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VIROLOGY-DNA-QUIZ

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following DNA viruses is generally classified as single-stranded (SS-DNA)?

a)

Herpesvirus

b)

Adenovirus

c)

Poxvirus

d)

Parvovirus

2.

All of the currently recognized hepatitis viruses are generally classified as RNA-containing viruses, with the sole exception being:

a)

Hepatitis A Virus (HAV)

b)

Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)

c)

Hepadnavirus (HBV)

d)

Hepatitis D Virus (HDV)

3.

The whole viral particle of Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) is referred to as the:

a)

HbeAg

b)

Dane Particle

c)

HBsAg

d)

HBcAg

4.

Which component of the complex HBV particle is the outer lipid component?

a)

HBcAg

b)

HbeAg

c)

HBsAg

d)

Anti-HBs

5.

Which of the following body fluids is NOT listed as a source from which HBV can be isolated, contradicting the outdated term "SERUM HEPATITIS"?

a)

Semen

b)

CSF

c)

Saliva

d)

Bone Marrow

6.

Which of the following is considered a high-risk group for acquiring HBV infection?

a)

Individuals with occasional blood transfusions

b)

Non-immunized health workers

c)

Patients undergoing routine physical exams

d)

People who work from home

7.

Passive immunization against HBV is achieved through the administration of:

a)

A. A single IM dose of HBsAg

b)

B. Three IM doses of HBV vaccine

c)

C. Oral administration of Anti-HBs

d)

D. Intravenous immunoglobulin

8.

The average incubation period for Hepatitis B Virus infection is:

a)

6 weeks

b)

10-20 days

c)

50-180 days

d)

4-6 weeks

9.

Which HBV marker is the first to appear and is a marker of acute infection?

a)

Anti-HBs

b)

HBsAg

c)

Anti-HBcAg (IgM)

d)

HbeAg

10.

An individual who has recovered from a past HBV infection or has immunity after immunization would show the presence of which marker, which persists for life?

a)

HbeAg

b)

Anti-HBcAg (IgM)

c)

HBsAg

d)

Anti-HBs

11.

The presence of which HBV marker is generally associated with a favorable outcome and is considered a marker of immunity?

a)

Anti-HBcAg

b)

HbeAg

c)

Anti-HBe

d)

HBsAg

12.

Which HBV marker's high levels may be observed during the onset of signs and symptoms and significantly drop after the incubation stages, persisting for 5-6 years?

a)

Anti-HBs

b)

HBsAg

c)

Anti-HBcAg

d)

Anti-HBe

13.

Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) is classified under which family of viruses?

a)

Picornavirus

b)

Hepadnavirus

c)

Flavivirus

d)

Herpesvirus

14.

Hepatitis D Virus (HDV) requires co-infection or superinfection with which other hepatitis virus?

a)

HAV

b)

HEV

c)

HBV

d)

HCV

15.

Herpesviruses are characterized by their ability to cause:

a)

Acute, self-limiting infections only

b)

Non-enveloped, SS-DNA infections

c)

Latent viral infection which can be reactivated

d)

Only mild childhood diseases

16.

Reactivation of latent herpesvirus infections is commonly observed among all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Individuals with underlying medical conditions

b)

Immunosuppressed patients

c)

Patients undergoing corticosteroid therapy

d)

Healthy, young adults

17.

Gingivostomatitis and ulcerative mouth lesions commonly seen above the waist are primarily associated with which Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) type?

a)

HSV-2

b)

HSV-1

c)

Varicella Zoster Virus

d)

Cytomegalovirus

18.

A link has been established between infection with which virus and cervical carcinoma?

a)

Human Herpesvirus Type 6

b)

Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)

c)

Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) 2

d)

Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)

19.

Serological tests are NOT generally recommended for the laboratory diagnosis of HSV infections because:

a)

The viruses are non-antigenic.

b)

They only detect IgM, not IgG.

c)

Uninfected individuals may possess antibodies against HSV-1 and HSV-2.

d)

Cell culture is much faster and more reliable.

20.

The appearance of the rash in Chicken Pox is often described as resembling:

a)

Dew drops on a rose petal

b)

Sandpaper

c)

Target lesions

d)

Bull's eye

21.

Reye's Syndrome, a complication associated with Varicella Zoster infection, is primarily caused by treatment with:

a)

Antivirals

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Aspirin

d)

Antibiotics

22.

Herpes Zoster (Shingles) is the reactivation of VZV that remains latent in the:

a)

Epithelial cells of the skin

b)

Dorsal root ganglia of peripheral or cranial nerves

c)

Liver parenchyma

d)

Lymphatic vessels

23.

Epstein Barr Virus (EBV) was first isolated from malignant cells of:

a)

Cervical carcinoma

b)

Burkitt's Lymphoma

c)

Kaposi's Sarcoma

d)

Hodgkin's Disease

24.

The presence of 50% lymphocytes appearing as atypical lymphocytes is a characteristic finding in the peripheral blood of a patient with:

a)

Chicken Pox

b)

Herpetic whitlow

c)

Infectious Mononucleosis

d)

Erythema infectiosum

25.

In the diagnosis of Infectious Mononucleosis, which type of antibody is detected that reacts with antigens of different species and agglutinates sheep and horse RBC?

a)

Homophile antibody

b)

Autoantibody

c)

Heterophile antibody

d)

Anti-HBs

26.

Human Herpesvirus Type 6 (HHV-6) is the agent of which benign childhood disease?

a)

Rubeola (Measles)

b)

Exanthem Subitum (Roseola)

c)

Erythema infectiosum

d)

Varicella

27.

Papovaviruses are characterized by which of the following features?

a)

Enveloped, Complex coat

b)

Double-Stranded, Non-enveloped, Icosahedral symmetry

c)

Single-Stranded, Enveloped, Helical

d)

Partially Double-Stranded, Circular

28.

Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection is primarily associated with which type of lesions?

a)

A. Aseptic meningitis

b)

B. Plantar, common, and venereal warts

c)

C. Acute hepatitis

d)

D. Latent infection in the dorsal root ganglia

29.

Parvovirus B-19 is the known cause of the human infection referred to as:

a)

6th disease

b)

Erythema infectiosum

c)

Serum hepatitis

30.

Which historical figure developed the world's first vaccine, which was derived from cowpox infection?

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

Robert Koch

c)

Edward Jenner

d)

Jonas Salk