emergency?

a)

It can lead to sudden, reduced blood flow (ischemia) and cardiac muscle cell death

b)

It always causes a fever

c)

It is easily treated with over-the-counter medication

d)

It only affects young adults

16.

A patient with suspected STEMI should be transported to which facility if possible?

a)

A hospital with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) capability

b)

A local pharmacy

c)

A general practitioner’s office

d)

A rehabilitation center

17.

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of STEMI compared to UA and NSTEMI?

a)

ST segment elevation

b)

Partial blockage

c)

Negative cardiac enzymes

d)

None or transient ischemic ECG changes

18.

What is the primary goal of treatment for acute coronary syndromes?

a)

Immediate relief of ischemia and prevention of MI expansion and death

b)

Lowering blood pressure only

c)

Increasing cholesterol levels

d)

Reducing fever

19.

Which drug class works by inhibiting platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation/growth?

a)

Antiplatelets

b)

Anticoagulants

c)

Antianginals

d)

Beta-blockers

20.

A patient with STEMI should have blocked arteries opened as quickly as possible with which of the following treatments?

a)

PCI or fibrinolysis

b)

Antibiotics

c)

NSAIDs

d)

Immediate-release nifedipine

21.

If PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes of first medical contact, what therapy is recommended for STEMI patients?

a)

Fibrinolytic therapy

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Beta-blockers only

d)

Immediate-release nifedipine

22.

Which of the following medications should be avoided in the acute setting of ACS due to increased risk of mortality?

a)

NSAIDs (except aspirin)

b)

Aspirin

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrates

23.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action for antianginal drugs?

a)

Decrease myocardial oxygen demand

b)

Increase blood flow to relieve ischemia

c)

Inhibit clotting factors

d)

Prevent platelet aggregation

24.

What is the role of a stent in PCI?

a)

To keep the artery open after widening it

b)

To dissolve blood clots

c)

To measure blood pressure

d)

To deliver medication directly to the heart muscle

25.

Which of the following is a reason immediate-release nifedipine should not be used in the acute setting of ACS?

a)

It increases the risk of mortality

b)

It lowers cholesterol too quickly

c)

It causes excessive sedation

d)

It increases platelet aggregation

26.

Which drug provides pain relief and helps anxiety in patients with acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?

a)

Morphine sulfate

b)

Aspirin

c)

Oxygen

d)

Beta-Blockers

27.

What is the primary clinical benefit of nitrates in the management of ACS?

a)

Dilate coronary arteries and improve collateral blood flow

b)

Reduce heart rate and contractility

c)

Inhibit clotting factors

d)

Block angiotensin II production

28.

Which of the following drugs should be administered if arterial oxygen saturation is less than 90% or if respiratory distress is present?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Beta-Blockers

d)

ACE Inhibitors

29.

Which antiplatelet drugs are mentioned as P2Y12 inhibitors for ACS management?

a)

Clopidogrel, prasugrel, and ticagrelor

b)

Aspirin, enoxaparin, and bivalirudin

c)

Morphine, oxygen, and nitrates

d)

Eptifibatide, tirofiban, and dalteparin

30.

According to the guidelines, when should an oral, low-dose beta-blocker be started in ACS patients (if not contraindicated)?

a)

Within the first 24 hours

b)

After 48 hours

c)

Only after discharge

d)

Only if pain persists

31.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of ACE inhibitors in ACS patients?

a)

ACE inhibitor intolerance

b)

Low blood pressure

c)

History of aspirin allergy

d)

Oxygen saturation above 95%

32.

Which anticoagulant is preferred for STEMI patients according to the document?

a)

Bivalirudin

b)

Aspirin

c)

Morphine sulfate

d)

Clopidogrel

33.

Which of the following is a long-term benefit of beta-blockers in ACS patients?

a)

Improved long-term survival

b)

Increased oxygen saturation

c)

Reduced anxiety

d)

Enhanced platelet inhibition

34.

Which enzyme does aspirin irreversibly inhibit to decrease the production of thromboxane A2?

a)

COX-1 and COX-2

b)

ADP receptors

c)

PAR-1 receptor

d)

GPIIb/IIIa receptor

35.

What is the primary action of P2Y12 inhibitors on platelets?

a)

Bind to the platelet adenosine diphosphate (ADP) P2Y12 receptors

b)

Inhibit cyclooxygenase

c)

Block the PAR-1 receptor

d)

Increase thromboxane A2 production

36.

Which receptor do GPIIb/IIIa antagonists block to prevent platelet aggregation?

a)

GPIIb/IIIa receptor

b)

ADP receptor

c)

PAR-1 receptor

d)

Cyclooxygenase receptor

37.

What is the role of dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) in acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?

a)

It combines aspirin with a P2Y12 inhibitor to prevent platelet aggregation.

b)

It uses only aspirin to prevent clot formation.

c)

It combines aspirin with a GPIIb/IIIa antagonist for long-term therapy.

d)

It uses only P2Y12 inhibitors for maintenance therapy.

38.

Clopidogrel is classified as which type of drug?

a)

Prodrug

b)

Active metabolite

c)

Cyclooxygenase inhibitor

d)

Thrombin receptor antagonist

39.

Which enzyme is primarily responsible for converting clopidogrel to its active metabolite?

a)

CYP2C19

b)

COX-1

c)

GPIIb/IIIa

d)

PAR-1

40.

What is a major contraindication for clopidogrel therapy?

a)

Serious bleeding (e.g., GI, intracranial hemorrhage)

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Hyperlipidemia

41.

Which medication should NOT be used with clopidogrel due to drug interactions?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Aspirin

c)

Atorvastatin

d)

Metoprolol

42.

What is the recommended maintenance dose of clopidogrel for most patients?

a)

75 mg PO daily

b)

300 mg PO daily

c)

600 mg PO daily

d)

150 mg PO daily

43.

Which of the following drugs is only indicated for ACS managed with PCI and should be dispensed in its original container to protect from moisture?

a)

Prasugrel (Effient)

b)

Ticagrelor (Brilinta)

c)

Cangrelor (Kengreal)

d)

Clopidogrel

44.

What is the recommended maintenance dose (MD) of Ticagrelor (Brilinta) after the initial loading dose for the first year following PCI?

a)

10 mg PO daily

b)

90 mg PO BID

c)

60 mg PO BID

d)

5 mg PO daily

45.

Which of the following is a boxed warning for both Prasugrel and Ticagrelor?

a)

Risk of severe hepatic impairment

b)

Significant, sometimes fatal, bleeding

c)

Dyspnea (>10%)

d)

Bradyarrhythmias

46.

A 78-year-old patient with a history of diabetes is being considered for Prasugrel therapy after PCI. Based on the safety information, what is the most appropriate action?

a)

Start Prasugrel immediately

b)

Avoid Prasugrel due to high bleeding risk

c)

Use a higher dose of Prasugrel

d)

Switch to Cangrelor

47.

Which drug is administered as an IV bolus prior to PCI and continued as an infusion for the duration of the procedure?

a)

Prasugrel (Effient)

b)

Ticagrelor (Brilinta)

c)

Cangrelor (Kengreal)

d)

Clopidogrel

48.

Why should Ticagrelor not be given with maintenance doses of aspirin greater than 100 mg daily?

a)

It increases the risk of bradyarrhythmias

b)

It reduces the effectiveness of Ticagrelor

c)

It causes severe hepatic impairment

d)

It increases the risk of uric acid elevation

49.

A patient is scheduled for elective surgery and is currently taking Prasugrel. How many days before the surgery should Prasugrel be stopped?

a)

2 days

b)

3 days

c)

5 days

d)

7 days

50.

Which of the following is a contraindication for all three drugs listed (Prasugrel, Ticagrelor, Cangrelor)?

a)

Severe hepatic impairment

b)

Active serious bleeding

c)

History of TIA

d)

Dyspnea

51.

After discontinuation of Cangrelor, how long does it take for its effects to be gone?

a)

30 minutes

b)

1 hour

c)

6 hours

d)

24 hours

52.

Which side effect is more likely to occur with Ticagrelor compared to Prasugrel?

a)

TTP

b)

Dyspnea (>10%)

c)

Severe hepatic impairment

d)

Bradyarrhythmias

53.

Which of the following drugs should be avoided in combination with clopidogrel due to the risk of decreased antiplatelet effect?

a)

CYP2C19 inhibitors esomeprazole and omeprazole

b)

NSAIDs and warfarin

c)

Simvastatin and lovastatin

d)

Digoxin

54.

What is the main risk when P2Y12 inhibitors are used with NSAIDs, warfarin, SSRIs, or SNRIs?

a)

Increased bleeding risk

b)

Decreased drug absorption

c)

Increased blood pressure

d)

Decreased heart rate

55.

Which statement best describes the mechanism of action of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists like eptifibatide and tirofiban?

a)

They reversibly block the GPIIb/IIIa receptor to prevent platelet aggregation.

b)

They inhibit CYP3A4 enzymes to reduce drug interactions.

c)

They increase platelet production in the bone marrow.

d)

They act as anticoagulants by inhibiting thrombin.

56.

A patient on ticagrelor should avoid which of the following due to the risk of increased drug levels?

a)

Strong CYP3A4 inhibitors or inducers

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Digoxin

d)

Eptifibatide

57.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of eptifibatide?

a)

Thrombocytopenia (platelets < 100,000 cells/mm³)

b)

Mild hypertension

c)

History of seasonal allergies

d)

Controlled diabetes

58.

A patient is being considered for eptifibatide therapy. Which monitoring parameter is most important to assess during treatment?

a)

Hemoglobin, hematocrit, platelets, signs/symptoms of bleeding, and renal function

b)

Blood glucose and potassium levels

c)

Liver function tests only

d)

Serum calcium and magnesium

59.

If a patient with a history of hemorrhagic stroke within the past 30 days is prescribed eptifibatide, what is the most appropriate action?

a)

Do not administer eptifibatide due to contraindication.

b)

Reduce the dose of eptifibatide.

c)

Monitor the patient more frequently.

d)

Substitute with a higher dose of tirofiban.

60.

Why should clopidogrel and repaglinide not be used together?

a)

Clopidogrel increases the effects of repaglinide, which can cause hypoglycemia.

b)

Repaglinide increases the risk of bleeding with clopidogrel.

c)

Both drugs are metabolized by CYP3A4, leading to toxicity.

d)

They both cause hypertension.

61.

A patient with ACS is on a P2Y12 inhibitor and develops significant bleeding. What is the best course of action regarding the P2Y12 inhibitor?

a)

Manage the bleeding without discontinuing the P2Y12 inhibitor if possible.

b)

Immediately stop the P2Y12 inhibitor permanently.

c)

Switch to a CYP3A4 inhibitor.

d)

Double the dose of the P2Y12 inhibitor.

62.

A patient is receiving tirofiban and has a creatinine clearance (CrCl) of 50 mL/min. How should the maintenance dose be adjusted?

a)

Reduce the maintenance dose to 0.075 mcg/kg/min.

b)

Increase the maintenance dose to 0.3 mcg/kg/min.

c)

No adjustment is needed.

d)

Double the loading dose.

63.

Which of the following is a primary indication for the use of Vorapaxar?

a)

To reduce thrombotic cardiovascular events in patients with a history of MI or PAD

b)

To treat acute heart failure

c)

To manage hypertension

d)

To control arrhythmias

64.

What is the recommended daily oral dose of Vorapaxar (Zontivity)?

a)

2.08 mg (one tablet)

b)

10 mg (two tablets)

c)

5 mg (one tablet)

d)

0.5 mg (half tablet)

65.

Which of the following is a major safety concern (boxed warning) for Vorapaxar?

a)

Bleeding risk, including ICH and fatal bleeding

b)

Severe hypertension

c)

Renal failure

d)

Hyperkalemia

66.

Vorapaxar should NOT be used in patients with which of the following conditions?

a)

History of stroke, TIA, ICH, or active serious bleeding

b)

Mild hypertension

c)

Controlled diabetes

d)

Mild anemia

67.

Vorapaxar is a substrate of which enzyme, making it important to avoid strong inhibitors or inducers?

a)

CYP3A4

b)

CYP2D6

c)

CYP1A2

d)

CYP2C9

68.

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of fibrinolytic drugs?

a)

They convert plasminogen to plasmin, leading to clot breakdown

b)

They inhibit platelet aggregation

c)

They block beta-adrenergic receptors

d)

They increase cardiac contractility

69.

Fibrinolytics are used only for which type of myocardial infarction?

a)

STEMI

b)

NSTEMI

c)

Unstable angina

d)

Silent MI

70.

What is the recommended time window for administering fibrinolytic therapy to improve survival in STEMI?

a)

Within 30 minutes of hospital arrival

b)

Within 2 hours of symptom onset

c)

Within 6 hours of hospital discharge

d)

Within 48 hours of diagnosis

71.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of Alteplase (Activase)?

a)

Active internal bleeding or bleeding diathesis

b)

Mild hyperlipidemia

c)

Controlled asthma

d)

Mild dehydration

72.

A patient weighing 75 kg is to receive Tenecteplase (TNKase) for STEMI. What is the correct single IV bolus dose?

a)

40 mg

b)

30 mg

c)

35 mg

d)

50 mg

73.

Which of the following is a common side effect of fibrinolytic therapy?

a)

Bleeding (including ICH)

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypokalemia

74.

Why is it important to monitor hemoglobin (Hgb), hematocrit (Hct), and signs/symptoms of bleeding in patients receiving fibrinolytics?

a)

To detect and manage potential bleeding complications

b)

To assess liver function

c)

To monitor for arrhythmias

d)

To evaluate renal function

75.

Explain why fibrinolytic therapy is only recommended for STEMI and not for other types of myocardial infarction.

a)

Because evidence shows improved survival only in STEMI patients

b)

Because it is less expensive for STEMI

c)

Because it is easier to administer in STEMI

d)

Because it is not effective in any type of MI

76.

A patient with a recent history of intracranial hemorrhage is being considered for Alteplase therapy. What should be the clinical decision and why?

a)

Alteplase should be avoided due to high risk of bleeding

b)

Alteplase should be given at a lower dose

c)

Alteplase is safe in this patient

d)

Alteplase should be replaced with aspirin

77.

Describe the difference in dosing of Alteplase when used for ischemic stroke compared to STEMI.

a)

The dosing regimen differs and should be referenced in the stroke chapter

b)

The dosing is always the same

c)

The dose is doubled for stroke

d)

The dose is halved for stroke

78.

Which medication is typically recommended indefinitely (usually 81 mg per day) for secondary prevention after an acute coronary syndrome (ACS), unless contraindicated?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Beta-blocker

c)

Statin

d)

Nitroglycerin

79.

For how long should a P2Y12 inhibitor be used in medical management after ACS, in combination with aspirin 81 mg?

a)

At least 12 months

b)

At least 3 months

c)

At least 6 months

d)

At least 24 months

80.

Which of the following is a contraindication for aldosterone antagonist therapy in patients after ACS?

a)

Renal impairment (SCr > 2.5 mg/dL in males)

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes

d)

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction

81.

Why should COX-2 selective NSAIDs be avoided in patients with high cardiovascular risk after ACS?

a)

They increase cardiovascular risk

b)

They are ineffective for pain relief

c)

They cause hypoglycemia

d)

They interact with statins

82.

A patient with ACS and atrial fibrillation (AF) who has undergone PCI with a stent may require which of the following therapies?

a)

Triple antithrombotic therapy

b)

Only aspirin

c)

Only a beta-blocker

d)

Only a statin

83.

If a patient is at high risk of bleeding after PCI, what adjustment may be considered regarding dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT)?

a)

Transition to ticagrelor monotherapy or de-escalate DAPT after 1 month

b)

Continue DAPT indefinitely

c)

Stop all antiplatelet therapy immediately

d)

Increase the dose of aspirin

84.

Which lifestyle counseling advice is recommended for patients after ACS?

a)

Encourage physical exercise and a healthy diet

b)

Avoid all medications

c)

Increase alcohol intake

d)

Avoid managing chronic conditions

85.

Explain why proton pump inhibitors are recommended for patients with a history of GI bleeding who are taking triple antithrombotic therapy after ACS.

a)

To reduce the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding

b)

To increase the absorption of antithrombotic drugs

c)

To lower blood pressure

d)

To prevent heart failure

86.

Which medications are mentioned for patient counseling in the Stable Angina chapter?

a)

Aspirin, nitrates, and clopidogrel

b)

Beta-blockers, statins, and insulin

c)

Warfarin, digoxin, and amlodipine

d)

Metformin, lisinopril, and furosemide

87.

According to the 2017 ESC Guidelines, which condition is managed in patients presenting with ST-segment elevation?

a)

Acute Myocardial Infarction

b)

Stable Angina

c)

Heart Failure

d)

Atrial Fibrillation

88.

Which guideline provides a focused update on the duration of dual antiplatelet therapy in patients with coronary artery disease?

a)

2016 ACC/AHA Guideline

b)

2017 ESC Guidelines

c)

2014 AHA/ACC Guideline

d)

2013 ACCF/AHA Guideline

89.

If a patient presents with Non-ST-Elevation Acute Coronary Syndromes, which guideline should be referenced for management?

a)

2014 AHA/ACC Guideline

b)

2017 ESC Guidelines

c)

2016 ACC/AHA Guideline

d)

2013 ACCF/AHA Guideline

90.

A physician is planning the management of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction. Which guideline should they consult?

a)

2013 ACCF/AHA Guideline

b)

2017 ESC Guidelines

c)

2016 ACC/AHA Guideline

d)

2014 AHA/ACC Guideline

91.

Explain why dual antiplatelet therapy duration is important in patients with coronary artery disease, referencing the appropriate guideline.

a)

It reduces the risk of recurrent cardiovascular events, as highlighted in the 2016 ACC/AHA Guideline.

b)

It increases blood pressure, as highlighted in the 2017 ESC Guidelines.

c)

It prevents diabetes, as highlighted in the 2014 AHA/ACC Guideline.

d)

It treats arrhythmias, as highlighted in the 2013 ACCF/AHA Guideline.