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CC-P9

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
▪ major excretory product of the metabolism of proteins and other nitrogen-containing chemicals
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
2.
• Major end product of purine (adenine and guanine) catabolism
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
3.
• Formed from xanthine by the action of xanthine oxidase
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
4.
• Marker for detoxification
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
5.
Used to diagnose hepatic failure/hepatic coma • Neurotoxic and associated with encephalopathy • Increased: cirrhosis, hepatitis, Reye’s syndrome, acetaminophen poisoning
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
6.
• Final breakdown product of nucleic acids catabolism in humans
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
7.
Major end product of protein and amino acid catabolism
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
8.
End product of muscle metabolism derived from creatine
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
9.
Produced by 3 amino acids: methionine, arginine, and glycine
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
10.
• Not reused in the body’s metabolism (thus, solely a waste product)
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
11.
• Index of overall renal function
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
12.
Freely filtered by the glomerulus, not secreted by the renal tubules, but reabsorbed
a)
Cystatin C
b)
Beta-trace Protein
13.
ompletely reabsorbed and catabolized by the proximal convoluted tubules o (+) in urine = PCT damage • Serum level is an indirect estimate of GFR • Increased: acute and chronic renal failure, diabetic nephropathy
a)
Cystatin C
b)
Beta-trace Protein
14.
Its plasma concentration originates from the brain and is freely filtered at the glomerulus, reabsorbed completely, and catabolized by the proximal convoluted tubule • Increased: renal disease
a)
Cystatin C
b)
Beta-trace Protein
15.
– colorimetric, endpoint; non-specific; subject to positive bias due to ascorbic acid, glucose, glutathione, ketoacids, uric acid, cephalosporins
a)
Chemical (Jaffe)
b)
Kinetic
c)
use of adsorbents
16.
Creatinine + alkaline picrate = red-orange tautomer (aka Janovsky complex)
a)
Chemical (Jaffe)
b)
Kinetic
c)
use of adsorbents
17.
formed from creatine, a substance synthesized from methionine, arginine, glycine
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
18.
excreted into plasma at a constant rate proportional to an individual’s muscle mass; not affected by hydration status
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
19.
product of the catabolism of purines in nucleic acids or nucleoproteins
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
20.
▪ relatively insoluble in plasma; can be deposited in the joints and tissues at concentrations >6.8 mg/dL
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
21.
▪ produced from the catabolism of amino acids
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
22.
toxic compound metabolized exclusively in the liver (via the Krebs-Henseleit or urea cycle)
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
23.
removed from the circulation by glomerular filtration; concentration is inversely related to GFR
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
24.
▪ NPN present in highest concentration in the blood; formed in the liver from CO2 and ammonia
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
25.
▪ concentration is expressed in terms of nitrogen content (BUN): urea/2.14 Urea = BUN x 2.14
a)
Urea
b)
Creatinine
c)
Uric acid
d)
Ammonia
26.
From deamination of amino acids
a)
Biochemistry
b)
Biomimicry
c)
Biostatistics
27.
From bacterial metabolism in the lumen of the intestines
a)
Biochemistry
b)
Biomimicry
c)
Biostatistics
28.
Clinical significance of Ammonia include: a. severe liver disease - hepatic coma (NH3 is neurotoxic) and Encephalopathy b. Reye syndrome - aspirin ingestion c. Neonate urea cycle defect d. Monitor hyperalimentation therapy e. Confirm the ability of kidney to produce ammonia f. Acetaminophen poisoning
a)
True
b)
False
29.
Smoking
a)
False elevation
b)
False decrease (low)
30.
Prolonged specimen
a)
False elevation
b)
False decrease (low)
31.
Hemolyzed sample
a)
False elevation
b)
False decrease (low)
32.
Diphenhydramine
a)
False elevation
b)
False decrease (low)
33.
Lactobacillus acidophilus
a)
False elevation
b)
False decrease (low)
34.
Slows down deamination
a)
Venous blood
b)
Heparin
c)
Ice water
35.
Ammonia specimen centrifuge time
a)
15 mins
b)
20 mins
c)
25 mins
d)
30 mins
36.
Ammonia temp
a)
1 to4 c
b)
0 to 4 c
c)
37 c
37.
Removed during ammonia test processing
a)
serum
b)
plasma
38.
In ammonia testing, plasma is stable for how long in ice bath? (stable for several days when frozen)
a)
2 and 1/2 hr
b)
3 and 1/2 hr
c)
4 and 1/2 hr
39.
NH3 in Microdiffusion chamber -> NH3 gas + solution with pH indicator -> measured using titration
a)
Conway
b)
Potentiometry
c)
Spectrophotometric
d)
Berthelot reaction
e)
Glutamate dehydrogenase
40.
Direct measurement
a)
Conway
b)
Potentiometry
c)
Spectrophotometric
d)
Berthelot reaction
e)
Glutamate dehydrogenase
41.
NH3 + bromophenol blue -> blue color
a)
Conway
b)
Potentiometry
c)
Spectrophotometric
d)
Berthelot reaction
e)
Glutamate dehydrogenase
42.
Most common technique
a)
Conway
b)
Potentiometry
c)
Spectrophotometric
d)
Berthelot reaction
e)
Glutamate dehydrogenase
43.
Tumor markers are NOT useful for diagnosis, but for tumor staging, monitoring therapeutic responses, predicting patient outcomes, and detecting cancer recurrence
a)
True
b)
False
44.
Used for prostate cancer detection
a)
Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
b)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
c)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
d)
CA15-3
45.
Hepatocellular CA, testicular and ovarian teratocarcinomas, pancreatic carcinoma, gastric and colonic carcinomas
a)
Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
b)
AFP
c)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
d)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
e)
CA15-3
46.
Digestive tract and colorectal carcinoma
a)
Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
b)
AFP
c)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
d)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
e)
CA15-3
47.
Increased secretion is associated with trophoblastic tumors, choriocarcinoma, nonseminomatous testicular tumors, and ovarian tumors.
a)
Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
b)
AFP
c)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
d)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
e)
CA15-3
48.
Monitoring and detecting breast cancer
a)
Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
b)
AFP
c)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
d)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
e)
CA15-3
49.
Marker for ovarian and endometrial cancer
a)
CA125
b)
CA19-9
c)
CYFRA
d)
Her2/neu
50.
Pancreatic, colorectal, lung, and gastric carcinomas
a)
CA125
b)
CA19-9
c)
CYFRA
d)
Her2/neu
51.
Lung cancer marker
a)
CA125
b)
CA19-9
c)
CYFRA
d)
Her2/neu
52.
Breast cancer marker
a)
CA125
b)
CA19-9
c)
CYFRA
d)
Her2/neu
53.
older term
a)
Ammonia
b)
Blood urea nitrogen
c)
Creatinine
d)
Creatine
54.
major end product of protein and amino acid
a)
Ammonia
b)
Blood urea nitrogen
c)
Creatinine
d)
Creatine
55.
has nitrogen but doesn't have proteins
a)
Ammonia
b)
Blood urea nitrogen
c)
Creatinine
d)
Creatine
56.
uses end point jaffe method before and after it is heat in acid solution
a)
Ammonia
b)
Blood urea nitrogen
c)
Creatinine
d)
Creatine
57.
clinical significance include muscular dystrophy, poliomyelitis, hyperthyroidism, trauma, and remember!!! it is NOT ELEVATED IN RENAL DISEASE
a)
Ammonia
b)
Blood urea nitrogen
c)
Creatinine
d)
Creatine
58.
Chronic renal disease
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
59.
Burns
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
60.
Dehydration
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
61.
Poor nutrition
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
62.
Celiac disease
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
63.
Repeated dialysis
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
64.
Acute tubular necrosis
a)
Increased BUN
b)
Decreased BUN
65.
most frequently used
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
66.
alkaline picrate
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
67.
alkaline picrate = SATURATED picric acid and 10% NaOH
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
68.
creatinine + picric acid (alkaline solution) yields red-orange color
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
69.
interferences AGAPA acetoacetate glucose acetone pyruvate ascorbate
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
70.
More accurate and specific
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
71.
Includes Fuller's earth = aluminum magnesium silicate, LLoyd's reagent = sodium aluminum silicate; TIME CONSUMING AND NOT READILY AUTOMATED
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
72.
TIME CONSUMING AND NOT READILY AUTOMATED
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
73.
Requires automated equipment for precision popular inexpensive rapid and easy to perform
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
74.
Requires automated equipment for precision
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
75.
Isotope dilution mass spectrometry is the reference method for NPNs
a)
True
b)
False
76.
popular inexpensive rapid and easy to perform
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
77.
specific than jaffe test
a)
Jaffe reaction
b)
Jaffe reagent
c)
Jaffe rxn with Fuller's earth and Lloyd's reagent
d)
Kinetic Jaffe method
e)
Coupled enzymatic method
78.
Fuller's earth
a)
Sodium aluminum silicate
b)
Aluminum magnesium silicate
79.
Lloyd's reagent
a)
Sodium aluminum silicate
b)
Aluminum magnesium silicate
80.
Increase in the conductivity due to NH4+ and CO32+ ions
a)
Diacetyl Monoxime
b)
Nesslerization
c)
Berthelot
d)
GLDH-coupled
e)
Conductimetric
81.
NAD Decrease in the absorbance of 340 nm
a)
Diacetyl Monoxime
b)
Nesslerization
c)
Berthelot
d)
GLDH-coupled
e)
Conductimetric
82.
Indophenol (Blue)
a)
Diacetyl Monoxime
b)
Nesslerization
c)
Berthelot
d)
GLDH-coupled
e)
Conductimetric
83.
Dimercuric ammonium iodide (Yellow orange)
a)
Diacetyl Monoxime
b)
Nesslerization
c)
Berthelot
d)
GLDH-coupled
e)
Conductimetric
84.
Yellow diazine derivative
a)
Diacetyl Monoxime
b)
Nesslerization
c)
Berthelot
d)
GLDH-coupled
e)
Conductimetric
85.
• Not reabsorbed nor secreted by the tubules • Disadvantage: expensive, continuous IV infusion
a)
Inulin Clearance
b)
Creatinine Clearance
c)
Urea Clearance
86.
Provides an estimate of the amount of plasma that must flow through the kidney glomeruli per minute
a)
Inulin Clearance
b)
Creatinine Clearance
c)
Urea Clearance
87.
Demonstrate progression of renal disease or response to therapy
a)
Inulin Clearance
b)
Creatinine Clearance
c)
Urea Clearance
88.
Does not give reliable estimates of the GFR since urea is freely filtered by the glomeruli and variably reabsorbed by the tubules
a)
Inulin Clearance
b)
Creatinine Clearance
c)
Urea Clearance
89.
Excellent measure of renal function since creatinine is freely filtered by the glomeruli, minimally secreted in the tubules but not reabsorbed
a)
Inulin Clearance
b)
Creatinine Clearance
c)
Urea Clearance
90.
Elevated concentrations of nitrogenous substances such as urea and creatinine in blood
a)
Azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
91.
Azotemia with renal damage
a)
Azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
92.
Azotemia with renal damage
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
93.
Dehydration
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
94.
Characterized by diminished glomerular filtration with normal renal function
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
95.
Characterized by damage within the kidneys
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
96.
Result of urinary tract obstruction
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
97.
Marked elevation of plasma urea and other NPNs accompanied by acidemia and hyperkalemia
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
98.
Characterized by anemia (normocytic, normochromic), uremic frost, generalized edema, foul breath, and sweat is urine-like
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
99.
Kidneys fail to eliminate waste products of metabolism
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
100.
Shock
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
101.
Congestive heart failure
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
102.
Diet
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
103.
Stress
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
104.
Fever
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
105.
Corticosteroid
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
106.
Acute chronic renal disease
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
107.
Glomerulonephritis
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
108.
Striking high urea level but slowly rising creatinine value
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
109.
Effects: coma, neuropsychiatric changes, anemia, and electrolyte imbalance
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
110.
Chronic glomerulonephritis = lengthy glomerular inflammation, gradual uremia, loss of function of nephrons
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
111.
stone
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
112.
Cancer or tumor of genitourinary tract
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
113.
severe infection of the bladder
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
114.
acidemia
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
115.
hyperkalemia
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
116.
anemia
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
117.
burr cell or cremated cell
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
118.
ammoniacal odor or breath
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
119.
urine-like sweat
a)
Pre-renal azotemia
b)
Renal azotemia
c)
Post-renal azotemia
d)
Uremia
120.
In chronic glomerulonephritis, glomerular inflammation is..
a)
Lengthy
b)
Gradual
c)
Nephrons
d)
Neptune
121.
In chronic glomerulonephritis, uremia is..
a)
Lengthy
b)
Gradual
c)
Nephrons
d)
Neptune
122.
In chronic glomerulonephritis, there is loss of function in..
a)
Lengthy
b)
Gradual
c)
Nephrons
d)
Neptune
123.
Dehydration
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
124.
Shock
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
125.
Congestive heart failure
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
126.
Diet
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
127.
Stress
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
128.
Fever
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
129.
Corticosteroid
a)
Pre-renal azotemia; reduced excretion
b)
Increased proteins which leads to increased urea
130.
What is the GFR of a person who has Kidney damage with normal or ↑ GFR
a)
<15 mL/min/1.73 m^2
b)
15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m^2
c)
30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m^2
d)
60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m^2
e)
>= 90 mL/min/1.73 m^2
131.
What is the GFR of a person who has Moderate ↓ GFR
a)
<15 mL/min/1.73 m^2
b)
15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m^2
c)
30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m^2
d)
60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m^2
e)
>= 90 mL/min/1.73 m^2
132.
What is the GFR of a person who has stage 5 kidney failure?
a)
<15 mL/min/1.73 m^2
b)
15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m^2
c)
30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m^2
d)
60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m^2
e)
>= 90 mL/min/1.73 m^2
133.
Chronic nephritis, alcoholism, gout, leukemia, chemotherapy, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
a)
Hyperuricemia
b)
Hypouricemia
134.
: Fanconi syndrome, severe liver disease, purine inhibitors, allopurinol
a)
Hyperuricemia
b)
Hypouricemia
135.
What is the GFR of a person who has Severe ↓ GFR
a)
<15 mL/min/1.73 m^2
b)
15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m^2
c)
30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m^2
d)
60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m^2
e)
>= 90 mL/min/1.73 m^2
136.
What is the GFR of a person who has Kidney damage with normal or ↓ GFR
a)
<15 mL/min/1.73 m^2
b)
15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m^2
c)
30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m^2
d)
60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m^2
e)
>= 90 mL/min/1.73 m^2
137.
Which chemical method for blood uric acid methodologies is associated with Sodium carbonate?
a)
Caraway, Henry, Archibald
b)
Folin, Newton, Benedict
138.
Tungsten (Blue)
a)
Caraway, Henry, Archibald
b)
Folin, Newton, Benedict
139.
Which chemical method for blood uric acid methodologies is associated with Sodium cyanide?
a)
Caraway, Henry, Archibald
b)
Folin, Newton, Benedict
140.
Decrease in the absorbance at 293 nm
a)
Allantoin
b)
Peroxidase-coupled

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